Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmocology - step > Neurology druuggz > Flashcards

Neurology druuggz Flashcards

1
Q

list the strategies for treating glaucoma

A

alpha agonists - decrease synthesis (hurts my brain bc on dilator muscles and that’s it)
beta blockers - decrease synthesis
diuretics - to decreased IOP
cholinomimetics - to increase outflow fo aqueous humor
prostaglandins - to increase outflow of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what durg is not to be used in closed angle galucoma

A

epinephrine bc causes mydriasis - bad news bears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does epinephrine decreased aqueous humor

A

alpha 1 agonist - decreases aqeous humor production by vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does brimonidine work for glaucoma

A

alpha two agonist - decreases aqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the side effects of epinephrine and brominidine for glaucoma treatment

A 
blurry vision
ocular hyperemia
doreign body sensation
ovcular allergic reactions 
ocular pruritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
which drug?
blurry vision
ocular hyperemia
foreing body sensation
ocular allergic reactions
ocular pruritus
A

epinephrine - alpha 1 agonist

brimodine - alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what beat blockers are used to treat glaucoma

A

timolol
betaxolol
carteolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are betaxolol and carteolol used for

A

glaucoma with timolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how to timolol betaxolol and carteolol treat glaucoma

A

beta blockers - decreasd aqueous humor production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the s/e of betaxolol and carteolol and timolol when used for glaucoma treatment?

A

no pupillary or vision chances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what diuretic is used for glaucoma treatment

A

acetazoloamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does acetazolamide help in glaucoma

A

decreases aqueoue humor synthesis via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a/se relevated to acetazolamide treatment for glaucoma

A

no pupillary or vision changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the direct cholinomimetics used to treat gluacoma

A

pilocarpine and carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do pilocarpine and carbachol help with galucoma

A

increased outflow by constricting the ciliary muscle and opening the trabecular meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the indirect cholinomimetics used to treat gluacoma

A

physostigmine and echothiophate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how do physostigmine and echothiophate work to help with glaucoma

A

increased outflow of aqueous humor via contraction of ciliary muscle
open trabecular meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are a/se of cholinomimetics when used for gluacoma

A

miosis and cyclospam - contraction of ciliary msucle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what drugs to choose if done want any pupillary of vision a/se for glaucoma

A

beta blockers: timolol, betaxolol, carteolol

diuretics: acetazolamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what durgs to choose for glaucoma if don’t mind pupillary or vision a/se

A

alpha agonists: epinephrine and brimonidine

cholinomimetis: carbachol, pilocarpine, physostigmine, echothiophate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what drug to use in glaucoma emergencies and why please

A

pilocarpine - bc especially good at opening meschwork into the canal of schlemm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what pg is used for glaucoma treatment

A

latanoprost PGF2a analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does latanoprost/PGF2a do for help in glaucoma

A

increases outflow of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are a/se of latanoprost

A

browns up the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

list the opioid analgesics please

A 
morphine
fentanyl
codeine
loperamide
methadone
meperidine
destromethrophan
diphenoxylate
pentazocine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the MOA of opioid analgesics

A

agonists at opiod recetors, m, d, k to modulate synaptic transmission - increase K and decreased Ca - decreases synaptic transmission - inhibits the release of a) Ach b( NE c) 5Ht, d) flutamate and e) substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what neurotransmitters do opiod analgesics decrease release of

A

NE, Ach, glutamate, substance P, 5Ht

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

again what neurotransmitters do opioid analgesics decrease

A

Ach, NE, glutamate, 5 Ht, substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is destromethrophan used for

A

opioid

cough suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is loperamide and diphenoxylate used for

A

diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is methadone used for

A

maintaince program for heroin addicts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is buprenorphine and naloxone combo used for

A

maintenance program for heroin addicts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are all opioids used for

A

pain

acute pulmonary oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

opiod used for cough suppression

A

dextromethorphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

opioid used for diarrhoea

A

loperamide and diphenoxylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

opioid used for maintenance of heroin addiction

A

methadone
OR
buprenorphine with naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the toxo risks of opioids

A 
addiction
respiratory depression
constipation
miosis
additive CNS depression with other drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how to treat opioid toxicity

A

naloxone or naltrexone - opioid receptor antagoinsts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what a/se do not build up tolerance in opioid tox

A

miosis

constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MOA of butorphanol

A

k opoiod receptor agonist
mew opioid receptor partial agonist
produces ANALGESIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

clinical use of butorphanol

A

severe pain - migraine and labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

who cares about butorphanol

A

k opioid agonist and mew opioid receptor agonist

less respiratory depresion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

toxo of butorphanol

A

can cause opioid withdrawal symptoms if patient is also taking full opiod agonist due to competition for recptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how to treat o/d of butrophanol

A

NOT Easily with naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is tramadol

A

very weak opioid agonist
also inhibits 5HT reuptake and NE reuptake
TRAM IT ALL with TRAMADOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is tramadol used for

A

chronic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

toxo of tramadol

A

similar to opioids
DECREASED SEIZURE THRESHOLD
SEROTONIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

whath opioid causes decrease seizure threshold

A

tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what opioid causes less resp depression

A

butorphanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what opioid can cause serotonin syndrome

A

tramadol - increases 5ht reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

list the barbituates please

A 
phenobarbital
pentobarbital
thiopental
secobarbital
BARBITAL and pental
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the moa of barbituates

A

favilirate GABAa by increasing DURATION Cl channels are open - decreases neuronal firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are barbituates used for

A

sedative for anxiety
seizures
insomnia
induction of anesthesia = thipental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

use of thiopental

A

induction of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what can cause increased CNS depression fo barbituates

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the a/se of barbituates

A

resp and cardiovascular depression CAN BE FATAL
CNS depression - can be made worse with alcohol
dependence
induces P450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how to treat overdose of barbituates

A

supportive

assist respiration and maintain blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

list the benzodiazepines

A

diazepam, lorazepam, trazolam, temazepam, oxazepam, midazolam, chlordiazepoxide ,alprazolam
OLAM and chlordiazepoxides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

moa of benzodiazepines

A

facilitate GABAa action by increasing FREQUENCY of Cl channel opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

effect of benzos on sleep

A

decreases REM - treat night terrors and sleep waling whih makes no sense to me bc night terros and sleep walking happen in NON REM STAGE III but anywho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

list the short acting benzodiazepines

A

ATOM: alprazolam, triazolam, oxazepam, midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

whats different between benzos with a long or a short half life

A

short half life - more addictive potential
ie alprazolam, triazolam, oxazepam and midazolam are more addictive tha diazepam, lrazepma, temazepam, chlordiazepxoide that have long half lifes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

list the benzodiazepines with longer hald lifes

A

diazepam
lorazepam
temazepam
chlordiazepoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

clinical use of benzos please

A 
anxiety
spasticicty
status epilepticus
detox from alcohol withdrawal/delirium tremens
night terros
sleepwalking
cneral anesthetics - amnesia and muscle relaxants
hypnotics - insomnia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

which benzs are used for status epilepticus

A

lorazepam and diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the toxos of benzos

A

dependence
addictive CNS depression effects with alcohol
less risk of respi depression an d coma that barbituatesa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

how to treat o/d of benzos

A

FLUMAZENIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is flumazenil

A

treatment of o/d benzos (and nonbenzo hypnotics the zzzs)- acuts by competitive antag at GABA benzo receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

which has more risk of resp depression and coma, barbs or benzos

A

barbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

list the nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics

A

zolpidem
zaleplon
eszopiclone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are zolpidem, zaleplon, eszopiclone

A

nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the MOA of zolpidem, zalephlon, eszopiclone

A

act via the BZ1 subtype of the GABA receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how to reverse effects of zolpidem, zaleplon, eszopiclone

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are zolpidem, zaleplon and eszopiclone used fro

A

insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

toxo risks of zolpidem, zalephlon, eszopiclone

A 
ataxia
headache
confusion
only modest day after psychomotor depression and fefw amniestic effects
decreased risk of dependency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the benefits of zolpidem, zaleplon and eszopiclone over benzos

A

less day after amniestic effects and less psychomotor depression
less risk of dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

why do zolpidem, zaleplon and eszopiclone have a short durcation of action

A

rapid metabolism by liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how do anesthetis reach the BBB

A

either are lipid soluble or are actively transported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what does it mean if an anesthetic has decreased blood solubility

A

faster onset and faster recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what does it mean if an anesthetic has increased lipid solubility

A

increased potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what does potency equal

A

1/MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the MAC

A

MAC: minimal alveolar concentraction of inhaled anesthetic required to prevent 50% of subjects from moving in response to noxious stimulus ie skin incision

the higher the MAC the less potent (less lipid soluble)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

N2O is low blood soluble and low lipid soluble…. describe it as an anesthetic

A

fast induction and fast recovery - low blod osolubility

low potency - low lipid solbulity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

halothane has high blood solubility and high lipid solubility …describe it as an anesthetic

A

high blood solubility - longer to induce and longer to recovery
high lipid solubility - more potent. lower MAC

85
Q

list the inhaled anesthetics

A 
halothane
enflurane
isoflurane
sevofulrane
methoxyflurane
N2O
FLURANEs or THANEs or N2O
86
Q

describe the MOA of inhaled anesthetics

A

we don’t know :)

87
Q

what are the effects of inhaled anesthetics

A

myocardial depression
respiratory depression
nausea/emesis
increased cerebral blood flow - decreased metabolic demand

88
Q

a/se of halothane

A

hepatoxicity

89
Q

a/se of methoxyflurane

A

nephrotoxicity

90
Q

a/se of enflurane

A

proconvulsant

91
Q

a/se of N2O

A

expansion of trapped gas I a body cavity

92
Q

a/se of which inhaled anesthetic? hepatoxicity

93
Q

a/se of which inhaled anesthetic? nephrotoxivity

A

methoxyflurane

94
Q

a/se of which inhaled anesthetic? proconvulsant

95
Q

a/se of which inhaled anesthetic? expansion of trapped gas in body cavities

96
Q

what is the major concern of inhaled anesthetics

A

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA doesn’t happen with N2O

97
Q

what is malignant hyperthermia

A

rare
life threatening
heritable
inhaled anetsthics (NOT N2O) and succinylcholine induce FEVER and SEVERE MUSCLE CONTRACTIONS

98
Q

how to treat malignangy hyperthermia

A

dantrolene

99
Q

what is dantrolene MOA

A

blocks Ca release from the SR of skeletal muscle

100
Q

what is dantrolene used for

A

malignant hyperthermia from inhaled anesthetics and succinhylcholine ;use

101
Q

please list the IV anesthetics and their families

A 
thiopental/barbiturate
midazolam/benzo
ketamine/arylcyclohexylamine
morphine + fentanyl/opioid
propofol/not listed :)
102
Q

describe the pharmacokinetics of thiopental

A

highly lipid soluble - high potency - rapidly gets in the braine

103
Q

what is thiopental used for

A

induction into anesthesia

short surgical procedures

104
Q

how does effect of thiopental get terminated

A

rapid redistribution into skeletal muscle and fat

105
Q

effect of thiopental on CNS blood flow

106
Q

how is midazolam used

A

endoscopy

and in conjunction with narcotis and gaseous anesthetics

107
Q

what are a/se of midazolam

A

may cause severe postop respiratoyr depression
decreased bp
anterograde amnesia

108
Q

how to treat severe post op resp depression, decreasd bp and anterograde amnesina of midazolam

A

flumazenil

109
Q

what is ketamine

A

a pcp analog that acts as a dissociative anesthetic
blocks NMDA receptors
cardiovascular stimulatin

110
Q

what are effects of ketamine

A

cardiovascular stiulate
hallucionat
sdisorientation
bad dreams

111
Q

effet of ketamine on cerebral blood flow

A

increases vrs thiopental that decreases it

112
Q

what opiodis are use with other CNS depressnats during general anesthesia?

A

morphine and fentanyl

113
Q

what is propofol used for

A

sedation int eICU
rapid anetsthesia induction
short procedures

114
Q

what is MOA of propofol

A

potentiates GABAa receptor

115
Q

what is benefit of propofol over thiopental

A

less postop nausea than thiopental

116
Q

name the IV anesthetic used for endoscopy

117
Q

name the IV anesthetic used for induction to anesthesia

A

thiopental

118
Q

name the IV anesthetic used for short procedures

A

propafol > thiopental, because less nauceas

119
Q

name the IV anesthetic used for sedation in the ICU

120
Q

name the IV anesthetic used for dissociation

121
Q

list the IV anesthetics that make you forget

A

ketamine - dissociative desired s/e

midazolam - anteriograde amnesia a/se

122
Q

list the local anesthetic esters

A

procaine
cocaine
tetracaine
ONLY ONE I

123
Q

list the local anesthetic amides

A

lidocaine
mepivacaine
bupivavaine
AMIDES have TWO Is

124
Q

what is uslaly given with local anesthetics

A

a vasoconstrictor like epinephrine – enhances local action - decreases bleeding and increases local anesthetics by decreases systemic concentation

125
Q

what is the moa of local anesthetics

A

block na channels by binding to inner portion of channel
preferentially bind to active channgels - so most effective in rapidly firing nerutions
enter as non charged and bind as charged

126
Q

how does infected tissue affect local anesthetics

A

infected tissue is acidic - traps alkaline anethetics in charged form so can t enter tissues. - need more of it bc effectiveness is decreased

127
Q

which fibres are blocked first

A

matters less - myelinated

matters more - small

128
Q

list the order of fibres that are blocked

A

small myelinated > small unmyelinated > large myelinated > large unmyelinated

129
Q

list the modalities sequentially blocked with local anesthetics

A

pain > temp > touch > pressure

130
Q

what are local anesthetics used for

A

minor surgical procedures and spinal anesthesia

131
Q

what if someone is allergic to procaine

A

give an amide with two is

132
Q

what are neuromuscular blocking drugs used for

A

muscle paralysis in surgery or mechanical ventilation

133
Q

what receptors do neuromuscular blockers act on

134
Q

what are the depol NMJ blockers

A

succinylcholine

135
Q

how does succinylcholine work

A

strong Ach receptor agonist - produces sustained depol and prevents muscle contraction

136
Q

what are the phases of reversal of blockade in succinylcholine

A

phase 1 - prolonged depol: no antidote

phase 2 - repol but blocked; ach receptors available but desensitized; antidote is cholinesterase inhibitors

137
Q

how do you reverse the blockade of succinylcholine

A

during phase 1, prolonged depol no antidote, achase inhibitors will make worse
during phase2, repol but blocked aka ach receptors are available but are desensicity;es used achase inhibitors

138
Q

what are the complications of succinychloine

A

hypercalcemia
hyperkalemia
malignant hyperthermia

139
Q

what are the nondepolarizating NMJ blockers

A 
tubocurarine
atracurirum
mivacurium
pancuronium
vecuronium
rocuronium
140
Q

how do non depol NMJ blockers work

A

competitive antagoinsts - cometep with ACh for receptors

141
Q

how to reverse blockage of nondepol NMJ blockers

A

with neostigmine - have o give with atropine to prevent muscarinic effects - bradycardia
edrophonium
other cholinesterase inhibitors

142
Q

what is baclofen

A

inhibits GABA b receptors at spinal cord - induces skeletal muscle relaxation

143
Q

uses of baclofen

A

muscle spasms ie lower back pain

144
Q

what is cyclobenzaprine

A

centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant; structurally similar to TCAs with anticholi a/se too

145
Q

what is cyclobenzaprine used for

A

muscle spams

146
Q

list treatment for muscle spasms please

A

baclofen - gaba b agonist

cyclobenzaprine - central like a tca

147
Q

list the strategies for treating Parkinson disease

A

want to increased DA and dereased ACh

  • DA agonists
  • increase DA availaibility central
  • increased Ldopa availability peripheral
  • prevent DA breakdown- central
  • stop excess cholinergic activity
148
Q

list the drugs that act as DA agonists

A

bromocriptin - ergot
pramipexole and ropinirole
Ro-PIN- ROLLING (resting tremor)

149
Q

list the drugs that increase DA availability centrally

A

amantadine - increases release and decrease DA uptake

150
Q

list the drugs that increase ldopa availability

A

levodopa and carbidopa

entacapnoe and tolcapone - inhibit COMT

151
Q

list the durgs that precent DA breakdown centrally

A

seleglitine - inihibts MAOB

tolcapone - inhibits COMT peri and centrally

152
Q

list the drugs that curb excess ach activity

A

benztropine

153
Q

MOA of bromocriptine pelase

A

DA agonist, ergot. not preferred to pramipexole and ropinirole

154
Q

MOA of ropinirole pelase

A

DA agonist, non ergot preferred over bromocriptine

155
Q

MOA of pramipexole pelase

A

DA agonist, non ergot preferred over bromocription

PRAMIPEXOLE

156
Q

moa of amantadine please

A

increase DA release and prevents uptake of DA

antiviral vrs influenze A and rubella

157
Q

toxo of amantadine pelase

A

livedo reticularis

ataxia

158
Q

anti Parkinson used as an antiviral

A

amantadine - anit influenza A and rubella

159
Q

what is the MOA of levodopa/carbidopa combo

A

caridopa blocks peripheral DOPA decarboxylase and reduces a/se of increase da in peripherly

160
Q

oa of entacapone

A

peripheral block of COMT - no breakdown of L DOPA to 3- O methyldopa

161
Q

MOA of talcapone

A

peripheral and central block of COMT - no breakdown of LDOPA to 3-o methyl dopa in periphery nor DA to DOPAC centrally

162
Q

MOA of selefiline

A

blocks conversion of dopamine into 3MT by inhibiting MAOB

163
Q

effects of benztropine

A

park your benz

antimuscarinic - has effects on tremor and rigidity but not bradykinesia

164
Q

which can cross the bbb da or ldopa

A

ldopa waddup

tis why we need carbidopa to inhibit dopa decarboxylase in the periphery

165
Q

toxo of lecodopa/carbidopa

A

arrthymias deom increased peripheral formation of catecholamines

166
Q

what can long term use of levodopa/carbidopa cause

A

dyskinesia after administration and akinesia between doses

167
Q

what is selsgiline

A

MAO b inhibitor - increases DA degradation more than norephinephirine

168
Q

use od selegiline

A

adjunctive agent to l dopa for parkinson

169
Q

toxo of selegiline

A

may enhacen arrhythmias, od dyskinesia and akinesia with use of levo and carbidopa

170
Q

list drugs used to treat Alzheimer disease

A

memantine
donepezilgalantamine
rivastigmine
tacrine

171
Q

what is the moa of memantine

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

helps prevent excitatoxicity mediated by Ca++

172
Q

what is memantine used for

173
Q

what are toxos of memantine

A

dizziness, confusion, hallucinations

174
Q

alxhemier disease is associated with low Ach levels. therapeutically how can this be corrected

A

can use AChase inhibitors

175
Q

what are donepezil
galantamine
rivastigmine
tacrine

A

achase inhibitors
used in alxehmier
donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine

176
Q

what are the toxos fo donepezil, galantamine, rivastigine tacrine

A

nausea, dizziness, insomnia

177
Q

what are the nt changes inhuntingtons

A

decreased gaba
decreasd ach
increasd da

178
Q

how do you treat Huntington disease

A

tetrabenazine and reserpine: inhibit VMAT - limit DA vesicle packaging and release
haloperidol - D2 receptor antagonist

179
Q

tetrabenazine and reserpine?

A

Huntington treatment

inhibit VMAT - limit DA vesicle packaging and release

180
Q

haloperidol use?

A

Huntington disease

D2 receptor antagonist (indirect pathway )

181
Q

sumatriptan moa pelase

A

5ht1b/1d agonist
inhibit trigeminal nerve activation
prevent vasoactive pepride relase
iduce vasocsotnrtion

182
Q

why are tripasn effective treatment for acute migrains and cluster headaches

A

agonist and 5HT1/d/b
inhibit trigeminal nerve actiation
prevent vasoactive peptide release
induce vasoconstriction

183
Q

as/e of triptans

A

coronary vasospasm

mild parethesias

184
Q

where are triptans contraindicated

A

coronary artery disease

praziqnautel disease

185
Q

doc at absent seizures

A

ethosuximide

sucs to have silent seizures

186
Q

doc at acute status epilepticus

A

benzodiazepines - diazepam and lorazepam

187
Q

doc at prophylaxis for status epilepticus

188
Q

doc for tonic clonics

A

phenytoin
valproid acid
carbamaezepine

189
Q

doc at simple seizures

A

carbamazepine

190
Q

doc at complex seizures

A

carbamazepine

191
Q

which seizure drugs act by blocking ca channels t type at thalamus

A

ethosuximide

doc at absence seizures

192
Q

which seizure drugs act by increase action at GABA a receptors

A 
benzodiazepines
phenobarbital
topiramate
levetiracetma
tigabine
vigabatrin
193
Q

which seizure drugs act by increase na channel inactivation

A 
phenytoin
carbamazepine
valproid acid
topiramate
lamotrigine
194
Q

which seizure drugs act by inhibiting GABA transaminase

A

valproid acid

vigabatrin

195
Q

which seizure drugs are teratogens

A

phenytoin
carbamazepine
valproic acid

196
Q

which seizure drugs can cause steven Johnson syndrome

A

ethosuximide
phenytoin
carbamazepine
lamotrigine

197
Q

what seizure drugs can induce P450

A

phenytoin
carbamazepine
phenobarbital

198
Q

what seizure drug casues kidney stones

A

topiramate

199
Q

what seizure drugs can cause ataxia

A

phenytoin

gabapentin

200
Q

which seizure drugs can mess with blood

A

phenytoin- megaloblastic

carbamazepine - agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia

201
Q

which seizure drug causes gingiaval hyeprplasi

202
Q

what seizure drug causes DSIADH

A

carbamazepine

203
Q

what seizure drug causes SLE like syndrome

204
Q

what seizure drug casues neural tube defects

A

valproic acid

205
Q

what is DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

206
Q

what is DOC for exlampsia

A

MgSO4 first and then benzodiazepines

207
Q

what drug used for myoclonic seizures

A

valproid caid

208
Q

what seizure drug used for migraine prophylaxis

209
Q

what drug also used for peripheral neuropathy

A

gapapentin

Pharmocology - step (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions