Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Catalyst > Neuro 1 > Flashcards

Neuro 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of the anatomical position?

A

SHAFT (Standing erect, head facing forward, arms at the side with palm facing forward, feet slightly apart, toes facing forward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

State the layers of the scalp (from superficial to deep)

A

SCALP (Skin, connective tissues, aponeurosis, loose areolar, pericranium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones? (PT FOES)

A

PT FOES (parietal, temporal); (frontal, occipital, ethmoid, sphenoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the paired cranial bones?

A

parietal and temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the unpaired cranial bones?

A

frontal, occipital, ethmoid, and sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many cranial bones are there?

A

There are 8 cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the sutures?

A

This separates one part of the cranial bone from another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This separated two parietal bones.

A

Saggital suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This separates the frontal from parietal bone.

A

Coronal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This separates parietal bones to occipal bone.

A

Lamboidal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This separates the parietal and temporal bone.

A

Squamosal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the facial bones?

A

Vomer, Maxilla, Mandible, Nasal bone, inferior nasal conchae, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bones, palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

State the paired and unpaired facial bones.

A

Paired: Maxilla, nasal bone, inferior nasal conchae, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bone, palatine bones
Unpaired: Mandible, vomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This is the moveable and strongest part of the facial bone.

A

Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do you call the nerves attached to the spinal cord?

A

spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many nerves are there that are associated to the PNS?

A

86

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the somatic nervous system?

A

This is the fight or flight response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Rest and digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Known as the flight or fight response

A

Somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Known as the “rest and digest” nervous system.

A

Autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the embryonic divisions?

A

ProMeRho (Procencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhombencelon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the subdivisions of the prosencephalon? How many are there?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This embryonic division is your forebrain.

A

Procencephalon (forebrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

This embryonic division is your midbrain

A

Mesencephalon (midbrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This is the most inferior part of the ebryonic division

A

Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the subdivision/s of mesencephalon? How many are there?

A

Mesencephalon. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the secondary division/s of the rhombencephalon? How many are there?

A

Metencephalon
Myelencephalon
There are 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the adult structures of telencephalon? How many are there. State what embryonic division is this.

A

BGCH (Basal ganglia, cerebrum, hipocampus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the adult structures of diencephalon? How many are there? State the embryonic division.

A

SHET PI (Subthalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalmus, Thalamus, Pituitary gland, infindibulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the adult structures of mesencephalon?

A

TT CC (tectum, tegmentum, crus cerebri)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the subdivisions of the metencephalon?

A

pons, cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the subdivisions of the myelencephalon?

A

medulla oblongata, spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the largest part of the brain?

A

cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the two parts of the cerebrum?

A

left and right hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the left hemisphere control?

A

logic, language, numbers,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When this hemisphere is damaged, the person may have dyscalculia/acalculia or may have aphasia. What hemisphere is this?

A

left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Difference of ideomotor and ideational apraxia

A

ideomotor (can do automatic tasks howere is unable to do command tasks), ideational (cannot do command and automatic tasks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The patient has difficulty with dressing and undressing. What hemisphere is affected?

A

right hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The patient has difficulty with automatic and command tasks. What hemisphere is damaged and state the kind of apraxia.

A

Ideational apraxia. Left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the two types of cells in the nervous system?

A

Neurons and Neuroglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This type of cell in the nervous system hold neurons together. Enhancement. Some common types of this cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes (which form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system)

A

Neuroglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This carries electrical impulses (called action potentials) away from the neuron’s cell body to other neurons, muscles, or glands.

A

Axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This receive signals (electrical or chemical) from other neurons or sensory receptors and transmit them toward the neuron’s cell body (soma). They act like antennae, gathering information from the surrounding environment or neighboring cells.

A

Dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This is the foundation of the nervous system or the supporting framework, and the most numerous in the CNS

A

Astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The myelin sheath of CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

These cells are involved in immune system and macrophage of nervous system

A

Microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The supporting framework of PNS for more effective conduction

A

Satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The myelin sheath of PNS

A

Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of basal ganglia?

A

Modulation, initiaion, smoothens motor, performance, tone (MIST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the four lobes?

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

Motor, language, procedural memory, analytical thinking, behavior, emotions, cognition, judgement, intelligence, personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

Sensation and perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

Hearing, smelling, and memory (HSM - High School Musical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

Vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the responsibility of insular lobe

A

Pain, emotion, decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Lesion in the hippocampus will lead to

A

Amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Limbic lobe consists of

A

Parahippocampus - encodes memory (STM)
Uncus - Associated with CN 1
Cingulate gyrus - Associated with pain
Hippocampus - Storage of memory (LTM)
Amygdala - Sex motivation

PUCHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the function of the uncus?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the name and function of the BA4? What happens if there is a lesion?

A

Primary motor; this executes the movement. Lesion in this area may lead to flaccidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the name of BA6? What happens if there is a lesion in BA6?

A

Premotor cortex; problems with movements, such as modifications of movement. Lesion in this area may lead to spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is BA8? What happens if there lesion there?

A

Frontal eyefield. Problems in this area may lead to frontal gaze palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is BA9-12? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

Prefrontal. There will be behavioral changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is BA44? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

Broca’s area. Broca’s aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the Brodmann Areas that are under the frontal lobe area?

A

BA 4 & 6, BA 8, BA 9-12, BA 44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the Brodmann areas in the parietal lobe?

A

BA 3, 2, & 1, BA 5 & 7, BA 39, BA 40, BA 43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is BA 3, 1, 2? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

primary somatosensory area; difficulties with sensation–it will lead to hemianesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is BA 5, 7? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

secondary somatosensory area; there will be inability to know the real sensory stimuli–tactile agnosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is BA39? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?

A

Angular gyrus; Gertsmann Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is BA40? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?

A

Supramarginal gyrus. It may lead to ideomotor apraxia, somatoagnosia (soma meaning body, may problem with identifying body parts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is BA43? What happens if there is a lesion in that area?

A

Gustatory area. If there is lesion it will lead to aguesia (loss of taste)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the BA’s area in the temporal lobe?

A

Wernicke’s (22), primary auditory and secondary auditory brodmann areas (41 & 42)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is BA 41? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

Primary auditory, deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is BA 42? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

secondary auditory, difficulty with processing the hearing also known as secondary dysprosody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is BA 22? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

Wernicke’s, Wernicke’s aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the Brodmann area’s of the occipital lobe?

A

BA 17, 18, 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What brodmann area is the primary visual? What happens if there is lesion in that area?

A

BA 17. Blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is brodmann area 18 and 19? What happens if there is lesion in this area?

A

Visual association; it will lead to visual hallucination, visual agnosia if both hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the commissural fiber?

A

This connects corresponding regions of two hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

This structure of the brain is considered as the greatest commissure.

A

Corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

This connects various cortical regions within the same hemisphere.

A

Association fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

This structure is the greatest association fiber.

A

Arcuate fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

This connects the cerebral hemisphere with interior structures–distant connection

A

Projection fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

______ are considered as projection fibers.

A

Tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the anatomical structures of the basal ganglia?

A

CPG (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

This composes of the CPG (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen)

A

Corpus striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is under neostriatum?

A

Caudate nucleus, putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is under lentiform?

A

Putamen, Globus pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

This is the other name of globus pallidus

A

Paleostriatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the excitatory neurotransmitters? (AGE)

A

Acetycholine, Glutamate, Epinepherine/norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters? State the areas of which they are most concentrated in.

A

GABA, dopamine, glycine
GABA is most concentrated on cerebral cortex
Glycine is most concentrated on spinal cord
Dopamine is most concentrated on corpus striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

This is the most abundant, or widely distributed excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the function of the subthalamus?

A

Motor control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the function of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (hypothalamus)?

A

Circadian rhythm–sleep-wake cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the function of preoptic medial nucleus?

A

sex drive and libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the function of anterior of posterior hypothalamus?

A

regulates the temperature; anterior - removes the heart, posterior - puts heat inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the function of lateral hypothalamus?

A

“l” for laklak, also the hunger and thirst center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the function of medial hypothalamus?

A

“musog” for satiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the two components of the epithalamus?

A

Pineal gland and habenular nuclei

102
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland (epithalamus)?

A

Secretes melatonin–induces sleep

103
Q

What is the function of the habenular nuclei (epithalamus)?

A

Responsible for sensation such as olfaction (smell)

104
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Responsible for the sensory relay center except for olfaction

105
Q

This structure is also known as the little brain, located at the posterior aspect of the skull.

A

cerebellum

106
Q

What is the difference between cerebrum and cerebellum?

A

The cerebrum controls the contralateral side of the body while the cerebellum controls the ipsilateral (same side)

107
Q

What are the main functions of cerebellum?

A

coordination, balance, and muscle tone

108
Q

What is the function of the brainstem?

A

Bridge all tracts and is considered as the reflex center. Cranial nerves III-XII are found here.

109
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the midbrain?

A

CN III, IV

110
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the pons?

A

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

111
Q

What cranial nerves are found in the medulla oblongata?

A

CN IX-XII

112
Q

What cranial nerve is found in the telencephalon?

A

CN I - Olfactory nerve

113
Q

What cranial nerve is found in the diencephalon?

A

CN II

114
Q

What separates the medulla oblangata?

A

foramen magnum

115
Q

This is where the spinal cord tapers off (it is where the spinal cord is fading)

A

conus medullaris

116
Q

This is the prolongation of the pia mater; attached to the coccyx

A

filum terminale

117
Q

What is the Bell Magendie Law

A

Ventral & Dorsal
Ventral/Anterior - efferent (motor)
Dorsal - afferent (sensory)

118
Q

Px has ventral spinal cord lesion, what happens to the patient?

A

motor problems

119
Q

Px has dorsal spinal cord lesion, what happens to the patient?

A

sensory problems

120
Q

What are meninges?

A

These are the layers of the brain

121
Q

What are the three layers of the meninges?

A

DAP (Dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater)

122
Q

What is the outermost aka pachymeninx?

A

Dura mater

123
Q

It is the middle part of the meninges

A

arachnoid

124
Q

What is the inner most layer of the meninges?

A

pia mater

125
Q

What are leptomeninges?

A

pia mater + arachnoid

126
Q

What are ventricles?

A

cavities that contain the CBF

127
Q

What is the function of the cerebrospinal fluids (csf)? (PINCH)

A

Protection, Intracranial pressure regulation, Nutrition, Cushion, Homeostasis

128
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

Main producer of the CBF

129
Q

What is the biggest ventricle?

A

Lateral ventricles

130
Q

What is the interventricular foramen?

A

foramen monroe

131
Q

State the CSF Flow

A

Choroid plexus, lateral ventricles, intraventricular foramen (foramen monroe), third ventricle, cerebral aqueduact of sylivus, 4th ventticle, openings (foramen magendie, foramen luschka), central canal, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi

132
Q

Main absorber of the CSF

A

Arachnoid villi

133
Q

What are the main arteries?

A
  • Internal carotid artery (OAMPoC)
  • Basilar artery (A Pon Las Po)
  • Vertebral artery (Men PAMP)subarachnoid space (10) arachnoice villi
134
Q

What are the branches of ICA?

A

Opthalmic, Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA), Medial Cerebral Artery, Posterior Communicating Artery (PCA)

135
Q

What happens if there is lesion in the ACA?

A

Problems with LE > UE

136
Q

What does the ACA supply?

A

Supplies corpus callosum and Basal Ganglia

137
Q

This is the largest branch or terminal branch of ICA, and supplies mostly the lateral portion of the cerebral cortex. This is also the most common stroke.

A

MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)

138
Q

When a person has MCA, which is the most affected?

A

CVA affectations: UE x Face > LE; aphasia, dysphagia

139
Q

This connects anterior and posterior circulation and junction between 2 ICA and terminal branches of basilar artery.

A

Posterior communication artery

140
Q

This is the 1st branch of the basilar artery. This supplies pons and cerebellum.

A

Anterior Inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)

141
Q

Supplies the pons and is found in basilar artery

A

Pontine Artery

142
Q

This supplies internal ear

A

Labrynthine artery

143
Q

Supplies the midbrain

A

Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)

144
Q

This is the terminal branch of the basilar artery. It supplies the thalamus and subthalamus. CVA affectation would be vision.

A

Posterior cerebral artery

145
Q

What are the branches of Vertebral artery?

A

Men PAMP (Meningeal artery, posterior spinal artery, anterior spinal artery, medullary artery, pica (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)

146
Q

This branch supplies the meninges

A

Meningal artery

147
Q

This supplies posterior 1/3 of spinal cord

A

Posterior spinal artery

148
Q

This supplies anterior 2/3 of spinal cord

A

Anterior spinal artery

149
Q

Supplies medulla oblongata

A

Medullary Artery

150
Q

Considered as the brainstem stroke

A

PICA (Posterior inferior cerebellar artery)

151
Q

This kind of stroke has greater affectations in the upper extremeties and face. Contralateral hemiplegia.

A

MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)

152
Q

What are the symptoms of people with MCA?

A

Aphasia, dysphagia, contralateral hemiplegie (UE and face > LE) contralateral hemianesthesia UE x Face > LE, Frontal gaze palsy, contralateral hemianopsia, aphasia/aprosodia, apraxia,

153
Q

State what kind of stroke. Inability to stand and walk and has no to little reaction.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

154
Q

May exhibit primitive reflexes and may have disconnection apraxia. The person may also exhibit uninhibited neurogenic bladder.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

155
Q

Kind of stroke that has frontal gaze palsy. Apraxia and dysphagia.

A

MCA (Middle Cerebral Artery)

156
Q

Has gegenhalten and pseudobulbar affect

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

157
Q

Visual impairment and ballint’s syndrome

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

158
Q

Hemisensory deficit or thalamic pain

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

159
Q

What is the Ballint’s syndrome? What kind of stroke will the patient have?

A

PCA. Symptoms include the following:
* Optic apraxia
* Oculomotor apraxia
* Simultagnosia -> inability to know the general picture

160
Q

This is filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It only extends inferiorly as far as the second sacral vertebral and contains cerebral arteries, veins, and cranial nerves.

A

subarchnoid space

161
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 pairs

162
Q

What cranial nerves are sensory?

A

CN I, CN II, CN VIII (3)

163
Q

What cranial nerves are motor?

A

CN 3, 4, 6, 11, 12

164
Q

What cranial nerves are mixed?

A

CN V, CN VII, CN IX, CN X

165
Q

Where is the exit point of CN I? State the name of this CN.

A

Olfactory Nerve. Cribriform Plate

166
Q

Where is the exit point of CN II? State the name of this CN.

A

Optic Nerve. Exit point: Optic Canal

167
Q

Where are the exit points of CN III, IV, CN V - V1 (Opthalmic division), CN VI?

A

CN III Oculomotor, CN IV Trochlear, CN V Trigeminal (V1 - Opthalmic Division), CN VI Abducens; Exit: Superior Orbital Fissure

168
Q

This CN has three branches. What CN is this? What is V1, V2, V3 of this CN?

A

CN V Trigeminal Nerve
V1 - Opthalmic
V2 - Maxillary
V3 - Mandibular

169
Q

Where is the exit point of V2 of Trigeminal Nerve?

A

Foramen rotundum

170
Q

Where is the exit point of V3 of Trigeminal Nerve?

A

Foramen ovale

171
Q

Where is the exit point of CN VII and VIII?

A

Internal Acoustic Meatus

172
Q

Where are the exit points of CN IX, CN X, CN XI?

A

Jugular Foramen

173
Q

Where is the exit point of CN XII?

A

Hypoglossal Canal

174
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin in the diencephalon?

A

CN II

175
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin in the telencephalon?

A

CN I

176
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at midbrain?

A

CN III, CN IV

177
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at pons?

A

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

178
Q

State the cranial nerve/s that have the origin at the medulla oblongata

A

CN IX - CN XII

179
Q

What is the general function of the CN I? Lesion in this area will lead to what?

A

Smell. Anosmia

180
Q

What is the function of CN II?

A

Sight

181
Q

What is the function of CN III?

A

Constrict pupils, accomodates, moves eyes

182
Q

What is the function of CN IV and VI?

A

Eye movement

183
Q

What is the function of CN V?

A

Chewing, sensation of the front of the face

184
Q

What is the function of CN VII?

A

Movement of facial features, taste, salivation, crying

185
Q

What is the function of CN VIII?

A

Hearing and balance

186
Q

What is the function of CN IX?

A

Taste, salivation, swallowing, monitors carotid body and sinus

187
Q

What is the function of CN X?

A

Taste, swallowing, lifts palate, supplies at the thorax and abdomen

188
Q

What is the function of CN XI?

A

Turns head and lifts shoulder

189
Q

What is the function of CN XII?

A

Tongue movement

190
Q

How many pairs does spinal nerves have?

A

31 pairs

191
Q

What are the plexuses?

A

cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

192
Q

State the lesion given the following:

A
193
Q

Hypertonia

A

UMNL

194
Q

Hypotonio

A

LMNL

195
Q

Flaccidity

A

LMNL

196
Q

Hyperreflexia or Increased deep tendon reflex

A

UMNL

197
Q

Atrophy (disused) - what you do not use, you will loose

A

UMNL

198
Q

Atrophy (denervated); severe muscle wasting

A

LMNL

199
Q

Pathologic reflexes

A

UMNL

200
Q

Spontaneous muscle activity: fasciculation, fibrillation, and muscle cramps

A

LMNL

201
Q

Hyporeflexia or decreased deep tendon reflex

A

LMNL

202
Q

Affected structures are corticospinal tract and corticobulbar tracts

A

UMNL

203
Q

Cranial nerve lesion and spinal nerve lesion

A

LMNL

204
Q

Contralateral lower quadrant palsy of face

A

UMNL

205
Q

Ipsilateral half palsy of face

A

LMNL

206
Q

Pseudobulbar palsy, pseudobulbar affect and emotional incontinence

A

UMNL

207
Q

Bulbar palsy

A

LMNL

208
Q

A 55-year-old male presents with progressive weakness, stiffness, and spasticity in his legs.
He has difficulty walking and complains of muscle cramps.
Where is the potential lesion? UMN or LMN?

A

UMNL

209
Q

A 25-year-old female experienced a sudden onset of facial droop, difficulty speaking, and weakness in her right arm.Symptoms have worsened over the past hour.

A

UMNL

210
Q

A newborn infant is noted to have difficulty feeding, weak cry, and decreased muscle tone. On examination, there is tongue fasciculation and absent reflexes.

A

LMNL

211
Q

It is the smalled functional element controlled by the motor control system

A

Motor unit

212
Q

It supplies the entire lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere except for the narrow strip, occipital pole, and inferolateral surface of the hemisphere.

A

MCA (Middle cerebral artery)

213
Q

The space that is entered during a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid sample is the:

A

Subarachnoid space

214
Q

The arcuate fasciculus connects regions in the temporal lobes with regions in the frontal lobes and is one type of fiber tract.

A

Association

215
Q

Brodmann area 44, or the _____ area, is an important area in spoken language.

A

Broca’s

216
Q

A short tube joining the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain:

A
217
Q

State the correct cerebrospinal fluid flow from formation, circulation to absorption.

A

Choroid plexus, lateral ventricles, foramen monro, third ventricle, sylvian aquedact, fourth ventricle, openings, foramen of magendie, foramen of luschka, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi, superior sagittal sinus

218
Q

This _____ is the basic unit of the nervous system

A

neuron

219
Q

What is the deepest brain covering?

A

Pia mater

220
Q

Main site of absorption of the CSF flow

A

arachnoid villi

221
Q

CBF is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called

A

choroid plexus

222
Q

Executive functions such as reasoning, planning, and problem solving are associated with the operation of the _____ lobe

A

Left

223
Q

Carries impulses to the brain

A

afferent fibers

224
Q

In the cranial cavity, this structures act as the outermost covering for the brain, but also as the lining membrane on the inner surfaces of the bones. It also gives valuable support to the brain, the partitions preventing shifting thereby safeguarding the brain against injury.

A

Dura mater

225
Q

The CBF serves as the following functions

A

PINCH (Protection, Intracranial pressure regulation, Nutrition, Buoyancy for the brain serving as a mechanical cushion, Preserves homeostasis in the nervous system)

226
Q

Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:

A

Posterior communicating arteries

227
Q

Which of the following statements concern the subarachnoid space?
a. It is filled with cerebrospinal fluid
b. It extends inferiorly as far as the fourth sacral vertebra
c. The cerebral arteries and veins are not located in subarachnoid space
d. The cranial nerves lie outside the subarachnoid space in sheaths derived from the dura mater

A

a. It is filled with CBF

Explanation: The subarachnoid space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It only extends inferiorly as far as the second sacral vertebral and contains cerebral arteries, veins, and cranial nerves.

228
Q

Ataxic dysarthria is related to a lesion of ________

A

Cerebellum

The cerebellum serves a comparator function during motor control and helps coordinate all movements underlying an action. Focal lesions to the cerebellar cortex result in articulatory overshoot or undershoot, dyscoordination, and degraded.

229
Q

Gertsmann syndrome is characterized by agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation. This occurs as a result of injury to which lobe of the brain?

A

Parietal

230
Q

Discrete muscle movements relating to
swallowing, chewing and facial movement are
elicited more readily from stimulation of which part
of the Primary motor area?

A

Lateral

231
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for salivation via parotid gland

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve

232
Q

Cranial nerve affected supplies the stylopharyngeus

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve

233
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for taste sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal Nerve

234
Q

All of the following are characteristics of the accessory nerve except?
a.) Divided into cranial accessory and spinal accessory nerves
b.) in charge of movement of tongue
c.) elevates shoulders, rotates and flexes the neck
d.) only has motor function

A

b.) in charge of movement of the tongue

235
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for the sensation of the face

A

Trigeminal Nerve CN V

236
Q

The human peripheral nervous system is composed of _______.
I. 10 pairs of cranial nerves
II. 12 pairs of cranial nerves
III. 31 pairs of spinal nerves
IV. 33 pairs of spinal nerves

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves

237
Q

How many facial bones do we have?

A

14

238
Q

Cranial bones consist of how many bones?

A

8

239
Q

Only unpaired bones in the facial bones

A

Vomer
Mandible

240
Q

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
a.) Parietal
b.) Nasal
c.) Maxillae
d.) Zygomatic
e/) Palatine

A

A.) Parietal

It is a cranial bone

241
Q

Aponeurosis is more superficial than loose connective tissue? True or False

A

True

242
Q

The following are muscles of forced expiration except:
a.) Innermost intercostals
b.) Transversus thoracis
c.) Pectoralis major
d.) Transeversus abdominis

A

Pectoralis major is an accessory muscle of inspiration

243
Q

It is the volume of air exchanged in one respiratory cycle

A

Vital capacity

244
Q

The facial muscle constricts oral opening

A

Orbicularis oris

245
Q

The terminal branch of the internal carotid artery

A

Middle cerebral artery

246
Q

An important structure adjacent to the brainstem
that contains the hypothalamus (which controls
emotions) and the thalamus (which relays sensory
impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex)
is called the

A

Diencephalon

247
Q

Cavities within the brain and are filled with CBF

A

Ventricles

248
Q

Occlusion of the main trunk of the MCA produces the following except:
a.) Aphasia if occlusion in the dominant hemisphere
b.) Decreased sensation in the same regions
c.) Paralysis of the opposite side of the body
d.) Paralysis of the same side of the body

A

d.) Paralysis of the same side of the body

249
Q

The corpus striatum is composed of three nuclear masses, which are the

A

Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus

250
Q

The structure that regulates body posture, equilibrium, and coordinated fine motor movements is the

A

Cerebrum

Catalyst (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions