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PHMP LEC 211 > NERVOUS-URINARY > Flashcards

NERVOUS-URINARY Flashcards

1
Q

What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

A

The brain and spinal cord

The brain is protected by the skull bones, while the spinal cord is protected by the backbone.

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2
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

The nerves that branch from the CNS

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3
Q

What are the three layers of membranes that cover the CNS?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

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4
Q

Where does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulate?

A

Between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater in the subarachnoid space

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5
Q

What are the three major causes of bacterial meningitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis

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6
Q

Fill in the blank: One of the major causes of bacterial meningitis is _______.

A

Listeria monocytogenes Type B

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7
Q

What is the normal flora location for H. influenzae?

A

Throat

H. influenzae is associated with the Hib conjugated vaccine.

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8
Q

What type of vaccine is used for N. meningitidis?

A

Purified capsular polysaccharide vaccine

N. meningitidis is normally found in the throat.

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9
Q

Where is S. pneumoniae normally found?

A

Nasopharynx

S. pneumoniae is associated with a conjugated vaccine.

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10
Q

What is the role of Procalcitonin in CSF fluid analysis?

A

Used as a diagnostic marker

It is one of the markers to test for changes in CSF fluid.

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11
Q

Which populations are at risk for meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Newborns, immunosuppressed individuals, pregnant women, cancer patients

Listeriosis may be asymptomatic in healthy adults.

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12
Q

How can Listeria monocytogenes affect pregnancy?

A

Can cross the placenta causing spontaneous abortion and stillbirth

It is acquired by ingestion of contaminated food.

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13
Q

What causes Tetanus?

A

Exotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani

The neurotoxin tetanospasmin leads to symptoms like Lock Jaw.

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14
Q

What is the treatment for Tetanus?

A

Anti-tetano or Tetanus toxoid

These treatments are aimed at neutralizing the toxin.

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15
Q

What is the main characteristic of Botulism?

A

Caused by an exotoxin produced by C. botulinum

The toxin inhibits nerve impulse transmission.

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of Botulism?

A

Blurred vision, progressive flaccid paralysis

Symptoms can lead to respiratory and cardiac failure.

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17
Q

What causes infant botulism?

A

Growth of C. botulinum in an infant’s intestines

This condition is related to the floppy baby syndrome.

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18
Q

What test is used to diagnose leprosy?

A

Lepromin test

It assesses the activity of leprosy.

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19
Q

What are the two types of leprosy?

A

Lepromatous and Tuberculous

Each type has distinct clinical features.

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20
Q

What is the drug of choice (DOC) for leprosy?

A

Dapsone + Clofazimine

These medications are used to treat leprosy effectively.

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21
Q

What are the common symptoms of Poliomyelitis?

A

Sore throat, nausea, occasional paralysis

Fewer than 1% of cases result in paralysis.

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22
Q

How is Poliovirus transmitted?

A

Ingestion of water contaminated with feces

It first invades lymph nodes and the small intestine.

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23
Q

What is the Salk vaccine?

A

Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

Involves injection of formalin-inactivated viruses.

24
Q

What is the Sabin vaccine?

A

Oral polio vaccine (OPV)

Contains three live, attenuated strains of poliovirus.

25
Q

What does the Rabies virus cause?

A

Acute, usually fatal, encephalitis

It is contracted through the bite of a rabid animal.

26
Q

What are the symptoms of Rabies?

A

Spasms of mouth and throat muscles, extensive brain and spinal cord damage

These symptoms often lead to death.

27
Q

What is included in the postexposure treatment for rabies?

A

Administration of human rabies immune globulin (RIG) along with multiple intramuscular injections of vaccine.

28
Q

What does preexposure treatment for rabies consist of?

A

Vaccination.

29
Q

What are the symptoms of arboviral encephalitis?

A

Chills, headache, fever, and eventually coma.

30
Q

What causes an increase in the incidence of arboviral encephalitis?

A

The increase in mosquitoes during the summer months.

31
Q

What is a significant risk associated with Zika virus disease during pregnancy?

A

CNS birth defects if it infects a fetus.

32
Q

What is the most effective way to control arboviral infections?

A

Control of the mosquito vector.

33
Q

What is cryptococcosis?

A

Also known as cryptococcal meningitis caused by Cryptococcus spp.

34
Q

How can cryptococcosis be contracted?

A

By inhaling dried infected pigeon or chicken droppings.

35
Q

Who is most susceptible to cryptococcosis?

A

Immunosuppressed individuals.

36
Q

What is the diagnosis method for cryptococcosis?

A

Latex agglutination tests for cryptococcal antigens in serum or CSF.

37
Q

What protozoa cause African Trypanosomiasis?

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.

38
Q

What is the common name for African Trypanosomiasis?

A

Sleeping sickness.

39
Q

What hinders vaccine development for African Trypanosomiasis?

A

The protozoan’s ability to change its surface antigens.

40
Q

What is the fatality rate of encephalitis caused by Naegleria fowleri?

A

Almost always fatal.

41
Q

What is the role of the urinary system?

A

Regulates chemical composition and volume of blood and excretes nitrogenous waste and water.

42
Q

What prevents urine from flowing back to the urinary bladder and kidneys?

A

Valves.

43
Q

What is the primary function of the reproductive system?

A

Produces gametes for reproduction and supports the growing embryo in females.

44
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?

A

Opportunistic gram-negative bacteria from the intestines.

45
Q

What are the common etiologies of cystitis?

A

E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

46
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

Inflammation of the kidneys, usually a complication of lower urinary tract infections.

47
Q

What is the causative agent of leptospirosis?

A

Leptospira interrogans.

48
Q

What is the recommended drug of choice for treating leptospirosis?

A

Doxycycline.

49
Q

What are the common symptoms of gonorrhea in men?

A

Painful urination and pus discharge.

50
Q

What is a significant complication of untreated gonorrhea?

A

Blockage of the urethra and sterility.

51
Q

What is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis.

52
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A

Extensive bacterial infection of the female pelvic organs.

53
Q

What bacteria commonly cause PID?

A

N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and other bacteria.

54
Q

What is the diagnosis method for gonorrhea?

A

ELISA or NAATS.

55
Q

Fill in the blank: Most infections of the reproductive system are _______.

A

sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

56
Q

True or False: Most STIs can be prevented by the use of condoms.

A

True.

PHMP LEC 211 (15 decks)

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