my own stuff

Question 1

SFHA

BFE

LOMA

LOMA-F

Answer 1

Special Flood Hazard Area Zones A/ AE/ AH/ AO/ A99 (100 year flood) and V (coastal waves and storm surge) have a 25% chance or higher of flooding during a 30-year mortgage

Base Floor Elevation

Letter of Map Amendment, owner of property can request a amendment to a FEMA map to avoid being required to have floor insurance if they believe there specific site is above the BFE but the FEMA maps makes it look like it is not.

Letter of map amendment fill—-using fill to get above BFE (not allowed in zone V)

Question 2

when to use CBC or CRC?

when does CBC 11a apply even if you are using the CRC and why?…what is weird about this?

What is a townhouse?

What is a covered multi-family dwelling?

how many stores can a town house be?

Answer 2

CRC:

1. single family
2. duplex
3. townhouses 3 stories max (above grade) with own egress

CBC:
1. technically all buildings…but the CBC has a section that says the items listed above can use the CRC

When does CBC 11a apply to CRC projects?

1. ANY bld with 3 or more dwelling untis
2. ANY bld with 4 or more condos

What is weird about this 11a thing? not clear what counts as a dwelling unit and what counts as a condo…..sooooo city to city a group of 3 condo would be considered to also be a group of 3 or more dwelling units and therefore 11a applies…==3 units usually triggers 11a unless you get lucky in a city interp.

Townhouse
1. Three or more attached units separated foundation to roof.
2. open space on 2 sides min.

Covered Multifamily Dwelling:

1. elevator bld with 3 apartments or 4 condos
2. non-elevator bld with 3 apartments or 4 condos (ground floor units only)

Max stories for a town house? trick question, does not specify a limit but if its more than 3 above grade you have to use full CBC instead of CRC

from the CBC for ref:

[A] TOWNHOUSE: A single-family dwelling unit constructed in a group of three or more attached units in which each unit extends from the foundation to roof and with open space on at least two sides. (note same def in CRC and CBC)

COVERED MULTIFAMILY DWELLINGS. [HCD 1-AC] “Covered multifamily dwellings” means either of the following:
Buildings that consist of at least four condominium dwelling units or at least three apartment dwelling units if the buildings have at least one elevator.
The ground floor dwelling units in buildings that consist of at least four condominium dwelling units or at least three apartment dwelling units if the building does not have an elevator.
Covered multifamily dwellings include dwellings listed in Section 1102A.1. For purposes of this definition, dwelling units within a single structure separated by firewalls do not constitute separate buildings.

Question 3

diff types of SOL, SOR ect?

Clock difference between SOL and SOR?

big difference between patent defects and latent defects?

What is right to repair?

Answer 3

Negligence:

1. most cause personally injury or property damage
2. contract between parties not needed
3. 3 years max from time damage was suffered

Breach of Contract:

1. oral = 2 years from date of breach
2. written = 4 years from date of breach
3. contract between parties needed (mostly)

SOR for construction defects

1. 4 years patent - only for personal injury and property damage
2. 10 years latent. not limited to personal injury or property damage

Clock difference between SOL and SOR:
SOL always starts from date of injury/breach/ect. SOR always starts from substantial completion (4 and 10 year are both SOR….often call SOL but that is wrong)

big difference between patent defects and latent defects? patent is limited to personal injury or property damage, latent defects are not.

right to repair:
Right to Repair Act or SB800, governs construction defect claims for original construction in California. It specifies the rights and requirements for a homeowner to pursue damages for construction defects in their home. It covers new construction single family homes, condominiums and common interest developments, not conversions. Previously, developers were only able to be held liable for construction defects that caused damage…….HOME OWNER MUST GIVE BUILDER/DEVELOPER ETC NOTICE BEFORE FILING LITIGATION AND GIVE THEM 30 DAYS TO REPAIR.

The fun thing about SOLs and SORs is that a plaintiff must bring their action within both periods. For example, when a defect is discovered then the one, three or four-year limitation period starts to run, but will not extend past the end of the repose period. Said another way, if a homeowner discovers property damage caused by negligent roofing work 9 years after completions of construction, all claims cut off in one (1) year, be it negligence, or otherwise.

California Code of Civil Procedure ? 337.15 (latent defect)
For example, California Code of Civil Procedure ? 337.15 (latent defect) says in relevant part that “. . . no action may be brought to recover damages . . . to real property more than 10 years after the substantial completion of the development or improvement for any of the following: (1) Any latent deficiency in the design, specification, surveying, planning, supervision, or observation of construction or construction of an improvement to, or survey of, real property or (2) injury to property, real or personal, arising out of any such latent deficiency. ‘Latent deficiency’ means a deficiency which is not apparent by reasonable inspection. This section shall not apply to actions based on willful misconduct or fraudulent concealment.”

You just moved into a new condominium project. You bought one of the first units sold in the second phase. Sales in that phase are just about done and then the project will be sold out. The project is just a little over two years old, so you are satisfied that any warranty items will get fixed. How hard could it be with the developer still on the board and with a few units left to sell? Everything seems to be going as expected.

But all is not perfect. The iron fences around the project are corroding badly. And the common area landscaping has a lot of dead spots where the irrigation system apparently doesn’t reach. There are places where rain and irrigation water pond for days and mosquitoes are breeding. You’ve also noticed that some of the wood fences in the project appear to be leaning. You went to the board meeting last night. Two owners are on the board along with three developer representatives. You raised those issues with the board, and one of the developer representatives told you that it was not the developer’s problem any longer, that it was the association’s responsibility to fix those particular defects. You argued that the developer is responsible for defects for ten years.1 You also pointed out that you only noticed these problems a few months ago. So how could it no longer be the developer’s responsibility to fix clearly defective components?

It not only could be, it actually was no longer the developer’s responsibility. As to those components, its legal liability had lapsed. How did this happen? First of all, Title 7 of the California Civil Code specifies standards for residential construction, commencing at Section 8962. In the same section it also lists special, shorter, periods for bringing actions on certain building components. A deteriorating manufactured product like iron fences and irrigation and drainage problems have a very short 1-year limit on claims. Wood fence post claims expire after 2 years. But you just found out about it, and you came to the board meeting a couple of days later, certainly a year (and definitely not two) hasn’t passed. Or has it?

Some of the Section 896 limitation periods accrue (start to run) on a fixed date: “close of escrow,” and certain fence, irrigation and drainage claims are among that group. But how does that apply to a community association with dozens of escrows closing at different times? The statute provides that for a claim filed by a community association, the phrase, “close of escrow” actually means something very different.

Question 4

Absence of a fence around a swimming pool:

Improperly designed HVAC systems that cause uncontrollable temperature fluctuations:

Railing that gives way due to improper nailing concealed by putty and paint:

Raised paving stones on a patio:

Defective construction of a landing that allows water to pool on the landing and to drain into an office:

Absence of a vapor barrier which causes the siding on a building to buckle:

Defects involving stairs and guardrails:

Spacing between guardrails:

do latent defect ever become patient in the eyes of the law (waterproofing no installed under window but 8 years later window starts to clearly leak…one could argue its not patient but is time barred)

Answer 4

Absence of a fence around a swimming pool: patent

Improperly designed HVAC systems that cause uncontrollable temperature fluctuations: latent

Railing that gives way due to improper nailing concealed by putty and paint: latent

Raised paving stones on a patio: patent

Defective construction of a landing that allows water to pool on the landing and to drain into an office: patent

Absence of a vapor barrier which causes the siding on a building to buckle: latent

Defects involving stairs and guardrails: patent

Spacing between guardrails: patent

do latent defect ever become patient in the eyes of the law: court cased mostly say no…it is latent or patent from day one…the leaking window would fall under latent in court.

Question 5

power plant used for emergency power:

police station:

emergency operations center:

Emergency dispatcher center:

water for fire pressure:

Hospitals with ER or surgery:

Fire station:

Hazardous waste disposal plant:

Emergency shelters:

Answer 5

power plant used for emergency power: IV, not ESB

police station: IV, yes ESB

emergency operations center: IV, yes ESB

Emergency dispatcher center: IV, yes ESB

water for fire pressure: IV, not ESB

Hospitals with ER or surgery: IV, not ESB

Fire station: IV, yes ESB

Hazardous waste disposal plant: IV, not ESB

Emergency shelters: IV, not ESB

Question 6

1. Owner prov $ GC during CO:
2. GC report concealed or unknown site stuff:
3. report injury or property damage:
4. Days to make a claim:
5. arch/owner reject super or subs:
6. GC gives pay app to Arch:
7. Arch days to review pay app:
8. Owner to pay GC:
9. GC to pay subs:
10. Consecutive Hold days for GC to terminate:

11, consecutive GC hold days for GC to terminate:

12. Consecutive Hold days for Arch to terminate:
13. Day notice give to stop work:
14. Mediation days:
15. Day of Initial decision make dispute resolution before mediation:
16. days after substantial completion before Arch ADD service kicks in:
17. Arch contract terminates how many days after substantial completion:
18. Arch CO Phase ends when:
19. timing of design prof lein filing:
20. days to enforce a filed lien or stop notice (all types):
21. days to give lien rights to owner:
22. impact of notice of completion/ cessation:
23. notice of completion filing and notice to contractor after bld is actual complete (before or after):
24. Day of no more for project completion:
25. Days of no work for project cessation:

Answer 6

1. Owner prov $ GC during CO: 14
   (than GC can stop right away…not notice)
2. GC report concealed or unknown site stuff: 14 days
3. report injury or property damage: 21 days
4. Days to make a claim: 21 days
5. arch/owner reject super or subs: 14 days
6. GC gives pay app to Arch: 10 days before
7. Arch days to review pay app: 7 days
8. Owner to pay GC: 7 days
9. GC to pay subs: 7 days after getting payed
10. Consecutive Hold days for GC to terminate: 60

11, consecutive GC hold days for GC to terminate: 30

12. Consecutive Hold days for Arch to terminate: 90
13. Day notice give to stop work: 7
    (except when ower does not give financial proof with 14 days then the GC can stop right away IF CO has begun..otheerwise CO just gets extended)
14. Mediation days: 60 min
15. Day of Initial decision make dispute resolution before mediation: 30 from start if no decision or 30 from decision
16. days after substantial completion before Arch ADD service kicks in: 60 days
17. Arch contract terminates how many days after substantial completion: 1yr
18. Arch CO Phase ends when: giving owner final certificate of payment.
19. timing of design prof lein filing: 10 days after owner demand letter but no more than 90 days after believing project will not go forward
20. days to enforce a filed lien or stop notice (all types): 90
21. days to give lien rights to owner: 20 days max after providing goods or services (for mech lien and stop notice, subs only)
22. impact of notice of completion/ cessation: 90 days down to 60/30
23. notice of completion filing and notice to contractor after bld is actual complete: 15 days max before or after
24. Day of no more for project completion: 60
25. Days of no work for project cessation: 30

Question 7

can owner trigger “completion” on their own?

Answer 7

no..not really
“Completion” is defined by the code in a variety of ways. Completion occurs upon (a) actual completion of all work on the project, (b) occupation or use coupled with cessation of labor, (c) a cessation of labor for 60 continuous days (or 30 days after recordation of a notice of cessation), or (d) acceptance by a public entity in some cases.[3] Most commonly, final inspection (i.e. permit signoff by the building official, or issuance of a certificate of occupancy) is the event that triggers “completion.”

Question 8

does punchlist work delay the notice of project “completion”

Answer 8

Theoretically, the answer is no, at least if the punchlist work involves correcting or repairing work that has already been installed. However, if a punchlist or call back includes work that was under contract but never completed, it arguably could extend the completion date

Question 9

how can owner speed up notice of completion?

Answer 9

an owner can accelerate completion, by recording a “Notice of Cessation of Labor” after labor has stopped for 30 continuous days. If properly done, this notice will cause the project to be deemed “complete” upon recording, and will operate just like a Notice of Completion, to accelerate the lien deadlines to 60 days after completion for direct contractors, and 30 days after completion for all others.[6]

Question 10

how is a notice of completion recorded

Answer 10

1. owner files with recorders office with 15 days maz before or after actual completion
2. owner gives to GC and any subs that gave lein rights notice within 10 days of recording.

________________
Notice of Completion which is verified by the owner does not have to be notarized, and must be accepted for recording by the Recorder’s office.[8] (The same thing is true of Mechanic’s liens, which likewise do not require notarization for recording.)

Within 10 days of recording a Notice of Completion, the owner must properly serve a copy of the Notice to any “Direct Contractor” (see above), or any “claimant who has given the owner a preliminary notice.”[9] Proper service means either: 1.) personal delivery, 2.) mail (by registered or certified mail, express mail, or overnight delivery by an express service carrier), or 3.) leaving the notice and mailing it to the address where it was left. (Civil Code §§ 8106, 8110.) If the owner fails to serve the notice in an accepted manner, it is ineffective to shorten the lien and stop notice deadlines.[10] The same service requirement applies to a Notice of Cessation of labor

Question 11

country clerk or recorder:

lien:

notice of completion:

CEQA

Answer 11

lien: Country recorder

notice of completion: Country Recorder

CEQA country clerk

Question 12

SIP

CAAQS

Answer 12

This page contains information to help air quality program managers develop State Implementation Plans (SIPs) that meet National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).

The NAAQS are minimum federal standards for air quality to protect public health and the environment. Standards have been set for six pollutants (known as “criteria air pollutants”): sulfur dioxide (SO2), particulates (PM), ozone (O3), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO), and lead (Pb)

CARB to use the designation criteria to designate areas of California and to annually review those area designations. CARB makes area designations for ten pollutants: ozone, suspended particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5), carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, sulfur dioxide, sulfates, lead, hydrogen sulfide, and visibility reducing particles. CARB made the first area designations for State ambient air quality standards (State standards) in 1989. H&SC 39608 also requires CARB to conduct an annual review of the area designations and update them as appropriate. These updates are based on the three most recent calendar years of complete and validated air quality data.

The Clean Air Act requires U.S. EPA to review, and revise if necessary, each of the NAAQS at five year intervals. This review schedule helps to ensure that NAAQS are based on the most recent scientific findings. The table below shows the year of completion for the most recent reviews for each NAAQS.

Federal law requires that all states attain the NAAQS. Nonattainment areas must develop plans to attain the NAAQS, and attainment areas must develop plans to maintain attainment. Failure of a state to reach attainment of the NAAQS by the target date can trigger penalties, including withholding of federal highway funds. For information, visit California’s State Implementation Plans and State Maintenance Plans.

California also has ambient air quality standards (CAAQS), which predate U. S. EPA’s formation in 1970 and the original NAAQS, which were adopted in 1971. In 1959 California enacted legislation requiring the state Department of Public Health to establish air quality standards and necessary controls for motor vehicle emissions. California law continues to mandate CAAQS, although attainment of the NAAQS has precedence over attainment of the CAAQS.

The Health and Safety Code (H&SC) section 39607(e) requires the California Air Resources Board (CARB) to establish and periodically review area designation criteria. These designation criteria provide the basis for CARB to designate areas of California as attainment, nonattainment, or unclassified for the State standards.

Question 13

1. CBC 11B requirements for alterations?
   1b. exceptions?
2. CBC 11B alteration to historic buildings?
3. Bld/ spaces exempt from 11b?
4. Operable parts exempt from 11b

Answer 13

1. CBC 11B requirements for alterations?
   - —1. entrance and accessible path to to area of 1alteration
   - —2. bathrooms serving area
   - —3. phones
   - —4. drinking fountain
   - —5. parking, signs, etc

1b. exceptions:
- —1. stuff that complies with 1 previous version of code
- —2. alterations indented to improve accessibility
- —3. painting, signs, etc
- —4. HVAC only
- —5. EVCS only (unless its a refuel station)

2. CBC 11B alteration to historic buildings? per State Historic Building Code
3. Bld/ spaces exempt from 11b?
   - —-1. construction sites
   - —-2. required raised areas (guard towers etc)
   - —-3. utility and limited access spaces
   - —-4. common areas in 11a blds
   - —-5. water slides
   - —-6. diving boards, boxing rings
   - —-7. emplyee work areas (sorta)
4. Operable parts exempt from 11b
   - —-1. service personnel only
   - —-2. outlets for dedicated use (microwave etc)
   - —-3. floor outlets
   - —-4. exercise equipment (note…for controls only)

11B-203.8 Residential Facilities
In residential facilities, common use areas that do not serve residential dwelling units required to provide mobility features complying with Sections 11B-809.2 through 11B-809.4 and adaptable features complying with Chapter 11A, Division IV shall not be required to comply with these requirements or to be on an accessible route.

11B-205.1 General

Operable parts on accessible elements, accessible routes, and in accessible rooms and spaces shall comply with Section 11B-309.

Exceptions:
Operable parts that are intended for use only by service or maintenance personnel shall not be required to comply with Section 11B-309.
Electrical or communication receptacles serving a dedicated use shall not be required to comply with Section 11B-309.

Question 14

When is an elevator required?

Chapter 10?

11A?

11B?

Answer 14

chapter 10: Elevator required for accessible means of egress when 5 stories or more (4 stories about above or below level of exit discharge)….can avoid this a horizontal exit and sprinklers

11a: no mention of elevator being required

11b: elevator to all floors except
—–1. private office blds less than 3,000 sf per floor, OR less
than 3 stories (so a two story)
—-2. other private bld less than 3,000 sf OR 3 stories with
public accommodations on 1st floor
—3. note, adaptable/res units must be on acc route

11B-233.3.1.2.1 Elevator buildings. Residential
dwelling units on floors served by an elevator shall
be adaptable.
11B-233.3.1.2.2 Non-elevator buildings. Ground
floor residential dwelling units in non-elevator
buildings shall be adaptable.

Question 15

1. Definition of Covered Multi-Family housing:
2. Definition of Townhouse:
3. Can a townhouse also be multi-family?
4. (2) apt / (3) condo townhouse
   - code version
   - acc version
   - acc details
5. (3) apt / (4) condo townhouse (or more)
   - code version
   - acc version
   - acc details
6. (3) apt / (4) condo, flats, no elev
   - code version
   - acc version
   - acc details
7. (3) apt / (4) condo, flats, elev
   - code version
   - acc version
   - acc details
8. (3) apt / (4) condo, multi unit, no elev
   - code version
   - acc version
   - acc details
9. (3) apt / (4) condo, multi unit, elev
   - code version
   - acc version
   - acc details
10. can mobility units be multi-story?
11. max stories for 11a building w/o elevator?
12. max stories for 11b building w/o elevator?
13. how can 11b units exits in bld without elevators.

———old——————————-
1102A.3 Multistory dwellings.

1102A.3.1 Multistory apartment or condominium dwellings in buildings with no elevator.

what bld does this apply to?

how many need to be accessible?

What parts of these units need to be accessible?

Requirements for UNITS not on entry level?

bbbbbb—————————————————————

1102A.3.2 Multistory dwelling units in buildings with
elevator

cccccc———————————————————–

11A covered multi-family bld units require to be accessible in bld without elevator?

ddddd——————————————————-

COVERED MULTIFAMILY DWELLINGS. [HCD 1-AC]

eeeeee——————————
11B-233.3.1.2.4 Multistory residential dwelling
units in buildings with one or more elevators

ffffffffff——————————
11B-233.3.1.2.5 Multistory residential dwelling
units in buildings with no elevator.

GGGGG
tie together……
-what counts as a covered multi-family unit?

-do all covered muti-family units need to be on an accessible route

Answer 15

1. Definition of Covered Multi-Family housing:
   - (3) apt/ (4) condos (fire walls dont count). only ground floor units count in on elev buildings
2. Definition of Townhouse:
   - 3 stories max foundation to roof, own egress
3. Can a townhouse also be multi-family?
   yes–90% sure
4. (2) apt / (3) condo townhouse
   - code version: CRC
   - acc version: CRC ….so like none
   - acc details: CRC…. so like none
5. (3) apt / (4) condo townhouse (or more)
   - code version: CRC
   - acc version: 11a (cause multi-fam)
   - acc details: 10% ground floor units acc + powder room
6. (3) apt / (4) condo, flats, no elev
   - code version: CBC
   - acc version: 11a
   - acc details: all ground floor units 11a adaptable (bc ground = covered)
7. (3) apt / (4) condo, flats, elev
   - code version: CBC
   - acc version: 11a
   - acc details: all units (bc covered)
8. (3) apt / (4) condo, multi unit, no elev
   - code version: CBC
   - acc version: 11a
   - acc details: 10% units acc ground floor + power room
9. (3) apt / (4) condo, multi unit, elev
   - code version: CBC
   - acc version: 11a
   - acc details: all units = acc 1st level + power + kitchen
10. can mobility units be multi-story…not without its own elevator. all room accessible.
11. max stories for 11a building w/o elevator? 4 stores (chapter 10 egress requires one or some tricks for more than 4 stories above level of exit)
12. all 11b need an elevator with a few exceptions
    - private funds, 2 story
    - private funds, 3000 sf max floors
    - few other private fund less common
13. 11B mobility units only apply to the mobility units and spaces serving the unit. so if mobility units are on the ground floor and there are no common spaces above the bld would not need an elevator (the all 11b bld need an elevator does not apply here because its only the mobility units that need to comply with very specific portions of 11 b and an accessible route to those units)

old—————————-
At least 10 percent but not less than one of the multistory dwellings in apartment buildings with 3 or more dwelling units and/or condominiums with 4 or more dwelling units shall comply with the following:

1. The primary entry on acc route
2. power room min on entry level/acc route
3. all room on entry level acc route
4. Common use areas . Public use

The minimum number of multifamily dwelling units
which must comply with this section shall be calculated
using the total number of all multistory dwelling units in
buildings on a site which are subject to this section. Any fraction thereof shall be rounded to the next highest whole
number.

Requirements for UNITS not on entry level?…no accessibility requirements

bbbbbb—————————————————————

For multistory dwelling units in buildings with
elevators, the story of the unit that is served by the building elevator is considered a ground floor and the primary entry floor to the unit and shall comply with the following:

1. power room at entry level
2. kitchen at entry level
3. all room on entry level acc route

cccccc———————————————————–

all ground floor units

SECTION 1104A
COVERED MULTIFAMILY DWELLINGS
1104A.1 General. All ground-floor dwelling units in nonelevator
buildings shall be adaptable and on an accessible
route, unless an accessible route is not required as determined
by site impracticality provisions in Section 1150A. For
buildings with elevators, see Section 1106A.

ddddd——————————————————-

COVERED MULTIFAMILY DWELLINGS. [HCD 1-AC]
“Covered multifamily dwellings” means either of the following:

1. 4 condos or 3 apartments in elevator bld
2. ground floor units of 4 condos or 3 apartments in bld WITH elevator

eeeeee——————————
11B-233.3.1.2.4 Multistory residential dwelling
units in buildings with one or more elevators

1. power room at entry level
2. kitchen at entry level
3. all room on entry level acc route complying with 11a

11B-233.3.1.2.4 Multistory residential dwelling
units in buildings with one or more elevators. In
elevator buildings, facilities with multistory residential
dwelling units shall comply with the following:
1. The primary entry of the multistory residential
dwelling unit shall be on an accessible route
on the floor served by the elevator.
2. At least one powder room or bathroom and
kitchen shall be located on the primary entry
level.
3. Rooms or spaces located on the primary entry
level shall be served by an accessible route
and comply with Chapter 11A, Division IV –
Dwelling Unit Features.

ffffffffff——————————
11B-233.3.1.2.5 Multistory residential dwelling
units in buildings with no elevator.

in non-elevator buildings, a minimum of 10 percent but not less than one of the ground floor multistory residential dwelling units shall be calculated using the total number of multistory residential dwelling units in buildings on a site and shall comply with the following:

1. power room at entry level
2. kitchen at entry level
3. all room on entry level acc route complying with 11a

GGGGG
tie together……
-what counts as a covered multi-family unit? 3 apt or 4 condo in 1 bld if there is an elevation….only ground floo units if not an elevator (fire walls dont count to separate)

-do all covered muti-family units need to be on an accessible route–yes….therefore in cover multi-family projects w/o elevator all ground floor units should be on an accessible route…bam

Question 16

accessible routes as they relate to general circulation paths.

Answer 16

11B-206.3 Location
Accessible routes shall coincide with or be located in the same area as general circulation paths. Where circulation paths are interior, required accessible routes shall also be interior. An accessible route shall not pass through kitchens, storage rooms, restrooms, closets or other spaces used for similar purposes, except as permitted by Chapter 10.

Question 17

what exits are not required to be accessible per 11B?

Answer 17

11B-206.4.1 Entrances and Exterior Ground Floor Exits

All entrances and exterior ground-floor exits to buildings and facilities shall comply with Section 11B-404.

Exceptions:
Exterior ground floor exits serving smoke-proof enclosures, stairwells, and exit doors serving stairs only shall not be required to comply with Section 11B-404.

Exits in excess of those required by Chapter 10, and which are more than 24 inches (610 mm) above grade shall not be required to comply with Section 11B-404. Directional signs shall comply with Chapter 10, Section 1009.10……(11B-404, is for door clearances etc…not sure what this helps… i guess you could have one exit without door clearances.

Question 18

are accessible means of egress required to be added when doing alterations to existing buildings?

Answer 18

accessible means of egress apply to new construction; accessible means of egress are not required to be added in alterations to existing facilities. (US access board website and CBC 11b 207.1)

Question 19

Does CBC 11B consider EVCS parking spaces?

Does green code consider EVCS parking spaces?

Answer 19

Does CBC 11B consider EVCS parking spaces? NO…at least not for the section used to calculate HC parking
11B-208.1 General Where parking spaces are provided, parking spaces shall be provided in accordance with Section 11B-208. For the purposes of this section, electric vehicle charging stations are not parking spaces; see Section 11B- 228.

green code does not consider EVCS parking spaces per definition.

Question 20

11B how many HC parking stalls per Van stall?

Answer 20

1 van for every 6 or fraction of 6 hc stalls

Question 21

how many mirrors must comply with 11B

mounting height for mirror?

Answer 21

one…..mirror on med cab does not need to comply…self however does

11B-213.3.5 Mirrors
Where mirrors are provided, at least one shall comply with Section 11B-603.3.

mounting height: 40” / 35”

11B-603.3 Mirrors
Mirrors located above lavatories or countertops shall be installed with the bottom edge of the reflecting surface 40 inches (1016 mm) maximum above the finish floor or ground. Mirrors not located above lavatories or countertops shall be installed with the bottom edge of the reflecting surface 35 inches (889 mm) maximum above the finish floor or ground.

Question 22

bathroom door swing in transient lodging facilities

Answer 22

11B-224.1.2 Guest Room Doors and Doorways

Entrances, doors, and doorways providing user passage into and within guest rooms that are not required to provide mobility features complying with Section 11B-806.2 shall comply with Section 11B-404.2.3. Bathrooms doors shall be either sliding or hung to swing in the direction of egress from the bathroom.

Question 23

WUI

Answer 23

Wildlife-Urban Interface: Fire Hazard Severity Zone or areas designated by AHJ are significant risk of wildfire

development near wildlife that could burn…must meet CBC 7A cities designate these areas.

Question 24

what buildings need to comply with CBC 7a?

What are the Fire Hazard Severity zones:

Who is responsible for righting fires in Fire hazard severity zones?

What code is related to CBC 7a? what are the sim/differences?

examples of this 7a requires:7

What section of the code details materiel testing methods (like details UL style stuff). ref from both 7a and cfc 49

Answer 24

buildings in:

1. Any Fire hazard Severity Zones (moderate, high, very high)
2. Wildlife-interface fire area

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Fire hazard severity zones
1. Moderate 
2. High
3. Very High
-note that lots of areas are outside of fire hazard severity zones all together

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
responsible:
SRA: state responsibility area
FRA: ferderal responsibility area
LRA: local responsibility area

_______________
What code is related to CBC 7a? what are the sim/differences?

Ca Fire Code Chaper 49 is for requirements of Wildland-Urban Interface Areas.

1. both codes prevent bld from burning due to vegetation fires
2. both codes ref each other
3. 49 basically says follow 7a and create a defensible space (per public resource code)
4. 7a gets into specific bld materials, roof components, etc

examples of CFC 49
1. lays out the defensible space requirements for the three different fire hazard zones

examples of this 7a - gets into specfic materials etc

1. gutter that prevent leaf buildup
2. mineral surface flashing at eaves and and spaces with gaps between decking/finish roof
3. vents that keep out ambers using wire mesh etc (no eave vents unless special)
4. protect rafter tails, exposed decking, porch roofs, raised underfloor
5. glazing (double with on layer tempered), fire rated, or glass block
6. skylights have mesh screen when open (1/8” max)

What section of the code details materiel testing methods?..part 12 CA reference standards…references SFM and other tests that products need to pass for various CA projects

Question 25

California Natural Resource Agency:

Departments I care about?

Answer 25

1. Dpt of Fish and Wildlife
2. Department of parks and Rec
3. Department of Water resources
4. Department of Forestry and Fire Protection

Question 26

Full Name for CAL Fire

old name/abbreviation (still shows up in code)

What Agency is it under

What areas does it cover:

Relationship between CAL Fire and OSFM?

What is a SRA:

Answer 26

California Department of Forestry and Fire Protection

old name/abbreviation (still shows up in code): CDF (ca dpt of foresty)

What Agency is it under: Ca Natural Resource Agency

What areas does it cover: SRA_ State Responsibility Areas which are usually unincorporated areas and wilderness

OSFM is a Cal Fire program that does development and application of fire prevention, engineering, training and education, and enforcement.

_________________

1. Dpt of parks and rec
2. Dpt of Fish and Wildlife
3. Department of parks and Rec
4. Department of Water resources
5. Department of Forestry and Fire Protection

Question 27

USACE section 10 permit purpose

what act requires the USACE 404?

What act requires the USACE 10 permit?

Answer 27

Get permission from Army before messing with navigate water ways in any way at all….can do this with same application as UASCE 404

404 = clean water act
10 = rivers and harbor act

Question 28

who/what adopts the CCR?
What else do they do?

Who administers the Building Standards Code?
Who adopts them?

Answer 28

OAL….. office of administrative law

1. rule-making for CA administrative law
2. weekly CA Regulatory Notice register of all proposed changes to CCR (you can find this online to see what code changes are being proposed— cool)

CBSC_ California Building Standards Comission administers the California Building Standard Codes

CBSC also adopts the CA Building Standard Codes, which is unique because the OAL adports virtually everything else in the CCR

from Building Standards Commission website:

Most titles of the California Code of Regulations are subject to the requirements and approval of OAL.
However, building standards for publication in Title 24 are subject to oversight and approval by CBSC

Question 29

how would you attempt to get a code changes

Answer 29

petition the office of administrative law (OAL)…who adpot codes for CA (clearly mostly from the ICC)…there is a form/petition and they have to respond in like 30 days.(deny or go to public hearing). every week they list proposed changes in an online register.

for Building standards code you would petition the CBSC

Question 30

why would basin plans go to OAL?

Do SIP go to OAL?

Answer 30

OAL 0ffice of Administrative Law would adopt them as code or not…they are in charge or adopting codes for CA

yes OAL adopts all code for CA (as far as I can tell)… BSC is an exception.. Adopted by CBSC…

Question 31

CEQA:

Office of planning and resech:
Natural Resource Agency:
Office of administrative law
______

Who decided what projects are exempt?

Answer 31

1. OPR drafts guidelines and amendments
2. Secretary For Resources CERTIFIES & ADOPTS (and does pubic review)
3. Office of administrative law gives final approval

Exemptions: come from Natural Resource Agency
—————-

How are the Guidelines crafted? (from CA Natural Resource Agency web site)

The Governor’s Office of Planning and Research prepares and develops proposed amendments to the Guidelines and transmits them to the Secretary for Resources. The Secretary for Resources is responsible for certification and adoption of the Guidelines and amendments thereto. Prior to final certification and adoption, and pursuant to the procedures in the Administrative Procedure Act, the Secretary for Resources makes the proposed language available to members of the public, provides for at least a 45 day written comment period, and provides public hearings in which to receive oral testimony on the proposals. All public comments, whether received in writing or orally at a public hearing, are considered by the Secretary in determining whether to adopt the proposed amendments prepared by the Office of Planning and Research. Once edited and enriched by the practical experience and wisdom of individual public comments, amendments are adopted and sent to the Office of Administrative Law (OAL) for review and final approval. Guidelines approved by OAL are deposited with the Secretary of State and go into immediate effect.

Question 32

is the owner program part of B201 initial information

Answer 32

yes…yes it is

Question 33

A101 period for each pay app?

Answer 33

one CALENDAR MONTH ending on the last day of the month

Question 34

green code adoption

residential:

Commercial:

OSHPD:

Weird thing about OSHPD in green code:

_______________________________

Energy code adoptions:

Answer 34

residential: HCD 1 (res mandatory measures)

Commercial: DSA SS (non-res mandatory measures)

OSHPD: does not adopt almost anything (technically it does adopt some exterior water measures but thats is)

Weird thing about OSHD in green code:
1.OSHPD has not adopted any of the standard mandatory on non-mandatory sections

2. there is an appendix of voluntary measure for OSHPD facilities
3. chapter 3 for green bld required OSHPD to follow Non-res requirements for outdoor water use.

energy code adoption: trick questions…it applies to all occupies and does not have a matrix adoption table (because it is not a model code it is specifically written for CA)…however until jan 2020 group I occupancies (meaning OSHPD) did not need to comply with the energy code.

Question 35

BFE

what is the land area covered called?

In what areas does fed gov require flood insurance?

AEP

Answer 35

1. base flood elevation
2. water level for the FEMA 100 year flood
3. 1 % chance on any given year (AKA a 1% AEP)

what is the land area covered called: SFHA, Special Flood Hazard Area

In what areas does fed gov require flood insurance: SFHA

AEP = annual exceedance probability

Question 36

CHBC

Answer 36

California Historic Building Code.

Question 37

1. State air agency?
   - what agency is this under
   - sub districts of that agency? how many?
   - significant thing agency adopts and tracks

State water agency?

• what agency is this under
• sub districts of that agency?
• main act this agency is entrusted with?

-other state water agency not to confuse with this?

Answer 37

CARB, California Air Resource Control Board,

• Cal EPA
• AQMD or APCD (air quality management districts or air pollution control districts)-35 districts
• CAAQS California ambient air quality standard. Agency also follows the Fedeal AAQS but California made our first and are more stiengent…many other states voluntary follow ours (car battles etc)

SWRCB, State Water Resource Control Board

• CaL EPA
• RWQCB (regional water quality control boards)- 9 districts
• Porter-Cologne Water Quality Act
• other state water agency is the Natural Resource Agency, Dpt of Water Resources (more like the USACE)

Question 38

1-does ESBSSA protect against floods?

2-main purpose of ESBSSA?

3-one of the main things that the Field Act banned?

4-something kinda cool to know that the Field Act also created?

Answer 38

1-not really…does not mention floods in text

2-provide services after disaster

3-Field Act banned reinforced masonry constriction (tons of schools collapsed during Northridge Earthquake)

4-Field Act led to creation of DSA

Question 39

option to collect payment on public projects?

_______________________

how can GC get released from a stop notice?

_______________________

can a payment bond claim and a stop payment notice be done at the same time?

what does a payment bond protect?

What does a performance bond protect?

Potential advantage a stop notice can have over a lien?

Answer 39

cant file a mechanics lien but you can
1. Stop notice (lien on contractor fee held by public agency). on public project these funds get withheld from the GC but would not be payed to the claimant unit lawsuit is filed and won.

2. Payment bond claim. lien against payment bond that GC is required to have before project starts (public projects over 25K)

_________________
how can GC get released from a stop notice. they can buy a bond for 125% the value and give it to the public agency that is holding the funds. This would release the funds to keep the project going forward

payment bonds help prevent liens against the property.. required on public project (because mech leins are not allowed bc that could give private ppl “ownership” rights to public stuff)…payment bond is setup before project starts and usually covers 1/2 the cost of the project

performance bond protects the owner (or public entity when they are the “owner”). and ensures there is money to finish job with another contractor etc if the GC does not preform

It is possible for a mech lien to be wiped out during foreclosure. mech liens are given senior/junior priority based on when they were filed. a project using a construction lender will take out loan before construction even starts…so if the project forecloses they are first in line (and for the entire amount often)…so in the case of a forclosure the stop payment notice can work better. Stop notices do not get “priority” over each other based on when they were filed. If there is not enough funds to pay all of the stop notice claims the get distributed pro rate based on ratio of what is owed to each vs hwo much money is left….so you get something at least.

Question 40

public contracts:

• bids must be:
• What does this mean (non obvious):
• reasons all bids might be rejected and rebid done:

Answer 40

• bids must be: responsible and responsive
• What does this mean (non obvious): unconditional, cant exclude stuff
• reasons all bids might be rejected and rebid done: over budget, avoid bid protest (irregularities etc)

Question 41

LID:

BMP:

WQMP:

SUSMP:

WQMP and SUSMP stuff:

What areas are infiltation BMP not usually recommended?

Answer 41

LID: site design trying to keep hydrology sim to redeveloped condition (underground stuff usually counts)

BMP: can in include LID, but this is often in ref to the post construction Best Management Practice how how things will be maintained, filters changes, water stored for how long, etc.

WQMP: required by many (maybe all) watershed districts to comply with the Fed EPA NPES by reducing stormwater runoff from sites AFTER CONSTRUCTION

SUSMP: same as WQMP

WQMP and SUSMP stuff:

1. ongoing BMP maintenance
2. storm drain stencils (no dumbing etc)
3. erosion control of slopes
4. reduce discharge
5. trash and storage area considerations

What areas are infiltation BMP not usually recommended?

1. industrial areas or areas of high vehicular traffic
2. areas with low water table (less than 10’ from where water is stored/discharged)
   - -due to possible ground water contamination issues

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Featured snippet from the web
A Water Quality Management Plan (WQMP) or Standard Urban Stormwater Mitigation Plan (SUSMP) is typically required by local agencies to address post-construction urban runoff, stormwater and non-stormwater pollution from new development and significant redevelopment projects.

Question 42

Most of my projects:

Risk Category:

Basic wind speed:

Wind category:

site classification:

seismic design category:

Answer 42

Most of my projects:

Risk Category: II

Basic wind speed: 110 mph

Wind category: B (bv was c for some reason)

site classification: D

seismic design category: D (hw is E for some reason)

Note occ risk cat 2 because the 300 covered us only for primarily public gather… 250 for E, 5000 for otge occ (like R2)

Question 43

what does notice of cessation or notice of completion do to a lien that has already been filed but has not yet been enforced?

Answer 43

trick question— nothing… notice of completion limits that time to FILE the lien but once its field it go to go

Question 44

• oral agreement SOL for breach of contract:
• written agreement SOL for breach of contract:
• negligence SOL:
• requirements of negligence claim:
• examples of architects negligence:
• Can the SOL be extended:
• SOR for patent defects:
• requirements of patent defect claims:
• time frame in which patent defects must be take legal action:
• SOR for latent defects:
• requirements of latent defect claims:
• time frame in which latent defects must be take legal action:

Answer 44

• oral agreement SOL for breach of contract: 2 years from breach
• written agreement SOL for breach of contract: 4 years from breach
• negligence SOL: 3 years from damage
• requirements of negligence claim: personal injury or property damage
• examples of architects negligence: drawings below the standard of care. CO below the standard of care.
• Can the SOL be extended: yes sometime the act of doing repairs could be making future promises which would toll the SOL….nver past the SOR however
• SOR for patent defects: 4 years from substantial completion
• requirements of patent defect claims: injury to person or property
• time frame in which patent defects must be take legal action: must take action within 1 year of injury (but cant do if more than 4 years from substantial completion)
• SOR for latent defects: 10 years from substantial completion
• requirements of latent defect claims: dont have to be just for personal injury or property damage..can be for other things
• time frame in which latent defects must be take legal action:

Question 45

Which of the following is part of the Architects Practice Act?

California Contract Code

California Building Code

California Code of Regulations

AIA Handbook of Professional Practice

Answer 45

The Architects Practice Act is comprised of three codes;

1. Business & Professions Code
2. Corporations Code
3. California Code of Regulations

Question 46

The Standard Form of Architect’s Services is known as AIA

G701

A201

B201

B102

Answer 46

The B201 is the Standard Form of Architect’s Services and is typically paired with the B102.

The B102 is the Standard Form of Agreement Between Architect - without a predefined scope of services.

The A201 is the General Conditions.

The G701 is the Change Order.

Question 47

What 2 methods would you use for cost estimating during the site analysis phase?

Historical data, RS Means Cost Data

Area method, RS Means Cost Data

Unit method, Historical data

Historical data, Price per square foot

Answer 47

Unit method, Historical data could be used for cost estimating during the site analysis phase. During the site analysis phase, the project is in the very early stages of design and RS Means would be of little benefit.

One could argue Price per square foot would be a viable option, but unit method (price per hospital bed, per hotel room, per theater seat) would be more appropriate at this early phase.

Question 48

Which agency is concerned with protecting people, property and watersheds from damage or destruction from flood and storm waters?

US Army Corp of Engineers

Federal Emergency Management Agency

County Flood Control District

State Water Resources Control Board

Answer 48

County Flood Control District is concerned with protecting people, property and watersheds from damage or destruction from flood and storm waters

Question 49

Who owns the rights to the drawings, specifications, and other instruments of service?

Architect

Building Inspector

Owner

General Contractor

Answer 49

Architect

Question 50

The document that sets forth the rights, responsibilities, and relationships of the Owner, Contractor, and Architect is known as

Owner/Architect Agreement

Supplementary Conditions

General Conditions

Owner/Contractor Agreement

Answer 50

General Conditions

Question 51

The Owner and Contractor has selected someone other than the Architect to act as Initial Decision Maker with the terms according to AIA A201 General Conditions. Which of the following is true?

The Initial Decision Maker will review Applications for Payment and issue Certificates for Payment

The Initial Decision Maker will act in the role of mediator” as defined by the American Arbitration Association”“he Initial Decision Maker will act in the role of “mediator”"”e Initial”

The Initial Decision Maker will render an initial decision approving or rejecting the claim

The Initial Decision Maker will review and issue the Certificate of Substantial Completion

Answer 51

The Initial Decision Maker will render an initial decision approving or rejecting the claim. See AIA A201 General Conditions, Article 15.2.1 and 15.2.5 under Initial Decision.

Question 52

Who administers the Architects Practice Act

California Board of Architects

California Architecture Board

California Architects Board

California Architectural Board

Answer 52

California Architects Board

Question 53

does notice of completion impact a lien that has already been filed but not enforced

Answer 53

no…pretty sure not…..you have 90 days to enforce after filing.. can be extended if both parties agree but no more than 1 year

Question 54

who issues NPDES permits

when is a NPDES required:

Answer 54

if in a federal ocean : Fed EPa
if anywhere else: State (RWQCB)

when is a NPDES required: point source (culvert, pipe, boat, etc) into surface water of US… California WDR which has a loser threshold often double as this.

Question 55

Pre-Fire Management: 5

rules for the defensible zone: 4

Answer 55

1. defensible zone
2. fuel breaks
3. prescribed burns
4. fire safe landscaping
5. forest management (thinning)

rules for the defensible zone:
1. avoid continuous vegetation “fire ladder”

2. plant trees 10’ apart and at least 10’ from roof/chimney
3. remove tree branches within 6’ of ground
4. 18” tall max shrubs