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Anatomy and Physiology > Multiple Choice > Flashcards

Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

The buffy coat of centrifuged blood consists mainly of:

a. the ejected nuclei of red blood cells
b. gamma globulins
c. ruptured red blood cells whose hemoglobin has sunk to the bottom
d. white blood cells and platelets
e. serum

A

White Blood cells and platelets

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2
Q

The formed elements that are fragments of larger cells called megakaryocytes are:
a. neutrophils c. erythrocytes b.lymphocytes d.thrombocytes e. plasma proteins

A

thrombocytes

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3
Q

Type AB blood contains

a. only antibody a c. neither antibody A nor B
b. only antibody b d. both antibody A and B

A

neither antibody A nor B

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4
Q

_____ Blood flows from the superior vena cava into the

a. right atrium c. left atrium
b. inferior vena cava d. aorta e. pulmonary trunk

A

right atrium

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5
Q

_____ During the normal cardiac cycle, the atria contract when they are directly stimulated by the

a. SA node c. conduction myofibers
b. AV node d. baroreceptors e. vagus nerve

A

SA node

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6
Q

_____ The first heart sound (the lubb of lubb-dupp) is caused by the

a. closure of the semilunar valves d. closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
b. contraction of the two atria e. all answers are correct
c. contraction of the right ventricle

A

closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

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7
Q

_____ The tunica interna of a blood vessel is made of

a. smooth muscle c. skeletal muscle
b. cardiac muscle d. endothelium e. dense connective tissue

A

endothelium

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8
Q

_____ Blood flow increases if

a. vasodilation increases
b. sympathetic stimulation to vessels with alpha adrenergic receptors increases
c. blood viscosity increases
d. net filtration pressure increases
e. parasympathetic stimulation to the heart increases

A

vasodilation increases

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9
Q

_____ Hormones that cause vasoconstriction are

a. angiotensin II
c. epinephrine-increase HR and contractility
b. angiotensin- VASOCONSTRICTION
d. vasopressin
e. all answers are correct

A

all answers are correct

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10
Q

_____ Anterior to the elbows, the median cubital veins connect

a. axillary and brachial veins d. cephalic and basilica veins
b. cephalic and brachial veins e. basilica and brachial veins
c. radial and ulnar veins

A

cephalic and brachial veins

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11
Q

The thoracic duct empties lymph into the

a. Right lymphatic duct c. left subclavian vein
b. Cisterna chili d. ventricles of the brain e. right atrium of the heart

A

left subclavian vein

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12
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, the antigenic cell/molecule is destroyed by

a. Killer T cells c. opsonizing antibodies
b. Mast cells d. complement e. plasma cells

A

Killer T cells

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13
Q 
The most common structural class of antibody molecule is
a.	IgA		b. IgM		c. IgG	d. IgD e. IgE
A

IgG

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14
Q

Giving someone an intravenous injection of immunoglobulin would

a. Protect him from a specific disease by giving him passively acquired immunity
b. Cause him to produce his own antibodies to the pathogen causing the disease
c. Protect him for several years
d. Trigger formation of memory B cells that can make antibodies to protect him from this disease in the future
e. All of the above are correct

A

Protect him from a specific disease by giving him passively acquired immunity

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15
Q

Receiving an immunization with an altered form of the tetanus toxin results in

a. Naturally acquired active immunity
b. Naturally acquired passive immunity
c. Artificially acquired active immunity
d. Artificially acquired passive immunity
e. No response, because altered toxins cannot act as antigens.

A

Artificially acquired active immunity

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a function of the respiratory system?

a. Regulation of acid-base balance d. transport of O2 to tissue cells
b. Production of red blood cells e. intake of O2 and elimination of CO2
c. Filtering of inspired air

A

Production of red blood cells

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17
Q

Air pressure in the middle ear is equalized via the auditory tube, which opens into the

a. Nasal cavity c. nasopharynx
b. Maxillary sinus d. oropharynx e. laryngopharynx

A

nasopharynx

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18
Q

Airway resistance is affected primarily by the

a. Amount of surfactant d. diameter of the bronchioles
b. Thickness of cartilage in the bronchial wall e. partial pressure of each type of gas in
c. Amount of elastic tissue in the lungs inspired air

A

diameter of the bronchioles

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19
Q

On a very humid day, people with chronic respiratory disease may experience greater difficulty breathing because

a. They are dehydrated
b. Atmospheric pressure is much lower, so respiratory gradients are decreased
c. Water vapor contributes a greater partial pressure to inhaled air, thus interfering with normal gradients of other respiratory gases.
d. The water vapor condenses within the alveoli
e. The water vapor decreases the solubility of oxygen.

A

Water vapor contributes a greater partial pressure to inhaled air, thus interfering with normal gradients of other respiratory gases.

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20
Q

Where would you expect to find the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide?

a. In the atmosphere c. In pulmonary arteries
b. In pulmonary veins d. in alveolar air e. in the intracellular fluid

A

in the intracellular fluid

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21
Q

Which of the following would be considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a. Pancreas b. stomach c. esophagus d. large intestine e. small intestine

A

Pancreas

22
Q

Which of the following lists the tubing in the correct order of food movement?

a. Nasopharynx, oroppharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, esophagus
b. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, stomach, pyloric valve
c. Larygopharynx, oropharynx, esophagus, pyloric valve stomach
d. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, pyloric valve, stomach
e. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach

A

Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, stomach, pyloric valve

23
Q

The regular contractions of the muscularis that push food through the gastrointestinal tract

a. segmentations c. peristalsis e. migratory motility complex
b. haustral churning d. pendular movement

A

peristalsis

24
Q

Gallstones are usually made of crystallized

a. glucose b. biliruin c. cholesterol d. chyme e. fat-soluble vitamins

A

cholesterol

25
Q

Most absorption of nutrients occurs in the

a. mouth b. transverse colon c. stomach d. small intestine e. rectum

A

small intestine

26
Q

Lactic acid is produced as a result of the chemical reduction of
a. acetyl CoA b. oxaloaceteic acid c. pyruvic acid d. cytochromees e. NAD

A

pyruvic acid

27
Q

The function of coenzyme A in glucose metabolism is to

a. reduce pyruvic acid to lactic acid
b. convert glucose 6-phosphate into glycogen
c. transport glucose from the blood across cell membranes
d. carry hydrogen ions between compounds in the Krebs cycle and compounds in the electron transport chain
e. carry two-carbon units into the Krebs cycle.

A

carry two-carbon units into the Krebs cycle.

28
Q

Every molecule of acetyl CoA that enters the Krebs cycle produces how many molecules of carbon?
a. One b. two c. four d. six e. 36

A

two

29
Q

Most ATP generated by the complete oxidation of glucose results from the reactions of

a. glycogenolysis b. the Krebs cycle
b. glycolysis c. the electron transport chain e. gluconeogenesis

A

the electron transport

30
Q

Glycogenesis is the

a. process by which the liver builds glycogen from noncarbohydrate precursors
b. breakdown of fats to fatty acids and glycerol
c. breakdown of glycogen to reform glucose
d. process of glycogen formation
e. all of the above answers are correct

A

process of glycogen formation

31
Q

The renal corpuscle consists of

a. The proximal and distal convoluted tubules
b. The glomerulus, and the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule
c. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle
d. All the renal pyramids
e. The glomerulus and the vasa recta

A

The glomerulus, and the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule

32
Q

In the myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation

a. renin causes contraction of macula densa cells to increase GFR
b. smooth muscle in afferent arterioles triggers vasoconstriction to decrease GFR
c. norepinephrine causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to decrease GFR
d. atrial natriuretic peptide causes relaxation of mesangial cells to increase GFR
e. angiotensin II causes dilation of the proximal and distal convoluted tubules.

A

smooth muscle in afferent arterioles triggers vasoconstriction to decrease GFR

33
Q

Which of the following substances is normally almost completely reabsorbed by the tubules of the nephron?
a. Creatinine b. glucose c. phosphate d. sodium e. urea

A

glucose

34
Q

Facultative reabsorption of water occurs mainly in the

a. glomerulus d. ascending limb of the loop of Henle
b. proximal convoluted tubules e. collecting ducts
c. descending limb of the loop of Henle

A

collecting ducts

35
Q

If the level of aldosterone in the blood increases, then

a. more potassium is excreted in the urine d. glomerular filtration rate will drop
b. more sodium is excreted in the urine e. First B, then C, then D
c. blood pressure will drop

A

more potassium is excreted in the urine

36
Q

The stimulus for release of ANP is

a. renin b. ADH c. aldosterone d. stretching of the atrial wall e. osmoreceptors

A

stretching of the atrial wall

37
Q

In studies of fluid balance, the term water intoxication refers to

a. Poisoning of the body’s water due to buildup of toxic substances during renal failure
b. Increased blood hydrostatic pressure created by high total blood volume.
c. Movement of water from interstitial fluid into intracellular fluid due to osmotic gradients created by ion loss
d. Any situation in which edema develops
e. Failure of neurohypophysis to secrete sufficient ADH.

A

Movement of water from interstitial fluid into intracellular fluid due to osmotic gradients created by ion loss

38
Q

Extracellular fluids are

a. high in both sodium and potassium c. high in sodium and low in potassium
b. low in both sodium and potassium d. low in sodium and high in potassium

A

high in sodium and low in potassium

39
Q

When bicarbonate ion diffuses out of red blood cells into plasma, it is usually exchanged with which anion?
a. Sodium b. potassium c. phosphate d. hydrogen e. chloride

A

chloride

40
Q

Hyperventilation results in

a. metabolic acidosis c. metabolic alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkalosis

A

respiratory alkalosis

41
Q

The function of the cremaster muscle is to

a. elevate the testes during sexual arousal and exposure to cold
b. generate peristaltic waves in the ductus deferens
c. control the release of secretions form the seminal vesicles
d. control the release of sperm cells from the testes into the epididymis
e. prevent urine from entering the urethra during ejaculation

A

elevate the testes during sexual arousal and exposure to cold

42
Q

Testosterone is produced by

a. spermatozoa c. interstitial cells
b. sustentacular cells d. the hypothalamus e. all cells in the male

A

interstitial cells

43
Q

Final maturation of sperm cells occurs in the

a. Epididymis c. prostate gland
b. seminiferous tubules d. urethra e. female reproductive tract

A

Epididymis

44
Q

The female structure that is homologous to the penis is the

a. ovary b. uterus c. vagina d. clitoris e. Bartholin’s gland

A

clitoris

45
Q

During the menstrual cycle, the endometrium would be at its thickest

a. during the menstrual phase d. late in the postovulatory phase
b. just prior to ovulation e. the thickness never changes
c. just after ovulation

A

late in the postovulatory phase

46
Q

The term syngamy refers to the

a. union of male and female pronuclei
b. equatorial division of the secondary oocyte following penetration by a sperm cell
c. functional changes that sperm undergo in the female reproductive tract that allow them to fertilize a secondary oocyte
d. functional changes in the zona pellucida and entry into a secondary oocyte
e. a sperm cell’s penetration of the zona pellucida and entry into a secondary oocyte

A

a sperm cell’s penetration of the zona pellucida and entry into a secondary oocyte

47
Q

How many days after fertilization does implantation of the blastocyst occur?
a. 2 days b. 6 days c. 14 days d. 28 days e. 120 days

A

6 days

48
Q

The human gestation period is about

a. 9 weeks b. 24 weeks c. 32 weeks d. 38 weeks e. 48 weeks

A

38 weeks

49
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin is at its highest levels during

a. ovulation d. the ninth week of pregnancy
b. fertilization e. the third month of pregnancy
c. implantation

A

the ninth week of pregnancy

50
Q

A couple who are both phenotypically normal have a child who expresses a sex-linked recessive trait. Which of the following represents the child’s genotype? [Let the trait be designated T (dominant) or t (recessive)]
a. Tt b. tt c. XtXt d. XtY e. both C and D could be correct

A

XtY

Anatomy and Physiology (12 decks)

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