movement disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is the inheritence pattern of Park1 mutation? What distinguishes parkinson’s due to PARK1 mutation from sporadic parkinson’s?

A

AD, young onset, prominent psychiatric features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the inheritence of PARK2 (aka Parkin) mutation? What are the clinical features?

A

AR, young onset, prominent dystonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the most common genetic cause of familial parkinson’s and what is the inheritance?

A

LRRK2 mutation, AD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the features of PARK4 related parkinsonism?

A

psychiatric features and blephorspasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which structures comprise the striatum?

A

Caudate and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what structures comprise the lentiform nucleus?

A

putamen and globus pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which structure receives most of the inputs to the basal ganglia?

A

Striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which structures give rise to outputs from the basal ganglia?

A

Gpi and SNr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what thalamic nuclei do Gpi and SNr project to? is the input inhibitory or excitatory?

A

VL/VA. inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where does VL/VA thalamus project? Is the input inhibitor or excitatory?

A

motor and premotor cortex. Excitatory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

draw the direct pathway

A

net effect is to promote movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

draw the indirect pathway

A

net effet is to inhibit movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the role of the SNc?

A

Inhibits indirect pathway and disinhibits direct pathway, therefore promotes movement. Degenerates in PD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which Dopamine receptors are found in the Direct Pathway? Are these receptors inhibitory or excitatory?

A

D1, excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which dopamine receptors are found in the indirect pathway? Are they excitatory or inhibitory?

A

D2, Inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which neurotransmitter is the main excitatory neurotransmitter of the basal ganglia?

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which neurotransmitter is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the basal ganglia?

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what receptors do antipsychotics act at and what is their action there?

A

D2 antagonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which anti-depressant class should be avoided in patients taking levodopa?

A

nonselective MAOIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the mechanism of action of Entacapone?

A

COMT inhibitor. Increases the half life of dopamine, decreases “off” periods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the mechanism of action of Rpinirole and pramipexole?

A

D2 and D3 agonists (ie inhibit the indirect pathway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the mechanism of action of Rasagiline and selegiline?

A

MAOB inhibitors, ie inhibit dopamine metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the mechanism of action of Trihexyphenidyl?

A

anti-cholinergic. Useful for treating tremor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the main side effect of slegiline?

A

insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are main side effects of pramipexole and ropinerole?
somnolence and impulse control problems.
26
what parkinsons plus syndrome presents later, has restricted downward gaze and retrocollis?
PSP
27
what parkinson's plus syndrome is repersented?
PSP=hummingbird sign
28
what kind of "opathy" is PSP?
tau
29
what parkinson's plus syndrome presents with autonomic dysfunction or ataxia and has neck antecolis?
MSA
30
what parkinson plus syndrome is depicted?
MSA= hot cross bun
31
what type of "opathy" is MSA?
syneuclopathy
32
what parkinson plus syndrome consists of focal limb rigidity/dystonia, cortical myoclonus, astereognosis and sometimes alien limb syndrome?
CBGD
33
what form of parkinsonism affects lower extremities more than upper extremities?
vascular parkinsonism
34
what form of parkinsonism affects welders and people on TPN?
Manganese toxicity.
35
what is the frequency of essential tremor?
4-8 Hz
36
how can essential tremor and enhanced physiologic tremor be distinguished?
In enhanced physiologic tremor the tremor improves with mass-loading.
37
what type of tremor is slow, present at rest, posture and action, and is common in MS? Where is the lesion?
rubral tremor. Dentate of cerebellum or superior cerebellar peduncle.
38
what disorder is dipicted? On what chromosome is the mutation?
WIlson's disease. Chr 13. Also get caudate hyperintensity
39
What is the trinucleotide repeat in Huntington's disease? What chromosome?
CAG, Chr 4
40
what gene is affected in benign hereditary chorea?
gene for TTF
41
what disorder presents with tongue protrusion dystonia, chorea, and self mutilation behavior? what is the mode of inheritance?
acanthocytosis. AD or X-linked recessive.
42
what disorder presents in the 4th decade and consists of myoclonus, choreathetosis, epilepsy and cognitive dysfunction and is due to trinucleotide repeat?
DRPLA.
43
what is the trinucleotide repeat in DRPLA and on what chromosome?
CAG on Chr 12
44
How can Lesch-Nyhan syndrome and acanthocytosis be distinguished?
In lesch nyhan there is uricemia with nephrolithiasis and not typically tongue protrusion dystonia as in acanthocytosis.
45
injury to what nucleus causes hemibalismus?
Contralateral STN
46
what are 6 treatments for tardive dyskinesia
1. slow taper of anti-psychotic 2. switching to anti-psychotic with less D2 antagonism. 3. dopamine depleting agents (tetrabenizine, reserpine) 4. Levodopa 5. Depakote 6. Clonazepam
47
what primary generalized dystonia starts in childhood and is more common in Asckenazi Jews? What Chromosome?
DYT1 Chr 9
48
What primary generalized dystonia starts in the teenage years and has tremor, myocolonus, and dystonia?
DYT 11
49
What Primary Generalized Dystonia is X-linked and more common in phillipinos?
DYT3 (Lubag)
50
what are medications used for dystonias?
anti-cholinergics, benzodiazepines, baclofen
51
what primary generalized dystonia is more common in females, has a diurnal pattern and responds to low dose dopamine? What enzyme and chromosome?
dopa responsive dystonia (DYT5), GTP cyclohydrolase 1 on Chr 14.
52
what structures make up the guillain-mollaret triange?
Dentate of cerebellum, infirior olive, red nucleus
53
what MRI finding can be seen in symptomatic palatal myoclonus?
inferior olive hypertrophy
54
in what disorder are paroxysms of dyskinesia triggered by sudden movement or startle and hyperventillation. How long do attacks last?
Paroxysmal kinesiogenic dyskinesia. attacks last up to 5 min.
55
in what disorder are dyskinesias aggravated by alcohol, caffeine and fatigue? How long do attacks last?
PKND. Attacks last minutes to hours.
56
which disorder consists of episodic ataxia in association with facial twitching? what gene and chromosome?
EA1, KCNA1 on Chr 12
57
what disorder consists of episodic ataxia associated with nystagmus and dysarthria? What gene ?
EAII, CACN1A4.
58
What disorder consists of episodic ataxia with tinnitus and vertigo? What is the inheritance?
EA III, AD
59
What disorder consists of episodic ataxia with ocular abnormalities triggered by sudden head movement?
EA IV
60
exaggerated startle, increased axial tone, lordosis with onset in the 40s or 50s
stiff person syndrome
61
what antibodies are present in auto-immune stiff person syndrome?
anti-GAD
62
what antibodies are present in paraneoplastic stiff person syndrome?
anti-amphiphysin antibodies
63
at what location is glycine an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
spinal interneurons
64
what abnormalities are found in familial forms of hyperkeplexia?
glycine receptor and presynaptic glycine transproter mutations.
65
which cerebellar peduncle carreis cerebellare efferents?
superior
66
which cerebellar peduncle(s) carry cerebelllar afferents?
all of them
67
what cerebellar structure does chronic alcoholism predominantly affect?
vermis
68
what toxicity causes ataxia, visual field deficits and parasthesias?
mercury
69
what is the trinucleotide repeat in freidrich ataxia? What chromosome? What mode of inheritence?
GAA, Chr 9, AR
70
what medication improves cardiomyopathy in Freidrich ataxia?
Idebenone, a CoQ10 analogue
71
childhood onset neuropathy, ataxia, and inability to move eyes without head thrust, telangiectasias, immunodeficiency and blood malignancies. What gene and chromosome?
Ataxia-Telangiectasia. ATM, Chr 11
72
onset in 30s-40s, ataxia, face and tongue atrophy, dysphagia and neuropathy.
SCA3
73
what trinucleotide repeat, gene and chromosome is involved in SCA3? What is the inheritence?
CAG, ataxin 3, Chr14, AD.
74
tremor, ataxia, parkinsonism, dysautonomia, cognitive decline and grandchild with mental retardation. MRI findings below.
Fragile X tremor ataxia syndrome, 55-200 repeats of CGG in FMR1 on X chromosome.
75
ataxia, parkinism, cataracts with elevated serum cholestanol.
cerebrotendinous xanthomatosis
76
what is the frequency of orthostatic tremor?
14-16 Hz
77
Parkinsonism and this MRI
Fahr's disease
78
disorder with this MRI
PKAN
79
injury to what structure causes choreathetosis
contralateral anterior ventral portion of the caudate
80
which SCA has latera onset and normal life span?
SCA 6
81
which disorders are dominantly inherited and have CAG repeats?
SCA 1,2,3,6,7 and DRPLA
82
what gene is affected in DRPLA?
atrophin
83
What is the inheritence of DJ-1 related parkinsonism?
AR
84
what gene causes inherited parkinsons has autonomic features and premature death? What is inheritence?
SCNA (alpha syneuclein), AD