Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > cranial nerves and neuro ophthalmology > Flashcards

cranial nerves and neuro ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

primary and secondary action of superior oblique

A

depression/intorsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

primary and secondary action of superior rectus

A

elevation/intorsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

primary and secondary action of inferior oblique

A

elevation/extorsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

primary and secondary action of inferior rectus

A

depression/extorsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Result of sympathetic innervation to eyelid

A

innervates muller’s muscle and superior tarsal muscles in the upper eyelids, and inferior tarsal muscles in the lower lid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

location of carotid dissection that leads to anhidrosis

A

beyond carotid bifurcation (because sympathetic fibers travel with the ECA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

first order neuron in Horner’s

A

posterior hypothalamus to C8-T2 (spincocilliary center of budge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

second order neuron in Horner’s

A

C8-T2 to sup. cervical ganglion (carotid bifurcation). Note, travel over apex of lung and under subclavian.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3rd order neuron in Horner’s

A

sup. cervical ganglion along branches of carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

path of 3rd order synmpathetic neuron to face sweat glands

A

along ECA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

path of 3rd order sympathetic neurons to pupillary muscles and eyelid muscles.

A

along ICA, through cavernous sinus, with V1 to orbit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Use of cocaine in a meiotic eye

A

in a sympathetically denervated eye cocaine will NOT cause pupil dilation in a Horner’s syndrome, confirming the Horner’s. Does not further localize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Location of lesion in Horner’s if pupil dilates after hydroxyamphetamine.

A

First or second order neuron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Location of lesion in Horner’s if pupil DOES NOT dilate after hydroxyamphetamine.

A

3rd order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which oculomotor complex subnucleus innervates the contralateral side?

A

superior rectus subnucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pathway of afferent limb of pupillary light reflex

A

retinal ganglia-> optic nerve -> chiasm -> optic tract-> ipsilateral pretectal nucleus (note each pretectal nucleus gets info from contralateral visual field) -> Edinger Westfal nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pathway of efferent limb of pupillary light reflex.

A

Edinger Westfal nucleus-> oculomotor nucleus. ->oculomotor n.–> ciliary ganglia -> (postganglionic) pupilary sphincter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lesion location in INO if the left eye cannot adduct.

A

LEFT MLF (lesion is IPSILATERAL to eye with adduction deficit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Findings in bilateral MLF lesions

A

bilateral exotropia causing “wall eyed bilateral INO (WEBINO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lesion location in one and a half syndrome if right eye has no horizontal movement and left eye only has abduction.

A

RIGHT abducens nucleus or PPRF AND RIGHT MLF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

suspected location of lesion in Adie’s tonic pupil

A

parasympathetic post-ganglionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

findings in acute phase of Adie’s tonic pupil

A

unilateral mydriasis and lack of reaction to light or accommodation, constriction (hypersensitivity) to dilute pilocarpine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

findings in chronic phase of Adie’s tonic pupil.

A

unilateral meiosis at rest, lack of reaction to light, intact reaction to accommodation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most likely diagnosis in adult patient with heart disease who has acute onset painless vision loss and nerve head edema.

A

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

signs of cavernous sinus syndrome

A

proptosis, blurred vision, deficits in CN III, IV, VI, V1 and V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

5 features of central vertigo

A

1.absent latency 2. non-fatiguing 3. lasts longer than 1 min 4. not diminished by visual fixation 5.can occur in any direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

6 features of peripheral vertigo

A
  1. latency present 2. fatiguable 3.lasts 1-20 seconds 4. improves with visual fixation 5.usually horizontal but can have torsional component 6. unidirectional.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

direction of slow phase of nystagmus in peripheral vertigo

A

slow phase is towards affected ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

in what direction does amplitude of nystagmus in peripheral vertigo increase.

A

when looking towards the unaffected side.

30
Q

in the ear, what are the otolithic organs

A

saccule and utricle

31
Q

what type of motion do the otolithic organs detect

A

linear and vertical acceleration

32
Q

what type of motion do the semicircular canals detect.

A

angular head motion

33
Q

path of parasympathetic input to glands of eye and nasal mucosa.

A

sup. salivatory nuc –> nervus intermedius –> geniculate gangion (no synapse) –>greater petrosal n. –> pterygopalatine gangion –>glands

34
Q

Path of parasympathetic input to the mouth.

A

sup salivatory nuc–>nervous intermdius–> geniculate ganglion (no synapse) –> chorda tympani –>submandibular gangion –> glands.

35
Q

first branch of facial nerve after the geniculate ganglion

A

nerve to stapedius.

36
Q

path of taste afferents from anterior 2/3 of tongue.

A

tongue–>chorda tympani–>through ext aud meatus–>geniculate nucleus (synapse) –>nervus intermdius –>tractus solitarius in brainstem.

37
Q

which brainstem nucleus gives rise to parasympathetic input to the parotid gland via CN IX?

A

inferior salivatory nucelus.

38
Q

which foramen does CN IX exit?

A

jugular foramen.

39
Q

what is the path of afferents from the posterior 2/3 of the tongue (taste)?

A

tongue–> glossopharyngeal n. –> superior and inferior ganglia (at level of jugular foramen) –>tractus solitarius.

40
Q

afferent and efferent path of baro-receptor reflex.

A

carotid baro-receptors–> CN IX –> nucleus solitarius –>interneuron –> Dorsal nucleus of X –> Vagus –>heart.

41
Q

afferent and efferent path of gag reflex

A

pharynx–> CN IX –>superior and inferior glossopharyngeal ganglia–> tractus solitarius–> nucleus ambigus –>CN X–>pharyngeal muscles.

42
Q

inputs to nucleus solitarius

A
  1. taste afferents via CN VII and CN IX 2. sensory from CN IX (pharynx and baroreceptors).
43
Q

outputs from superior salivatory nucleus

A

parasympathetic efferents via CN VII.

44
Q

outputs from inferior salivatory nucleus

A

parasympathetic efferents via CN IX.

45
Q

outputs from nucleus ambigus

A

motor efferents via CN IX, X and XI

46
Q

direction of tongue deviation if lesion is supranuclear

A

contralateral

47
Q

direction of tongue deviation if lesion is hypoglossal

A

ipsilateral

48
Q

what motion does accessory nerve activation cause

A

ipsi head tilt, contra head rotation.

49
Q

what nerve supplies tactile sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue?

A

Trigeminal

50
Q

what passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III, CN IV, CN V1

51
Q

what foramina does V2 pass through?

A

foramen rotundum

52
Q

what foramina does V3 pass through?

A

Foramen ovale

53
Q

What passes through the jugular foramina

A

sigmoid sinus, CN IX, X, XI

54
Q

what structure does CN XII pass through

A

hypoglossal canal

55
Q

what passes through the internal acoustic meatus

A

CN VII, CN VIII

56
Q

what causes sudden painless vision loss preceded by transient monocular blindness?

A

central retinal artery occlusion.

57
Q

what is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with sudden painless vision loss and jaw claudication.

A

Giant cell arteritis.

58
Q

what disorder consists of slowly progressive nonfatiguable ptosis and ophthalmoplegia with onset after age 30?

A

chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia (CPEO)- a mitochondrial disorder.

59
Q

what sort of nystagmus occurs in Chiari malformation?

A

downbeat- occurs with lesions at the craniocervical junction.

60
Q

in what disorders does upbeat nystagmus occur?

A

cerebellar and brainstem lesions, wernike’s encephalopathy

61
Q

what type of nystagmus is associated with suprasellar masses?

A

see-saw

62
Q

what is the most common cause of convergence retraction nystagmus in a newborn?

A

congenital aqueductal stenosis

63
Q

what is the most common cause of convergence retraction nystagmus in an older child

A

pineal tumor

64
Q

what is the most common cause of convergence retraction nystagmus in someone in their 20’s?

A

head trauma

65
Q

what is the most common cause of convergence retraction nystagmus in someone in their 30s?

A

brainstem vascular malformation

66
Q

what is the most common cause of convergence retraction nystagmus in their 40’s?

A

MS

67
Q

what is the most common cause of convergence retraction nystagmus in someone in their 50’s?

A

basilar artery stroke

68
Q

what makes up mollaret’s triangle?

A

red nucleus, ipsilateral inferior olivary nucleus, contralateral dentate

69
Q

what is the most frequent muscle involved in grave’s eye disease?

A

inferior rectus

70
Q

what nerve is most often affected in ophthalmoplegic migraine?

A

Oculomotor

71
Q

what are the main features of ophthalmoplegic migraine?

A

onset before age 10
history of typical migraine
ophthalmoplegia is ipsi to headache
ophtalmoplegia starts at peak of headache and persists after headache is gone.

72
Q

what disorder is associated with bilateral subcapsular cataracts?

A

NFII

Boards (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions