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Hematology 1 [LEC] > MODULE 2 UNIT 2: ERYTHROPOIESIS > Flashcards

MODULE 2 UNIT 2: ERYTHROPOIESIS Flashcards

1
Q

Significant changes in blood cell maturation

A

NUCLEAR CHANGES
CYTOPLASMIC CHANGES
CELL SIZE

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2
Q

is the glycoprotein hormone produced by the kidneys (renal peritubular interstitial cells).

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

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3
Q

EPO main effect is to place more erythrocytes into circulation at a faster rate by:

A

o Early release of reticulocytes
o Prevent apoptotic cell death
o Reduces maturation time inside bone marrow

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4
Q

2 Maturation sequences of Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

I. Erythroid Progenitors

II. Erythroid Precursors

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5
Q

Identify what maturation sequence of EPO by using these:

a. Pronormoblast
b. Basophilic normoblast
c. Polychromatic (polychromatophilic) normoblast
d. Orthochromic normoblast
e. Reticulocyte/ Polychromatic (polychromatophilic) erythrocyte
f. Erythrocyte

A

II. Erythroid Precursors

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6
Q

Identify what maturation sequence of EPO by using these:

a. Pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell
b. CFU-GEMM/ CFU-S
c. CFU-MegE
d. *BFU-E (Particularly produced under increased demand for RBCs/ pathologic erythropoiesis)
e. CFU-E

A

I. Erythroid Progenitors

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7
Q

Give the Three Erythroid Precursor Nomenclature Systems

A

NORMOBLASTIC
RUBRIBLASTIC
ERYTHROBLASTIC

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8
Q

Pronormoblast

A

NORMOBLASTIC

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9
Q

Rubriblast

A

RUBRIBLASTIC

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10
Q

Proerythroblast

A

ERYTHROBLASTIC

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11
Q

Basophilic normoblast

A

NORMOBLASTIC

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12
Q

Prorubricyre

A

RUBRIBLASTIC

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13
Q

Basophilic erythroblast

A

ERYTHROBLASTIC

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14
Q

Polychromatic (polychromatophilic) normoblast

A

NORMOBLASTIC

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15
Q

Rubricyte

A

RUBRIBLASTIC

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16
Q

Polychromatic (polychromatophilic) erythroblast

A

ERYTHROBLASTIC

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17
Q

Orthochromic normoblast

A

NORMOBLASTIC

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18
Q

Metarubricyte

A

RUBRIBLASTIC

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19
Q

Orthochromic erythroblast

A

ERYTHROBLASTIC

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20
Q

Reticulocyte/ Polychromatic (polychromatophilic) erythrocyte

A

NORMOBLASTIC
RUBRIBLASTIC
ERYTHROBLASTIC

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21
Q

Erythrocyte

A

NORMOBLASTIC
RUBRIBLASTIC
ERYTHROBLASTIC

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22
Q

Approximately [?] DAYS are required to produce a mature RBC from the BFU-E

A

18 TO 21 Days

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23
Q

[?] week/s for BFU-E to mature to CFU-E

A

1 week

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24
Q

Another [?] week/s for CFU-E to mature to pronormoblast

A

1 week

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25
Q

Another [?] days for the precursors to mature enough to enter the circulation

A

6-7 days

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26
Q

[?] mature RBCs usually result from a single pronormoblast

A

8 to 32 mature RBCs

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27
Q
A

PRONORMOBLAST

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28
Q
A

BASOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

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29
Q
A

POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST

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30
Q
A

ORTHOCHROMIC NORMOBLAST

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31
Q
A

POLYCHROMATIC ERYTHROCYTE

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32
Q
A

ERYTHROCYTES

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33
Q

Crucial to the red cell function is the structure of the [?]

A

RBC MEMBRANE or red cell membrane

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34
Q

RBC MEMBRANE is made up of

A

proteins , lipids and carbohydrates

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35
Q

percentage of protein in RBC MEMBRANE?

A

proteins (52%)

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36
Q

percentage of lipids in RBC MEMBRANE?

A

lipids (40%)

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37
Q

percentage of carbohydrates in RBC MEMBRANE?

A

carbohydrates (8%)

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38
Q

The (?) needs to be flexible, deformable and semi-permeable so that the red cell will be able to travel through the largest blood vessels to the smallest capillaries in order to deliver oxygen to the farthest areas of the body.

A

membrane

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39
Q

The membrane needs to be flexible, deformable and semi-permeable so that the red cell will be able to travel through the (?) to the smallest capillaries in order to deliver oxygen to the farthest areas of the body.

A

largest blood vessels

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40
Q

The membrane needs to be flexible, deformable and semi-permeable so that the red cell will be able to travel through the largest blood vessels to the (?) in order to deliver oxygen to the farthest areas of the body.

A

smallest capillaries

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41
Q

The membrane needs to be flexible, deformable and semi-permeable so that the red cell will be able to travel through the largest blood vessels to the smallest capillaries in order to deliver (?) to the farthest areas of the body.

A

oxygen

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42
Q

The membrane needs to be flexible, deformable and semi-permeable so that the red cell will be able to travel through the largest blood vessels to the smallest capillaries in order to deliver oxygen to the (?) of the body.

A

farthest areas

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43
Q

is a continually moving sea of fluid lipids that contains a mosaic of different proteins.

A

fluid mosaic model

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44
Q

Some (?) float freely like iceberg in the lipid seam whereas others are anchored at specific parts.

A

proteins

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45
Q

two parts of RBC membrane

A

lipid bilayer and membrane proteins

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46
Q

The lipid bilayer consists of two back-to-back layers made up of three types of lipid molecules:
Give the three types of lipid molecules.

A

i. Phospholipids
ii. Cholesterol
iii. Glycolipids

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47
Q

Percentage of Phospholipids

A

75%

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48
Q

Percentage of Cholesterol

A

20%

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49
Q

Percentage of Glycolipids

A

5%

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50
Q

are amphipathic lipids.

A

Phospholipids

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51
Q

means they have both polar and nonpolar parts.

A

Amphipathic lipids

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52
Q

The polar part of Phospholipids is the

A

phosphate-containing “head”

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53
Q

The nonpolar part of Phospholipids has

A

two long fatty acid “tails”

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54
Q

Phospholipids can be asymmetrically divided by?

A

Outer layer

Inner layer

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55
Q

Outer layer of Phospholipids contains?

A

Phosphatidylcholine & Sphingomyelin

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56
Q

Inner layer of Phospholipids contains?

A

Phosphatidylserine & Phosphatidylethanolamine

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57
Q

It is a steroid with an attached hydroxyl group, weakly amphipathic and are interspersed among the other lipids in both layers of the membrane.

A

Cholesterol

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58
Q

Cholesterol is a steroid with an attached (?), weakly amphipathic and are interspersed among the other lipids in both layers of the membrane.

A

hydroxyl group

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59
Q

The polar part of Cholesterol contains the?

A

hydroxyl group

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60
Q

non-polar part of Cholesterol contains the?

A

steroid rings and hydrocarbon tail

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61
Q

are lipids with attached carbohydrate groups that appear only in the membrane layer that faces the extracellular fluid.

A

Glycolipids

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62
Q

Glycolipids are lipids with attached carbohydrate groups that appear only in the (?) that faces the extracellular fluid.

A

membrane layer

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63
Q

It is one of the reasons the two sides of the bilayer are (?).

A

asymmetrical

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64
Q

The polar part of Glycolipids contains the?

A

carbohydrate “Head”

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65
Q

the nonpolar part of Glycolipids contains the?

A

fatty Acid “Tail”

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66
Q

2 types of membrane proteins

A

Integral proteins

Peripheral proteins

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67
Q

are not firmly attached in the membrane but rather attached to the polar heads of membrane lipids.

A

Peripheral proteins

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68
Q

are firmly attached to the bilayer membrane and extend into or through the lipid bilayer among the fatty acids.

A

Integral proteins

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69
Q

Glycophorin A

A

Integral proteins

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70
Q

Glycophorin B

A

Integral proteins

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71
Q

Glycophorin C

A

Integral proteins

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72
Q

Anion-exchange-channel protein (band 3)

A

Integral proteins

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73
Q

Spectrin

A

Peripheral proteins

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74
Q

Actin (band 5)

A

Peripheral proteins

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75
Q

Ankyrin (band 2.1)

A

Peripheral proteins

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76
Q

Band 4.1 and 4.2

A

Peripheral proteins

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77
Q

Band 6

A

Peripheral proteins

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78
Q

Adducin

A

Peripheral proteins

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79
Q

is an extensive sugary coat made up of the carbohydrate portions of the glycolipids and glycoproteins.

A

glycocalyx

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80
Q

It acts like a molecular signature, enables cells to adhere to one another in some tissues and protects the cells from being digested by enzymes in the extracellular fluid.

A

glycocalyx

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81
Q

Glycocalyx acts like a molecular signature, enables cells to adhere to one another in some tissues and protects the cells from being digested by (?) in the extracellular fluid.

A

enzymes

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82
Q

4 RBC METABOLISM

A
  1. Embden-Meyerhof Pathway (EMP)
  2. Hexose Monophosphate Pathway/ Pentose Phosphate Shunt
  3. Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway
  4. Rapoport- Leubering Pathway
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83
Q

is the major source of red cell energy.

A

Embden-Meyerhof Pathway (EMP)

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84
Q

Embden-Meyerhof Pathway (EMP) is the pathway responsible for (?) carried out by RBCs.

A

90% of glycolysis

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85
Q

In the process of glycolysis/ glucose catabolism, (?) is converted to pyruvate and the resulting pyruvate can be metabolized.

A

glucose

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86
Q

lucose is converted to pyruvate and the resulting pyruvate can be metabolized either via:

A

▪ Aerobic pathway

▪ ANAEROBIC PATHWAY/ ANAEROBIC GLYCOLYSIS

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87
Q

Tricarboxylic acid cycle

A

Aerobic pathway

88
Q

NOT used by RBC metabolism (absence of mitochondria)

A

Aerobic pathway

89
Q

By Aerobic pathway:

Pyruvate is converted to (?)

A

acetyl-coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA)

90
Q

By Aerobic pathway:

For each mole of glucose, a total of (?) ATP molecules are produced.

A

38 ATP molecules

91
Q

By Aerobic pathway:

However, 2 ATP molecules are needed to initiate respiration so there is a (?).

A

net of 36 ATPs

92
Q

By ANAEROBIC PATHWAY/ ANAEROBIC GLYCOLYSIS:

Pyruvate is converted to [?] (reaction is catalysed by LDH)

A

lactic acid

93
Q

By ANAEROBIC PATHWAY/ ANAEROBIC GLYCOLYSIS:

For each mole of glucose, a total of (?) ATP molecules are produced.

A

4 ATP molecules

94
Q

By ANAEROBIC PATHWAY/ ANAEROBIC GLYCOLYSIS:

However, for anaerobic glycolysis to occur, 2 moles of ATP must be consumed resulting in a (?).

A

net gain of 2 ATP moles

95
Q

The Hexose Monophosphate Pathway/ Pentose Phosphate Shunt contributes to (?).

A

10% of glycolysis

96
Q

It provides adequate stores of NADPH needed to maintain GLUTATHIONE IN ITS REDUCED FORM to prevent denaturation of hemoglobin.

A

Hexose Monophosphate Pathway/ Pentose Phosphate Shunt

97
Q

Hexose Monophosphate Pathway/ Pentose Phosphate Shunt provides adequate stores of (?) needed to maintain GLUTATHIONE IN ITS REDUCED FORM to prevent denaturation of hemoglobin.

A

NADPH

98
Q

Hexose Monophosphate Pathway/ Pentose Phosphate Shunt provides adequate stores of NADPH needed to maintain (?) to prevent denaturation of hemoglobin.

A

GLUTATHIONE IN ITS REDUCED FORM

99
Q

G-6-PD means

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

100
Q

G-6-PD deficiency often yields in the presence of (?)

A

Heinz bodies

101
Q

Maintains hemoglobin iron in Fe2+ (Ferrous state) to be functional.

A

Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway

102
Q

Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway maintains hemoglobin iron in (?) to be functional.

A

Fe2+ (Ferrous state)

103
Q

Responsible for generation of 2,3-DPG which regulates hemoglobin affinity for O2.

A

Rapoport- Leubering Pathway

104
Q

Rapoport- Leubering Pathway is responsible for generation of 2,3-DPG which regulates hemoglobin affinity for (?)

A

O2 or Oxygen

105
Q

Due to (?), red blood cells will eventually experience deterioration of their enzymes.

A

natural catabolism

106
Q

As (?), the mature RBCs are unable to generate or replenish enzymes including glycolytic enzymes that lead to senescence/ aging of red blood cells.

A

nonnucleated cells

107
Q

As nonnucleated cells, the (?) are unable to generate or replenish enzymes including glycolytic enzymes that lead to senescence/ aging of red blood cells.

A

mature RBCs

108
Q

As nonnucleated cells, the mature RBCs are unable to generate or replenish enzymes including (?) that lead to senescence/ aging of red blood cells.

A

glycolytic enzymes

109
Q

is the destruction of senescent (aged) red blood cells by the spleen.

A

CULLING

110
Q

This type of hemolysis happens within the reticuloendothelial system (SPLEEN) when complement is not activated or incompletely activated.

A

Extravascular Hemolysis/ Macrophage-Mediated Hemolysis

111
Q

It accounts for 90% of red cell destruction and leads to increased unconjugated bilirubin & urine/ fecal urobilinogen.

A

Extravascular Hemolysis/ Macrophage-Mediated Hemolysis

112
Q

It is the type of hemolysis seen in Rh hemolysis.

A

Extravascular Hemolysis/ Macrophage-Mediated Hemolysis

113
Q

Extravascular Hemolysis/ Macrophage-Mediated Hemolysis is type of hemolysis happens within the (?) when complement is not activated or incompletely activated.

A

reticuloendothelial system (SPLEEN)

114
Q

Extravascular Hemolysis accounts for (?)% of red cell destruction.

A

90%

115
Q

Extravascular Hemolysis leads to increased (?).

A

unconjugated bilirubin & urine/ fecal urobilinogen

116
Q

is the type of hemolysis seen in Rh hemolysis.

A

Extravascular Hemolysis

117
Q

It happens within BLOOD VESSELS when the complement is completely activated.

A

Intravascular Hemolysis/ Fragmentation/ Intravascular Hemolysis

118
Q

Intravascular Hemolysis happens within (?) when the complement is completely activated.

A

BLOOD VESSELS

119
Q

Intravascular Hemolysis accounts for (?)% destruction of aged red cell population

A

10%

120
Q

Intravascular Hemolysis leads to?

A

hemoglobinuria,
decreased haptoglobin
and hemopexin

121
Q

It is the type of hemolysis observed in ABO hemolysis.

A

Intravascular Hemolysis

122
Q

are a heterogenous group.

A

Leukocytes

123
Q

2 types of Leukocytes

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

124
Q

The granulocytes together with the monocytes share the (?) while the lymphocytes have their (?).

A
  1. same lineage with the red cells (CFU-GEMM)

2. own (CFU-L)

125
Q

pertains to the production and development of the three granulocytes.

A

Ganulopoiesis

126
Q

Give the three granulocytes.

A

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

127
Q

The maturation sequence is almost similar for the three types of cells, except for the (?) that influence production and differentiation.

A

cytokines

128
Q

Maturation Sequence of Neutrophil Development

A

I. Stem cell pool
II. Mitotic pool
III. Maturation pool
IV. Neutrophil

129
Q

Pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell

A

Stem cell pool

130
Q

Mitotic pool

Progenitors:

A

a. CFU-GEMM (Common Myeloid Progenitor)
b. CFU-GM (Granulocyte-Macrophage Progenitor)
c. CFU-G

131
Q

Mitotic pool

Precursors:

A

d. Myeloblast
e. Promyelocytes
f. Myelocytes

132
Q

Maturation pool

Precursors:

A

a. Metamyelocytes

b. Neutrophilic band

133
Q

MYELOBLAST

Size (um) 
N:C ratio 
Nucleus Shape
Chromatin 
Nucleoli 
Staining  
Granules
A 
14 to 20  
8:1 to 4:1 
Round to oval 
Homogenous, delicate, fine euchromatin  
2 to 4 
Slightly basophilic 
No Granules
134
Q

PROMYELOCYTE

Size (um) 
N:C ratio 
Nucleus Shape
Chromatin 
Nucleoli 
Staining  
Granules
A 
16-25 
 3:1 to 2:1
 Round to oval 
 Heterochroma tin  Slightly coarse 
1-3
 Basophilic  
Formation of PRIMARY/ Azurophilic granules
135
Q

MYELOCYTE (“Dawn of Neutrophilia”)

Size (um) 
N:C ratio 
Nucleus Shape
Chromatin 
Nucleoli 
Staining  
Granules
A 
12-18
 1:1 
Oval or round 
Coarser and condensed 
NONE 
Mixture of basophilic and acidophilic 
Formation of  SECONDARY /  Specific  granules “Dawn of Neutrophilia ”
136
Q

METAMYELOCYTE

Size (um) 
N:C ratio 
Nucleus Shape
Chromatin 
Nucleoli 
Staining  
Granules
A 
15-18
 1:1
 KIDNEY-SHAPED
 Coarse & clumped
 NONE
 Beige/ salmon  
Formation of TERTIARY/  Gelatinase granules
137
Q

BAND/STAB

Size (um) 
N:C ratio 
Nucleus Shape
Chromatin 
Nucleoli 
Staining  
Granules
A 
9-15
 1:1 to 1:2 
Elongate/ band (C or S)
 Coarse & clumped 
 NONE 
Beige/ salmon  
Continuous formation of tertiary granules   Formation of SECRETORY GRANULES (vesicles)
138
Q

Cellular Activity of MYELOBLAST

A

0-3% of nucleated cells in BM

  • Classification:
    Type I blasts: No visible granules
    “Granular blasts” Rare in normal marrow

Type II blasts: < 20 visible primary or azurophilic granules

Type III blasts: >20 visible primary or azurophilic granules

139
Q

Cellular Activity of PROMYELOCYTE

A

1-5% BM Hof/ Paranuclear halo surrounding the nucleus

140
Q

Cellular Activity of MYELOCYTE (“Dawn of Neutrophilia”)

A

6-17% BM

LAST STAGE CAPABLE OF MITOSIS

141
Q

Cellular Activity of METAMYELOCYTE

A

3-20% BM

142
Q

Formed during the promyelocyte stage

Last to be released (Exocytosis)

A

Primary (Azurophilic) Granules

143
Q 
Contain:  
• Myeloperoxidase  
• Acid-β- glycerophosphate 
 • Cathepsins  
• Defensins  
• Elastase  
• Proteinase-3 
• Others
A

Primary (Azurophilic) Granules

144
Q

Secondary (Specific) Granules

A

Formed during myelocyte and metamyelocyte stages

Third to be released

145
Q 
Contain: 
 • β2- microglobulin
  • Collagenase 
 • Gelatinase
  • Lactoferrin
  • Neutrophil gelatinase- associated lipocalin 
 • Transcobalamin I
 • Others
A

Secondary (Specific) Granules

146
Q

Formed during metamyelocyte and band stages

Second to be released

A

Tertiary Granules

147
Q 
Contain:
  • β2- microglobulin  
• Collagenase  
• Gelatinase 
 • Lysozyme  
• Acetyltransferase
A

Tertiary Granules

148
Q

Formed during the band and segmented neutrophil stages

First to be released (fuse to plasma membrane)

A

Secretory Granules (Secretory Vesicles)

149
Q 
Contain (attached to the membrane):
  • CD11b/ CD18 
 • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Vesicle-associated membrane-2
 • CD10, CD13, CD14, CD16
 • Cytochrome b558
 • Complement 1q receptor
  • Complement receptor-1
A

Secretory Granules (Secretory Vesicles)

150
Q

are also known as polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs) or segmenters.

A

Neutrophils

151
Q

Neutrophils are the cells that respond to (?).

A

bacterial infection

152
Q

Neutrophils average size ranges from (?) microns.

A

9 to 15 microns

153
Q

The nucleus presents with (?) lobes with highly condensed chromatin.

A

2-5 lobes

Tumaba ka ba? Mood

154
Q

The cytoplasm will contain continuously forming (?) secretory granules.

A

pink to rose-violet

155
Q
  • Normal values:
    o Bone marrow:
    o Relative value in peripheral blood:
    o Absolute value:
A

o Bone marrow: 7-30% of nucleated cell population
o Relative value in peripheral blood: 50-70% of WBCs
o Absolute value: 1.7-7.5 x 109/ L

156
Q

Neutrophil kinetics:
o Production:
o Mitotic pool:
o Maturation pool:
o Once in the peripheral blood, neutrophils are divided randomly into a (?) and a (?). The ratio of CNP and MNP is roughly equal.
o Majority of the MNP are in the (?) of the lungs.

A

o Production: 0.9-1.0 x 109 cells/ kg per day
o Mitotic pool: 2.11 x 109 cells/ kg
o Maturation pool: 5.6 x 109 cells/ kg
o Once in the peripheral blood, neutrophils are divided randomly into a circulating neutrophil pool (CNP) and a marginated neutrophil pool (MNP). The ratio of CNP and MNP is roughly equal.
o Majority of the MNP are in the capillaries of the lungs.

157
Q 
Transit time: 
 o HSC to myeloblast: 
 o Myeloblast to maturation pool:   
o Neutrophil half-life in blood:   
o It takes about (?) from the blast stage to the release of mature granulocytes.
A

o HSC to myeloblast: 6 days
o Myeloblast to maturation pool: 4 to 6 days
o Neutrophil half-life in blood: 6-8 hours
o It takes about 14 days from the blast stage to the release of mature granulocytes.

158
Q

Neutrophil Function: a. Phagocytosis Steps

A

Chemical signals from damaged cells leading to chemotaxis → Margination (sticking to capillary endothelium) → Diapedesis → Recognition of pathogen→ Attachment (Toll-like receptor of phagocyte attaching to PAMPs) → Ingestion → Pathogen in phagosome → Formation of phagolysosome→ Digestion & killing

159
Q

Respiratory burst through the activation of NADPH oxidase. H2O2 and peroxidase are produced

A

Oxygen dependent Digestion

160
Q

The pH within the phagosome becomes alkaline and then neutral, the pH at which digestive enzymes work.

A

Oxygen independent Digestion

161
Q

▪ Nuclear & organelle membrane dissolves → DNA release → DNA + cytoplasmic enzymes → Cell membrane ruptures → NET release

A

NETs

162
Q

▪ Extracellular threadlike structures believed to represent chains of nucleosomes from DNA

A

NETs

163
Q

▪ Have enzymes from neutrophil granules

A

NETs

164
Q

▪ Have been shown to be able to trap and kill gram-positive and gramnegative bacteria as well as fungi

A

NETs

165
Q

NETs are generated at the time that neutrophils die as a result of antibacterial activity

A

“NETosis”

166
Q
  • Transcobalamin I/R binder (needed for Vitamin B12 absorption)
  • Variety of cytokines
A

Secretory Function

167
Q

Maturation Sequence of Eosinophil Development

A

I. Pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell
II. Progenitors
III. Precursors
IV. Eosinophil

168
Q

Eosinophil Development
Maturation Sequence
II. Progenitors:

A

a. CFU-GEMM (Common Myeloid Progenitor)

b. CFU-Eo

169
Q

Eosinophil Development
Maturation Sequence
III. Precursors:

A

a. Myeloblast
b. Promyelocytes
c. Myelocytes
d. Metamyelocytes
e. Eosinophilic band

170
Q

o Not fully characterized

A

A. Eosinophilic myeloblasts

171
Q

o Cytochemical identification only

o PRIMARY GRANULE: Charcot-Leyden crystal protein

A

B. Promyelocytes

172
Q

o Similar to neutrophil myelocytes

o Large, pale, reddish-orange SECONDARY GRANULES

A

Myelocytes

173
Q

o Resemble their neutrophil counterpart
o Formation of SECRETORY GRANULE/ VESICLE
o Two other organelles are also present: Lipid bodies and Small lysosomal granules

A

Metamyelocytes & Band Forms

174
Q

Formed during the promyelocyte stage

A

Primary Granules

175
Q

Contain:

• Charcot-Leyden crystals

A

Primary Granules

176
Q

Formed throughout remaining maturation stages

A

Secondary (Specific) Granules

177
Q 
Contain:
  • Major basic protein (core)
 • Eosinophil cationic protein (matrix) 
• Eosinophil- derived neurotoxin (matrix) 
• Eosinophil peroxidase (matrix)  
• Lysozyme (matrix) 
• Catalase (core and matrix)
 • β-Glucuronidase (core and matrix)
 • Cathepsin D (core and matrix)
 • Interleukins 2,4, and 5 (core)
 • Interleukin- 6 (matrix)
  • Granulocyte- and Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (core)
 • Others
A

Secondary (Specific) Granules

178
Q
  • Acid phosphatase
    • Arylsulfatase B
    • Catalase
  • Cytochrome b558
  • Elastase
  • Eosinophil cationic protein
A

Small Lysosomal Granules

179
Q
  • Cyclooxygenase
  • 5-Lipoxygenase
  • 15-Lipoxygenase
  • Leukotriene C4 synthase
    • Eosinophil peroxidase
    • Esterase
A

Lipid Bodies

180
Q

Carry proteins from secondary granules to be released into the extracellular medium

A

Storage Vesicles

181
Q

can also be classified as larger or smaller granules

A

Eosinophil specific granules

182
Q

MAJOR BASIC PROTEIN, Acid hydrolase, Peroxidase, Phospholipase, Cathepsin, Eosinophil cationic protein, Eosinophil-derived neurotoxin

A

Larger granules

183
Q

Arylsulfatase, Peroxidase, Acid phosphatase

A

Smaller granules

184
Q

Eosinophils have bilobed nucleus measuring around (?) microns.

A

9-15

185
Q

They possess refractile, orange-red granules and are involved in allergic and parasitic infections.

A

Eosinophils

186
Q

Eosinophils
- Normal values:

o Relative value:
o Absolute value:

A

o Relative value: 1-3% of WBC in peripheral blood

o Absolute value: 0-0.3 x 109/ L

187
Q

Production of eosinophil from last myelocyte division:

A

3.5 days

188
Q

Eosinophil kinetics:

o Turnover of eosinophils:
o Large storage pool:
o Half-life in circulation:
o Survival in tissues:

A

o Turnover of eosinophils: 2.2 x 108 cells/ kg
o Large storage pool: 9-14 x 108 cells/ kg
o Half-life in circulation: 18 hours
o Survival in tissues: 2-5 days (columnar epithelial cells of the respiratory, genitourinary, and gastrointestinal tracts)

189
Q

Eosinophil Function:

a. Eosinophil degranulation

A

i. Classical exocytosis
ii. Compound exocytosis
iii. Piecemeal degranulation

190
Q

▪ Granules move to plasma membrane → Fuse with cell membrane → Emptying of contents to extracellular fluid (ECF)

A

Classical exocytosis

191
Q

▪ Granules fuse together within eosinophils → Fuses with cell membrane → Emptying to ECF

A

Compound exocytosis

192
Q

▪ Secretory vesicles remove specific CHONs from 20 granules → Secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane → Emptying to ECF

A

Piecemeal degranulation

193
Q

Eosinophils delete double-positive thymocytes, act as antigen-presenting cells,
promote proliferation of effector T cells, initiate Type 1 or Type 2 immune response and regulate mast cells

A

Regulation of immune responses

194
Q

can trigger mast cell degranulation

A

▪ Major basic protein & other cytokines

195
Q

is needed for mast cell survival

A

▪ Nerve growth factor

196
Q

In the peripheral blood, eosinophil concentration correlates with severity of
disease.

A

Hallmark of allergic disorders

197
Q

They secrete HISTAMINASE, IL-5 that function for airway inflammation and mucosal cell damage, and eosinophil-derived fibrogenic growth factors that function for airway remodeling

A

eosinophil concentration

198
Q

Maturation Sequence Basophil Development

A 
I. Pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell  
II. Progenitors
a. CFU-GEMM (CMP)  
b. CFU-Baso
III. Immature basophil  
IV. Mature basophil
199
Q

Formed throughout remaining maturation stages

A

Secondary (Specific) Granules

200
Q

Secondary (Specific) Granules contain

A
  • Histamine
  • Platelet-activating factor
  • Leukotriene C4
  • Interleukin-4
  • Interleukin-13
  • Vascular endothelial growth factor A
  • Vascular endothelial growth factor B
  • Chondroitin sulfates (e.g. Heparin)
201
Q

possess unsegmented or bilobed nucleus with condensed chromatin.

A

Basophils

202
Q

The (?) almost obscure the nuclear material of the cell.

A

blue-black water-soluble granules

203
Q

Basophils are further characterized by:

A

Normal values
Basophil kinetics
Basophil functions

204
Q
  • Normal values
    Relative value:
    Absolute value:
A

0-2%

0-0.2 x 109/ L

205
Q
  • Basophil kinetics:
A

Poorly understood

Life span of 60 hours

206
Q
  • Basophil functions
A

(ALLERGIC OR HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION)

207
Q

Basophils possess (?). They regulate Th2 response (IL-4 & IL ), induce B cells to synthesize IgE, mediate allergic processes (production of HISTAMINE, Granzymes B, retinoic acid) and promote angiogenesis (Vascular endothelial growth factor production)

A

surface IgE receptors

208
Q

are erroneously called tissue basophils.

A

Mast cells

209
Q

They are not true leukocytes; they are cells from the BM that uses blood as transit system to gain access to tissues where they mature.

A

Mast cells

210
Q

They function as effector cells in allergic reactions by stimulating IgE receptors and inflammatory reactions by an IgE receptor-independent process.

A

Mast cells

211
Q

They can also act as antigen presenting cells that induce Th2 differentiation.

A

Mast cells

212
Q

They are known for their anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive functions

A

Mast cells

213
Q

MONOPOIESIS Maturation sequence (Table 2-2):

A 
I. Pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell  
II. Progenitors:  
a. CFU-GEMM (CMP)  
b. CFU-GM  
c. CFU-M  
III. Precursors:  
a. Monoblasts  
b. Promonocyte  
IV. Monocyte  
V. Tissue spaces: Macrophage
214
Q 
Size  (um): 12-20
N:C  ratio: 4:1 to 3:1
Nucleus Shape: Round to  oval
Chromatin:  Delicate
Nucleoli: 1-2
Cytoplasm Staining: Basophilic
Cytoplasm Granules: No Granules
Cellular Activity
Carries out 2  mitotic divisions  in 60 hours to  produce 8 monocytes
Can carry out 4  mitotic divisions  in 60 hours  under  increased  demand
A

MONOBLAST

215
Q

Size (um): 12-18
N:C ratio: 3:1 to 2:1
Nucleus Shape: Slightly indented or folded
Chromatin: Delicate
Nucleoli: > 1
Cytoplasm Staining: Blue-gray
Cytoplasm Granules: Formation of AZUROPHILIC GRANULES
Cellular Activity
Carries out 2 mitotic divisions in 60 hours to produce 8 monocytes
Can carry out 4 mitotic divisions in 60 hours under increased demand

A

PROMONOCYTE

216
Q

LARGEST CELL IN PERIPHERAL BLOOD

A

MONOCYTE

217
Q

Size (um): 15-20
N:C ratio: 2:1 to 1:1
Nucleus Shape: Oval or round KIDNEY/ HORSE-SHOE May be folded, showing brain-like convolutions
Chromatin: Looser (Lace-like/ Stringy
Nucleoli: NONE
Cytoplasm Staining: Blue-gray
Cytoplasm Granules: Many fine azurophilic granules having GROUNDGLASS APPEARANCE (frosted)
Cellular Activity
Enter tissues and mature to macrophages

A

MONOCYTE

Hematology 1 [LEC] (25 decks)

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