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CAA Module 11 > Module 11.5 Avionic systems > Flashcards

Module 11.5 Avionic systems Flashcards

1
Q

If an aircraft is IFR certified, what must be different about the captain and FO’s instrument systems?

A

Systems fed separately

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2
Q

Where is the PFD found in a glass cockpit?

A

On the outboard side

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3
Q

How many screens are on a basic EFIS system?

A

6

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4
Q

What are the basic T arrangement instruments and their relative position?

A

ASI ADI ALT
TBI HSI VSI

ASI, ADI, ALT and HSI are the basic T instruments

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5
Q

EADI can also be referred to as?

A

Primary Flight Display (PFD)

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6
Q

EHSI can also be referred to as?

A

Navigation Display (ND)

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7
Q

What is 1 atm in hPa? and in inHg?

A

1 Atm - 1013.25 hPa
1 Atm - 29.92 inHg

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8
Q

What instruments use pressure to display readings?

A

ALT, ASI and VSI

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9
Q

How many degrees does the temp decrease per 1000ft?

A

Decrease 2℃ per 1000ft

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10
Q

What is the standard temp at sea level?

A

15℃

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11
Q

What pressure do altimeters use to display altitude?

A

Static pressure

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12
Q

What is the pressure at 18,000ft, 36,000ft and 54,000ft compared to sea level?

A

18 - 50%
36 - 25%
54 - 12.5%

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13
Q

Are altimeters more or less accurate/sensitive at low altitudes?

A

Less accurate/sensitive

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14
Q

what is used at low altitudes to give an altitude readings?

A

Radio altimeter

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15
Q

What does the transducer do in the radio altimeter?

A

Analogue to digital conversion

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16
Q

What happens to the aneroid capsule/bellows as altitude increases?

A

It expands, this is mechanically linked to the pointer

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17
Q

Why are the bellows corrugated?

A

Greater surface leading to higher sensitivity

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18
Q

Where is the static pressure fed to in an altimeter?

A

The case

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19
Q

Large aircraft don’t have bellows what is used instead?

A

Air Data Computer (ADC)

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20
Q

Why does the barometric attitude need changing?

A

As there is differences in local pressure

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21
Q

In cruise what should Q code be changed to?

A

Changed from QNH/QFE to QNE at cruise which is the ISO standard

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22
Q

What is being fed into the ASI?

A

The pitot pressure and static pressure

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23
Q

What is the pitot probe connected to in an ASI?

A

Bellows/aneroid capsule

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24
Q

Where is the static pressure fed to in an ASI?

A

The case

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25
Q

What do the green, white and yellow band signify on the ASI?

A

Green - normal operating range
White - Speed range with full flaps
Yellow - Caution range, only done in smooth air

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26
Q

What does the airspeed limit depend on?

A
  • Velocity Max Operating speed (VMO)
  • Max Mach Operating speed (MMO)
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27
Q

How dos a VSI work?

A

Static pressure supplied into the case and the calibrated metering unit. Utilises differential pressure

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28
Q

What is the problem with a VSI?

A

There is a lag

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29
Q

what is a mach meter?

A

A dial that displays speed as a ratio of true airspeed and local speed of sound

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30
Q

What is another name for SAT and what is SAT?

A

Outside Air Temp (OAT)

Static Air Temp (SAT) is the temperature of undisturbed air

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31
Q

Where is the only place where TAT and SAT are the same?

A

When the aircraft is on the ground

TAT is usually higher

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32
Q

Where would TAT and SAT be displayed?

A

ECAM

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33
Q

What instruments require pitot and/or static pressure?

A

ALT - Static
ASI - Pitot and static
VSI - Static

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34
Q

Where are Static ports located?

A

Out of relative airflow, in an area of smooth airflow to get undisturbed readings

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35
Q

What is the difference between the measured and real static pressure called?

A

Static Source Error (SSE)

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36
Q

What causes SSE?

A

SSE is caused by:
- Shape of aircraft
- Speed
- What config aircraft is in i.e. flaps full gear down for landing

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37
Q

How is SSE rectified?

A

With an ADC

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38
Q

When would static ports be covered?

A

When cleaning or painting the aircraft

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39
Q

What is the combined ADC and IRU called?

A

Air Date Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU)

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40
Q

What effect does side slip have on the static pressure?

A

The port on the side of the slip will have a higher reading than usual

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41
Q

How are the static ports connected to give an average reading during a side slip situation?

A

Via a cross porting tube, the right and left port are connected using this

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42
Q

What does the baffle prevent in the pitot probe?

A

Contaminant ingress

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43
Q

What are some additional feature of a pitot probe?

A
  • Drain hole at the lowest point
  • Heater to prevent ice build up
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44
Q

What does the alternate static selector valve do?

A

Allows the captain to use the FO’s system for the instruments in the event of failure.

Also used on small aircraft with IFR certification

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45
Q

Aircraft that fly at higher speeds and altitudes require what extra instruments?

A
  • True airspeed
  • Mach meter
  • Air temp indicator
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46
Q

Any data sent to ECAM is sent via what?

A

Air Radio INCorporated 429 (ARINC429)

like a data bus

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47
Q

Some aircraft have a 3rd ADC what is the purpose of this?

A
  • Redundancy
  • If there are reading discrepancies then the 3rd computer will help to decide the true reading by comparing its reading with the other 2
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48
Q

What is hot standby?

A

Hot standby is when a part is ready-to-use auto online if needed

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49
Q

What do Air Data Modules do?

A

Convert Analogue to digital then send along ARINC429

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50
Q

Why is the air data module located near to the static port?

A

To save weight

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51
Q

What does the DMC do?

A

Display Management Computer takes data from ARIN429 and converts it into graphics

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52
Q

When would a leak test be performed?

A

After the system has been disturbed

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53
Q

When is the Q-code changed?

A

At the transition level

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54
Q

What does encoding altimeter do?

A

Sends a digital code to the aircraft ATC transponder. It replies to the ATC radar with altitude data
- Gives the ATC info on who the aircraft is (Squawk) and how high

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55
Q

What principle does a servo altimeter work off?

A

Induction pick off
- E and I bar

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56
Q

What is another example of the E and I?

A

Linear Variable Differential Transducer

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57
Q

Calibrated Metering Unit is also called?

A

Capillary tube

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58
Q

What is added to a VSI to alleviate lag?

A

Dashpot - Weight between two springs

Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator

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59
Q

How long does it take a gyro to run down?

A

Up to 20 mins

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60
Q

ADI’s utilise what type of gyro?

A

Vertical axis gyros

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61
Q

What does vertical and horizontal refer to in vertical and horizontal gyros?

A

The axis about which the mass rotates

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62
Q

HSI’s use what type of gyro?

A

Horizontal/driectional gyro

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63
Q

What would a rate gyro be used for?

A

Rate of turn indicator

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64
Q

How many laser ring gyros are required on an aircraft?

A

3 are needed:
- Roll
- Pitch
- Yaw

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65
Q

What is the standby gyro powered by?

A

The battery

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66
Q

What 3 things affect the rigidity of a gyro?

A
  • The mass
  • The rotation speed
  • The distance between axis and the mass
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67
Q

What factor is used to improve rigidity on an aircraft?

A

The speed of rotation

20,000 to 24,000rpm

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68
Q

Gyros have how many gimbals to give an indication of the aircraft attitude?

A

One or two

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69
Q

What dictates the degrees of freedom in a gyro?

A

The number of gimbals

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70
Q

What gyros are needed on aircraft?

A

Earth tied gyros

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71
Q

How many degrees of freedom does a rate gyro have?

A

1

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72
Q

A rate gyro will have how many degrees of freedom when held by springs?

A

1.5

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73
Q

What is a tied gyro?

A

Gyro about a fixed axis

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74
Q

What is rigidity?

A

The gyros ability to maintain its axis

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75
Q

Gyro precession depends on what?

A
  • Axis the force is applied too
  • Direction of spin

Precession is felt 90° to the force and in the same direction as the spin

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76
Q

What may sticks be equipped with as a method of stall warning prevention/warning?

A
  • Stick pushers
  • Stick shakers
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77
Q

What type of gyro is a laser ring gyro?

A

Rate gyro

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78
Q

How many gyros are in an ADIRU and why?

A

3, one for each axis

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79
Q

What is gyro wander?

A

Deviation from the fixed axis, it is called drift or topple depending on the axis

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80
Q

What is gyro wander caused by?

A

Imbalances, can be from wear and tear

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81
Q

What are the 3 methods of correcting wander?

A
  • Pendulous vanes
  • Rotating balls
  • Electrolytic switches
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82
Q

What are the advantages of laser ring gyros?

A
  • Less maintenance
  • No moving parts
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83
Q

How does a laser ring gyro work?

A

Difference in time of arrival at detectors. Proportional to the aircraft movement

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84
Q

The IRS has how many RLG and accelerometers and where is it located?

A
  • 3 RLG
  • 3 accelerometers
  • Located on the longitudinal axis
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85
Q

What will disturb the back up compass on the aircraft?

A

Magnetic fields

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86
Q

What is given on the HSI?

A
  • Heading
  • Glidescope
  • Localiser
  • Weather
  • To from indicator
  • Course selector point
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87
Q

How are turn and slip indicators powered?

A

28v dc

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88
Q

What does a turn and slip indicator not show?

A

Pitch

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89
Q

How do you know you are in a co-ordinated turn?

A

The slip indicator will remain in the centre position

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90
Q

Standby compasses are known as what?

A

E2B

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91
Q

What does the lubber line show?

A

Heading of the longitudinal axis

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92
Q

What are the two types of heading?

A

True and magnetic

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93
Q

What is variation?

A

The difference between the true and magnetic compass readings

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94
Q

How do you remember deviation and variation?

A

Cadburys - Compass
Dairy - Deviation
Milk - Magnetic
Very - Variation
Tasty - True

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95
Q

All compasses point to what?

A

Magnetic north

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96
Q

What occurs to the magnets as their position WRT magnetic north changes?

A

Inclination, they become redundant at a certain angle

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97
Q

Where will the flux detectors be found?

A

Wing tips or vertical fin

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98
Q

How must all magnetic direction indicators be installed?

A

In a way that their accuracy is not affected excessively by the aircrafts magnetic field and vibration

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99
Q

What can be said about hard iron magnetism?

A

Permanent form of magnet
- Hard to de-mag
- Easy to mag

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100
Q

what can be said about soft iron magnetism?

A

Temporary magnetism

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101
Q

What does a direct reading compass contain?

A

All parts necessary to read magnetic heading

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102
Q

Why is the direct reading compass filled with fluid?

A

to dampen the compass scale movements

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103
Q

what is the purpose of the expansion unit on a direct reading compass?

A

Compensates for fluid expansion by temp changes

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104
Q

Where is the direct reading compass located and why?

A

visible from each pilot seat

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105
Q

When does a direct reading compass read perfectly?

A
  • Level flight
  • Constant speed
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106
Q

What is the purpose of a compass deviation card?

A

For pilots to make adjustments in-flight

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107
Q

The cable for the light in the compass is what to stop magnetic interference?

A

Twisted and screened

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108
Q

What eliminates the problems with direct reading compass?

A

Directional gyro

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109
Q

What is the main component of a remote compass?

A

Flux valve located at wing tips or vertical stab

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110
Q

Where will a compass swing test be performed?

A

Designated compass swing base

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111
Q

What is the flux valve connected to?

A

Remote compass

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112
Q

What compensates for SSE?

A

The ADC

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113
Q

When will a stall waring go off?

A

Before a stall

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114
Q

Is alpha max constant?

A

No it varies

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115
Q

Where must the stall warning operate?

A

At least 5kts or 5% above the stall speed

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116
Q

AoA info is taken from what?

A

AoA vane

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117
Q

What are the warnings of a stall given to the pilots?

A

Audible and visual

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118
Q

What is flight data shown on in a glass cockpit?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)

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119
Q

How are Multi Functional Displays (MFD) controlled?

A

By two (3rd for the engineer) Multi Function Keypads (MFK) one for each pilot

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120
Q

How may warning info be displayed?

A

In order of priority, warning over a caution

121
Q

How is the brightness of the EFIS controlled?

A

Brightness control knob on the outboard side

122
Q

Where are the display management computers located?

A

In the avionics bay

123
Q

What are the benefits to EFIS?

A

All data represented in a user friendly and precise manner

124
Q

What does a basic EFIS require?

A
  • Symbol generators
  • Displays to show data
  • Computer to process info
  • Sensors
125
Q

What is the function of the comparator unit?

A

Compares info from the Captains and the FO’s sensors

126
Q

What does the PFD show?

A
  • Airspeed
  • Heading
  • Attitude
  • Altitude
  • Vertical speed
  • Radio altitude
  • Flight mode annunciation
  • Flight guidance cues
127
Q

What does the ND show?

A
  • VOR mode
  • Approach mode
  • Map mode
  • Plan mode
128
Q

What would a warning display show?

A
  • EICAS/ECAM
  • Communication messages
  • Memos
  • Warnings
  • Cautions
  • Advisories
129
Q

What are the two types of map display?

A

Rose and arc

130
Q

On what display is the FMC info shown?

A

The EHSI

131
Q

When will the FLT DIR be used?

A

Flying manually

132
Q

If there are not issues with autopilot, what will the autopilot/autoland status be?

A

Land 3 - Fail operational mode

133
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

134
Q

When is weather data present on the screen?

A

When in expanded VOR or ILS modes

135
Q

How can an EFIS self test be conducted?

A

Test switch, Central Maintenance Computer (CMC) or Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF)

136
Q

When can an EFIS self test be conducted?

A

When there is weight on the wheels

137
Q

The colours bars in EFIS test mode are presented during what mode?

A

PLAN on the raster presentations

138
Q

In what order are cautions and warnings shown?

A

Warnings over cautions, then chronologically

139
Q

What does each colour represent?

A

Red - Warning
Amber - Caution
Cyan - Advisory
White - Status
Green - Normal system status
Magenta - Info

140
Q

What does green light mean in the landing gear system?

A

Down and locked

141
Q

What is the purpose of auto-pilot?

A

Reduce pilots workload

142
Q

How many methods of autopilot disengagement must be available to the crew?

A

2 or more

143
Q

What is the Flight Director System (FDS)?

A

Guidance aid to the pilot during manual flight

144
Q

What does the auto trim system do?

A

Maintains pitch stability during all phases of flight by changing the THS angle

145
Q

The yaw damper will deflect in what direction to counteract dutch roll?

A

Opposite

146
Q

What does flight envelope protection do?

A

Prevents abnormal flight conditions

147
Q

What are the engines controlled by in auto throttle?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)

148
Q

How quick is a correction control inputted after a disturbance?

A

50ms

149
Q

What are the servos for ailerons?

A

Lateral Control Circuit Actuators (LCCA)

150
Q

How is feedback from the actuators sent?

A

Via electrical signals

151
Q

Full flight profile auto pilot requires sensors for what?

A
  • Attitude
  • Rate info
  • Later movement
  • Heading
  • Speed and height
  • Radio coupling
152
Q

What is a duplex auto pilot system?

A

2 channels for each movement

153
Q

What is the redundancy in duplex?

A

Signals are duplicated

154
Q

What is the redundancy in triplex?

A

Signals are tripled and then votes are conducted if there is a discrepancy

155
Q

Why are closed loop systems used on aircraft?

A

As they provide feedback

156
Q

What does the outer loop of the autopilot system do?

A

Gives signals to the inner loop and is controlled by the autopilot or pilot controls

157
Q

What does the inner loop do?

A

Controls the actuators

158
Q

How does the autopilot know the position of the control surface?

A

Feedback due to the closed loop system

159
Q

What does altitude hold mode utilise?

A
  • Aneroid capsules
  • E and I transducer
160
Q

How do you know an aircraft is not properly trimmed?

A

Lots of input from pilot is required

161
Q

What happens when autopilot is disengaged?

A
  • Visual warning light
  • Aural warning
162
Q

What are the two types of auto-throttle?

A
  • Autothrottle
  • Autothrust
163
Q

What auto throttle mode uses the FADEC and what one moves the levers?

A
  • Auto throttle moves the lever
  • Auto thrust uses FADEC
164
Q

When can auto throttle modes be used?

A

All flight phases

165
Q

What does fail operational mean?

A

One failure can occur but leaves the whole system still functioning

166
Q

What is radio telephony?

A

Exchange of info using radio waves

167
Q

What is the name for when you have an audible frequency and convert it to a carrier frequency?

A

Modulation

168
Q

When would HF frequency be sued?

A

Long distance transmissions

169
Q

When would VHF be used?

A

Short range comms

170
Q

What is the frequency and the wavelength for:
- HF?
- VHF?

A
  • HF 3 - 30 MHz 10m - 100m
  • VHF 30 - 300 MHz 1m - 10m
171
Q

What is the spacing between comms channels?

A

8.33KHz

172
Q

What frequency are comms and what are nav?

A
  • Comms 118 - 137 MHz
  • Nav 108 - 118 MHz
173
Q

What affects the HF transmissions?

A
  • Time of day
  • Ionosphere
174
Q

What are the two types of radio equipment?

A

Transmitting and receiving

175
Q

What does the length of the Ariel depend on?

A

The wavelength, typically 1/4 λ

176
Q

What antennas may be fitted in the radome?

A
  • Weather radar
  • Glidescope capture
  • Localiser track
177
Q

Where would the SATCOM Ariel be located?

A

Vertical fin

178
Q

What are the types of modulation?

A
  • Frequency (FM)
  • Amplitude (AM)
179
Q

What is the ELT frequency?

A

121.5 MHz

180
Q

What is the cabin inter phone used for?

A

For the flight crew and cabin crew to talk to each other

181
Q

What is the service inter phone used for?

A

To allow the flight crew and ground staff to talk, located at maintenance points

182
Q

What is SELCAL?

A

Private transmission sent to people that share the code

183
Q

When can the flight inter phone be used?

A

Weight on wheels

184
Q

What does ACARS stand for?

A

Aircraft Communications, Addressing and Reporting System

185
Q

What is VHF used for?

A

Data and voice transmission over short distance

186
Q

What affects the distance between VHF comms?

A

The altitude of the aircraft

187
Q

What are the 3 VHF radios used onboard?

A
  • One for the captain
  • One for the first officer
  • ACARS
188
Q

How many frequencies can be selected at once?

A

2 one is active and the other is standby. Changed by pressing the transfer button

189
Q

What does ACARS do?

A

Receives and transmits messages to company ops

190
Q

What is the purpose of the electrical tuning unit in HF?

A

Changes the operating length of the antenna

191
Q

Where is the HF Ariel located?

A

Vertical stabiliser

192
Q

What are some safety precautions for HF?

A
  • No one in the vicinity when operating
  • Don’t operate during refuel/defuel
  • Don’t operate in the hangar
  • Couplers are pressurised
193
Q

What has HF widely been replaced by?

A

SATCOM

194
Q

What is a SELCAL code?

A

4 letters made up of letters of A thru to M excluding I

195
Q

How is the pilot alerted of a message on the SELCAL?

A
  • Audible chime
  • Visual light
196
Q

How many HF systems are fitted to long haul and short haul aircraft?

A
  • 2 for long haul
  • 1 for short haul
197
Q

Do pilots have to continuously monitor SELCAL?

A

No

198
Q

What does SELCAL use?

A
  • VHF
  • HF predominantly
199
Q

What does each letter in SELCAL represent?

A

A chime of 300 - 1000 Hz

200
Q

What can SATCOM be used for?

A

Data and voice transmission

201
Q

What is done to SATCOM signals before transmission?

A

Encrypted

202
Q

What does SatCom allow?

A
  • Passenger calls, emails and internet
  • Pilot contact to ATC
  • Real time weather
  • Most fuel efficient route
  • Position and maintenance status to staff
203
Q

What orbit do International Maritime Satellites have?

A

Geostationary

204
Q

How many Ground Earth Stations (GES) can an AIRcraft Earth Station (AES) be logged into at once?

A

One at a time

205
Q

Does a SatCom antenna move? If so by what?

A

Yes, it moves to always point towards the satellite via Beam Steering Unit (BSU)

206
Q

What boosts the signal if the antenna is struggling to lock on to the satellite?

A

High Power Amplifier

207
Q

How does the satellite know where the aircraft is?

A

ADIRU sends positional data

208
Q

What are the 3 components in a SatCom network?

A
  • Satellite
  • GES
  • AES
209
Q

What VHF channel does ACARS use?

A

VHF channel 3

210
Q

Are ACARS transmissions automatic or manual?

A

They are both

211
Q

What are the two main ACARS networks?

A
  • SITA
  • ARINC
212
Q

In flight, what is used for ACARS transmission if VHF is out of range?

A

Satcom

213
Q

How do you know that ACARS is being used?

A

Comms panel will display ‘Data’ or ‘ACARS’

214
Q

What frequency does the Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) transmit at?

A

37.5 KHz

215
Q

Where are Flight Data Recorders (FDR)/ Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVR) found, and what do they look like?

A

They are found behind the rear pressure bulkhead and are orange in colour

216
Q

What does the FDR record?

A

Flight data, lots of different parameters several times a second

217
Q

What do modern CVR’s and FDR’s use to save data?

A

Solid State Drives

218
Q

How many flight hours must the CVR and FDR store?

A

25 flight hours

219
Q

What can the CVR’s and FDR’s withstand?

A
  • 1000℃
  • 3400G
  • 6000m depth underwater
220
Q

When does the FDR and CVR start recording?

A
  • Oil pressure signal
  • Airspeed signal
221
Q

What does the CVR use to record voice?

A

Cockpit area mic

222
Q

What are the 4 channels the CVR records?

A

1 - Cockpit area mic
2 - Captains mic
3 - First officers mic
4 - PA audio

223
Q

How many DC power supplies do FDR’s and CVR’s have?

A

2 supplies

224
Q

What do Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) transmit and at what intervals?

A

Single output that gives info on longitude and latitude

Transmits signal every 50 secs for 24 hours at 406 MHz

225
Q

Where are fixed ELT’s located?

A

Upper aft section of the fuselage

226
Q

When would a portable ELT be used?

A

Removed with a life raft

227
Q

What do ELT’s transmit to?

A

SARSAT

228
Q

What frequency do the portable ELT’s operate on?

A

121.50 MHz and 243 MHz

229
Q

What should the ELT’s be set to for flight?

A

Armed position

230
Q

What tunes the size of the HF antenna?

A

Antenna tuning unit or antenna coupling unit

231
Q

What system does SELCAL use?

A

VHF and HF

232
Q

What does the ELT download when plugged in initially?

A
  • Country of origin
  • Unique ID code
233
Q

What should ELTS’s be set too?

A

Armed position

234
Q

What 3 things must the pilot know in relation to the aircraft position?

A
  • Longitude
  • Latitude
  • Altitude
235
Q

How many satellites must 3D nav be in sight of to give alt, lat and long information?

A

4 satellites

236
Q

How often is the FMC updated?

A

Every 28 days

237
Q

What is the slant range?

A

The slant range is the distance to the DME STN, the hypotenuse

238
Q

If there is no wind what is the track the same as?

A

The heading

239
Q

What do ground based radio beacons give?

A

Relative bearing between aircraft and beacon

240
Q

What is Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) used to determine?

A

ADF used to determine the relative bearing of an aircraft to a ground station

241
Q

What is the relative bearing?

A

Angle between the nose of the aircraft and the ground station

242
Q

What is another name for an ADF beacon?

A

Non-directional beacons

243
Q

What is ADF used for?

A

En-route navigation

244
Q

What is the ADF displayed on?

A

EHSI or ND

245
Q

What type of antenna is an ADF antenna?

A

Combined loop/sense

246
Q

What are the frequencies for ADF’s inputted in to?

A

Control display unit (MCDU)

247
Q

What are the two types of bearings?

A

‘TO’ and ‘FROM’

248
Q

What are some of the VOR frequencies shared with?

A

ILS

249
Q

How is the relative bearing determined from the VOR?

A

Two signals reference and variable. The phase difference is the relative bearing

250
Q

What does the DME give the flight crew?

A

Slant range to and from a DME Non Directional Beacon

251
Q

What is the DME range?

A

0 to 400 nautical miles

252
Q

How is the slant range computed?

A

By the elapsed time interval between the instant of interrogation to the instant of reply

253
Q

If a DME is out of range, what is displayed?

A

4 dashes

254
Q

What are the 3 parts to ILS?

A
  • Marker beacon
  • Localiser
  • Glidescope
255
Q

What is autotuned into, when you tune into the localiser?

A

The glidescope

256
Q

What frequencies are ILS signals found on?

A

108 - 112 MHz

Only on odd tenths i.e. 108.3 MHz

257
Q

If you are on the centreline, what is the amplitude of the AM signals?
- To the left?
- To the right?

A

Centre - Amplitudes are equal
Left - 90 Hz predominates
Right - 150 Hz predominates

258
Q

How does this work for the glideslope?

A

Same principle just in the vertical plane

259
Q

What does one dot on the localiser represent?

A

1°

260
Q

What is the carrier frequency of the marker beacon system?

A

75 MHz

261
Q

What do the marker beacons represent?

A

How far the aircraft is from the runway

262
Q

What colour and frequency of chime is:
- Outer marker?
- Middle marker?
- Inner marker?

A

Outer - blue 400 Hz
Middle - amber 1300 Hz
Inner - white 3000 Hz

263
Q

Do you need to tune the marker beacon system?

A

No you don’t

264
Q

How is the pilot alerted of the marker beacon?

A

Visual and aural

265
Q

What are some primary radar systems?

A
  • Radio alt
  • Weather
  • Primary ATC surveillance
266
Q

What principle do primary radars rely on?

A

Radio wave reflection

267
Q

What principle does secondary radar work off?

A

Interrogation response

268
Q

What are the two components of secondary radar?

A
  • Interrogator
  • Transponder
269
Q

What are the 3 secondary radar modes?

A

Mode a - ident
Mode c - ident + alt
Mode s - ident + additional data

270
Q

What is the mode used for TCAS?

A

Mode s

271
Q

How are radio waves transmitted?

A

Through waveguides

272
Q

What is coaxial used for?

A

Comms transmission

273
Q

What is the basic ATC transponder system often referred to when communicating on R/T?

A

Squawk

274
Q

For the TCAS system to work, what mode transponder is required?

A

Mode S

275
Q

What is the ident in mode S?

A

24 bit address

276
Q

What does TCAS provide?

A
  • Traffic advisories (TA)
  • Resolution Advisories (RA)
  • Vertical manoeuvre displays
  • Aural info to the flight crew
277
Q

What is the difference between TA and RA?

A
  • TA is an alert of traffic
  • RA is a warning and gives avoidance manoeuvres
278
Q

Where may TCAS advisories be shown?

A
  • EHSI/ND
  • VSI
279
Q

What altitude does the radio altimeter display height?

A

2500ft - 0ft

280
Q

Why is a radio altimeter used?

A

As at low altitudes the barometric altimeter is inaccurate at low altitudes

281
Q

How many radio altimeters antennas are there and where are they located?

A

There are 2 and they are on the under side of the fuselage

282
Q

What are the main onboard users of GPS?

A
  • FMS
  • IRS
283
Q

What are the 3 segments of GPS?

A
  • User
  • Satelite
  • Control
284
Q

What are the two main GPS services?

A
  • Precision positioning service
  • Standard positioning service
285
Q

What does the IRS rely on to find speed and distance?

A

Uses 3 accelerometers, one for each axis, then integrates to get the speed and then distance

286
Q

The IRU and ADIRU uses data from the FMC to do what functions?

A
  • Initialise the aircraft position
  • Calibrate the gyros and accelerometers
287
Q

What does the ADIRU do initially?

A
  • Verifies the validity of the entered initial position
  • Compares initial to GPS
288
Q

When would the align reset mode be used?

A

If the aircraft is moved during alignment

289
Q

What does FANS utilise?

A
  • GPS and SATCOM
290
Q

What is CFIT?

A

Controlled Flight Into Terrain

291
Q

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) provides the pilots with visual and audible warning of what?

A

The aircrafts closeness to terrain

292
Q

What may be used to inhibit the GWPS?

A

Flap and/or gear position

293
Q

What is EGPWS?

A

Enhanced GPWS

294
Q

What is the additional mode of EGPWS?

A

Terrain mapping

295
Q

How many modes are there in GPWS?

A

6

296
Q

What does the FMS give?

A
  • Nav
  • Performance
  • Display
  • Guidance
297
Q

What does the FMS calculate?

A
  • Economy speeds
  • Best flight alt
  • Top of descent point
298
Q

What guidance does the FMS give?

A

LNAV and VNAV

CAA Module 11 (22 decks)

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