Mnemonics and Main Memory Items | Airlaw Flashcards
According to South African definition, precision approach categories are:
Cat I decision height and RVR/vis -
Cat II decision height and RVR -
Cat IIIa decision height and RVR -
Cat IIIb decision height and RVR -
Cat IIIc decision height and RVR -
Cat I decision height and RVR - DH not lower than 200ft and vis not less than 800 metres or a RVR of not less than 550m
Cat II decision height and RVR - DH lower than 200ft but not less than 100ft and RVR not less than 350m
Cat IIIa decision height and RVR - DH lower than 100ft or no DH and a RVR of not less than 200m
Cat IIIb decision height and RVR - DH lower than 50 ft or no DH and RVR less than 200m but not less than 50m
Cat IIIc decision height and RVR - No DH or RVR limits
An IR is valid for a period of __ months calculated from—
(a)
the date of issue or reissue; or
(b)
the last day of the month following the date of—
(i)
expiry of the rating if such rating is revalidated within 90 days immediately prior to the date of expiry; or
(ii)
revalidation of such rating if revalidated prior to the period referred to in sub-paragraph(1)
An IR is valid for a period of 12 months calculated from—
(a)
the date of issue or reissue; or
(b)
the last day of the month following the date of—
(i)
expiry of the rating if such rating is revalidated within 90 days immediately prior to the date of expiry; or
(ii)
revalidation of such rating if revalidated prior to the period referred to in sub-p
(1) If the period of validity of an IR has not yet lapsed, or has lapsed for a period of __ months or less, the applicant must pass a revalidation check with a DFE, as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 61.
(2) If the period of validity of the IR has lapsed for more than __ months the applicant must—
(a)
_____ the IR theoretical knowledge examination;
(b)
undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard required for the skills test of an IR; and
(c)
pass the ___ test as stipulated in regulation 61.11.4.
(1) If the period of validity of an IR has not yet lapsed, or has lapsed for a period of 36 months or less, the applicant must pass a revalidation check with a DFE, as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 61.
(2) If the period of validity of the IR has lapsed for more than 36 months the applicant must—
(a)
re-write the IR theoretical knowledge examination;
(b)
undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard required for the skills test of an IR; and
(c)
pass the skills test as stipulated in regulation 61.11.4.
(2) No crew member shall—
(a)
consume any alcohol less than _ hours prior to commencing standby for operational duty or commencing operational duty, which operational duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified reporting time, if applicable;
(b)
commence an operational duty period while the concentration of alcohol in his or her blood, is more than ___ g per ___ ml; or
(c)
consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or incident was not related to his or her duties.
(2) No crew member shall—
(a)
consume any alcohol less than 8 hours prior to commencing standby for operational duty or commencing operational duty, which operational duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified reporting time, if applicable;
(b)
commence an operational duty period while the concentration of alcohol in his or her blood, is more than 0,02 g per 100 ml; or
(c)
consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or incident was not related to his or her duties.
(1) No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft—
(a)
whilst using any psychoactive substance which may affect his or her faculties in any manner that may jeopardise safety;
(b)
within __ hours following scuba diving by such flight crew member;
(c)
within __ hours following blood donation by such flight crew member;
(d)
if the crew member knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from or, having due regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue to such an extent that it may endanger the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; or
(1) No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft—
(a)
whilst using any psychoactive substance which may affect his or her faculties in any manner that may jeopardise safety;
(b)
within 24 hours following scuba diving by such flight crew member;
(c)
within 72 hours following blood donation by such flight crew member;
(d)
if the crew member knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from or, having due regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue to such an extent that it may endanger the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; or
(e)
if the crew member is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his or her assigned duties on board the aircraft.
Recency:
(1) A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, or second-in-command (SIC) of an aircraft required to be crewed by ___ than __ pilot, carrying passengers by day, unless such pilot has personally, within the __ days immediately preceding the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least ___ take-offs and ___ landings in the same class or, if a type rating is required, type or variant of aeroplane, and in the case of a helicopter three circuits including three take-offs and three landings in the same type of helicopter as that in which such flight is to be undertaken. The landings required by this sub-regulation may be completed in an ____ approved for the purpose. In the case of a tail-wheel aeroplane, each landing shall be carried out to a full-stop.
(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers as PIC at night unless he or she holds an __ or has, in the preceding __ days, carried out at least one take-off and landing at night as PF in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class.
(3) Where the take-off and landing requirement referred to in subregulations (1) and (2) have been satisfied in a multi-engine aircraft, the requirement shall be deemed to have been met in respect of single-engine aircraft as well.
(4) A pilot shall not act as PIC or SIC of an aircraft on an instrument approach to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the __ days immediately preceding such approach procedure or procedures established by the Director or an appropriate authority—
(a)
executed at least __ approaches in an aircraft or an FSTD approved for the purpose or a combination of aircraft and FSTD approved for the purpose, either under actual or simulated conditions, with reference to flight instruments only; or
(b)
undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in regulation 61.15 of Part 61 of these regulations.
(1) A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, or second-in-command (SIC) of an aircraft required to be crewed by more than one pilot, carrying passengers by day, unless such pilot has personally, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least three take-offs and three landings in the same class or, if a type rating is required, type or variant of aeroplane, and in the case of a helicopter three circuits including three take-offs and three landings in the same type of helicopter as that in which such flight is to be undertaken. The landings required by this sub-regulation may be completed in an FSTD approved for the purpose. In the case of a tail-wheel aeroplane, each landing shall be carried out to a full-stop.
(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers as PIC at night unless he or she holds an IR or has, in the preceding 90 days, carried out at least one take-off and landing at night as PF in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class.
(3) Where the take-off and landing requirement referred to in subregulations (1) and (2) have been satisfied in a multi-engine aircraft, the requirement shall be deemed to have been met in respect of single-engine aircraft as well.
(4) A pilot shall not act as PIC or SIC of an aircraft on an instrument approach to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding such approach procedure or procedures established by the Director or an appropriate authority—
(a)
executed at least two approaches in an aircraft or an FSTD approved for the purpose or a combination of aircraft and FSTD approved for the purpose, either under actual or simulated conditions, with reference to flight instruments only; or
(b)
undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in regulation 61.15 of Part 61 of these regulations.
Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or with the express permission of the Director, an aircraft shall at night, in IMC or when operated in accordance with IFR, be flown—
(a)
at a height of at least _____ ft above the highest terrain or obstacle where the height of such terrain or obstacle does not exceed _ 000 ft above sea level within _ NM of the aircraft in flight; or
(b)
at a height of at least _ 000 ft above the highest terrain or obstacle located within _ NM of the aircraft in flight where the height of such terrain or obstacle exceeds _ 000 ft above sea level: Provided that within areas determined by the Director the minimum height may be reduced to 1 000 ft above the highest terrain or obstacle located within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight, and the aircraft is flown in accordance with such procedures as the Director may determine.
Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or with the express permission of the Director, an aircraft shall at night, in IMC or when operated in accordance with IFR, be flown—
(a)
at a height of at least 1 000 ft above the highest terrain or obstacle where the height of such terrain or obstacle does not exceed 5 000 ft above sea level within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight; or
(b)
at a height of at least 2 000 ft above the highest terrain or obstacle located within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight where the height of such terrain or obstacle exceeds 5 000 ft above sea level: Provided that within areas determined by the Director the minimum height may be reduced to 1 000 ft above the highest terrain or obstacle located within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight, and the aircraft is flown in accordance with such procedures as the Director may determine.
Final reserve fuel, which shall be the amount of fuel calculated using the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome or the destination aerodrome, when no destination alternate aerodrome is required—
(i)
for a reciprocating engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for __ minutes, under speed and altitude conditions specified by the Director;
(ii)
for a turbine engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for __ minutes at holding speed at _____ ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions;
for a reciprocating engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for __ minutes, under speed and altitude conditions specified by the Director;
(ii)
for a turbine engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions;
(1) Except as provided for in subregulation (3), when operating in IMC and in accordance with IFR, the PIC of an aircraft may commence an approach regardless of the reported RVR or visibility, but the approach shall not be continued beyond the FAF or equivalent published position, or, in the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, unless the reported RVR or visibility for the runway or touch-down area is equal to, or better than, the applicable operating minima.
(2) Where RVR is not available, the PIC may derive an RVR value by converting the reported visibility in accordance with the provisions as prescribed in section 8 of technical standard 91.07.5 of Document SA-CATS 91.
(3) The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if—
(a)
at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or, where there is no FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome;
(b)
the aircraft is on a training flight where a landing is not intended and the appropriate air traffic control unit is informed that a missed approach procedure will be initiated at or above the decision height or minimum descent altitude, as appropriate; or
(c)
the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater than the minimum RVR.
(4) The PIC may continue the approach below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed: Provided that the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.
(5) Where no FAF or equivalent published position exists for a precision approach, the PIC shall decide whether to continue or abandon the approach before descending below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome on the final approach segment.required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.
(5) Where no FAF or equivalent published position exists for a precision approach, the PIC shall decide whether to continue or abandon the approach before descending below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome on the final approach segment.
(1) Except as provided for in subregulation (3), when operating in IMC and in accordance with IFR, the PIC of an aircraft may commence an approach regardless of the reported RVR or visibility, but the approach shall not be continued beyond the FAF or equivalent published position, or, in the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, unless the reported RVR or visibility for the runway or touch-down area is equal to, or better than, the applicable operating minima.
(2) Where RVR is not available, the PIC may derive an RVR value by converting the reported visibility in accordance with the provisions as prescribed in section 8 of technical standard 91.07.5 of Document SA-CATS 91.
(3) The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if—
(a)
at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or, where there is no FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome;
(b)
the aircraft is on a training flight where a landing is not intended and the appropriate air traffic control unit is informed that a missed approach procedure will be initiated at or above the decision height or minimum descent altitude, as appropriate; or
(c)
the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater than the minimum RVR.
(4) The PIC may continue the approach below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed: Provided that the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.
(5) Where no FAF or equivalent published position exists for a precision approach, the PIC shall decide whether to continue or abandon the approach before descending below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome on the final approach segment.
Radio communication failure (RCF) procedures – General
(1)
When an aircraft fails to establish contact with the aeronautical station on the designated frequency, it shall attempt to establish ______ on another ________ appropriate to the ____. If this attempt ____, the aircraft shall attempt to establish communication with other _____ or other aeronautical ______ on frequencies appropriate to the _____. In addition, an aircraft shall ______ the appropriate VHF frequency for calls from nearby aircraft or aeronautical stations.
(2)
If these attempts fail, the aircraft station shall _______ to transmit _______ reports and its _______ as appropriate on the designated frequency or frequencies, ________ by the phrase “_________ ____”. Such messages shall be transmitted _____ and, if necessary, include the addressee(s) for which the message is intended.
(3)
If no communication is received or other indication that one-way communications are possible, the aircraft shall set its transponder to Code ______ and proceed with the lost communications procedures.
(4)
In any case, whereby an aircraft having suffered a communication failure in flight arrives at an aerodrome, it shall keep a watch for such instructions as may be issued by visual signals from the aerodrome control tower or other facility.
Radio communication failure (RCF) procedures – General
(1)
When an aircraft fails to establish contact with the aeronautical station on the designated frequency, it shall attempt to establish contact on another frequency appropriate to the route. If this attempt fails, the aircraft shall attempt to establish communication with other aircraft or other aeronautical stations on frequencies appropriate to the route. In addition, an aircraft shall monitor the appropriate VHF frequency for calls from nearby aircraft or aeronautical stations.
(2)
If these attempts fail, the aircraft station shall continue to transmit position reports and its intentions as appropriate on the designated frequency or frequencies, preceded by the phrase “Transmitting Blind”. Such messages shall be transmitted twice and, if necessary, include the addressee(s) for which the message is intended.
(3)
If no communication is received or other indication that one-way communications are possible, the aircraft shall set its transponder to Code 7600 and proceed with the lost communications procedures.
(4)
In any case, whereby an aircraft having suffered a communication failure in flight arrives at an aerodrome, it shall keep a watch for such instructions as may be issued by visual signals from the aerodrome control tower or other facility.
