Aeroversity Random Mock Exam Flashcards
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
A
NM
B
2.0 NM
C
3.0 NM
D
5.0 NM
C
3.0 NM
In a stream tube, if density is halved, drag will be reduced by a factor of:
A
8
B
4
C
6
D
2
D
2
What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?
A
Surface friction
B
Coriolis force
C
Katabatic force
D
The pressure gradient force
B
Coriolis force
A rapid decrease in altitude and increase in airspeed despite the application of back elevator pressure” the maneuver described is a stall?
A
True
B
False
B
False
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
A
Speed is greater than 98 kt.
B
Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of tyregrooves.
C
Cross wind is greater than 20 kt.
D
Speed is greater than 127 kt.
A
Speed is greater than 98 kt.
Formula for dynamic hydroplaning:
= 9√ tyre pressure in PSI for a rotating tyre
= 7.7√ tyre pressure in PSI for a non-rotating tyre
Occasionally you may get tyre pressure in BARS:
Convert BARS to PSI:
BARS x 14.5 = PSI
During a descent at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) below the tropopause in ISA conditions:
A
Mach number and TAS decrease
B
Mach number decreases and TAS increases
C
Mach number and TAS increase
D
Mach number increases and TAS decreases
A
Mach number and TAS decrease
While executing an instrument approach procedure an aircraft descends into improved weather conditions and the pilot makes and keeps visual contact with the terrain and aerodrome. What are the pilot’s options?
A
None. He should complete the entire procedure
B
If he has already been cleared for the approach, he may orbit at a safe altitude to join the aerodrome circuit
C
He may request a visual approach. If not approved, he should still execute the instrument approach procedure
D
He may break off the approach and maneuver for landing
C
He may request a visual approach. If not approved, he should still execute the instrument approach procedure
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:
A
measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
B
reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
C
reported in TAF and METAR
D
usually better than meteorological visibility
D
usually better than meteorological visibility
Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: a special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
A
VULTAM
B
NAVTAM
C
ASHTAM
D
VOLCAM
C
ASHTAM
An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60. At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?
A
Between FL 120 and FL 60
B
Between FL 120 and FL 180
C
Between FL 60 and FL 20
D
At FL 140
A
Between FL 120 and FL 60
Aerodrome elevation is 2400ft and the pressure altitude is 1960ft. What is the QNH in Mb?
A
29.5 inHg
B
30.5 inHg
C
1027 mb
D
30.5 mb
C
1027 mb
Note:
Mb and Hectopascal is the same
The risk of Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) is greatest during
A
missed approach
B
final approach and landing
C
initial approach and descent
D
take off and initial climb
B
final approach and landing
With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?
A
The geostrophic force decreases near the poles
B
The geostrophic force is non-existent at the equator
C
The geostrophic force varies in direct proportion to the wind speed
D
The pressure gradient force is at a maximum at the poles
A
The geostrophic force decreases near the poles
Maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located in the:
A
polar air above the tropopause
B
tropical air above the tropopause
C
tropical air below the tropopause
D
polar air below the tropopause
C
tropical air below the tropopause
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
A
Attitude indicator
B
Turn coordinator
C
Heading indicator
B
Turn coordinator
