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UPT Study Material Kronk > MM4290 GK > Flashcards

MM4290 GK Flashcards

1
Q

6 reasons aircrew will not assume aircraft control

A
  1. W/O crew rest
  2. W/in 12 hrs of alcohol or impared by effects
  3. Detrimental physical or mental condition
  4. Self Medicating
  5. W/in 72 hrs donating blood, plasma, bone marrow
  6. W/in 24 hours of scuba
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2
Q

Crew rest definition

A

12 Hours rest period prior to FDP. Contains opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep

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3
Q

Flight Duty Period definition

A

Begins when you report for first official duty and ends at engine shutdown

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4
Q

Student Flight Duty Period

A

Students in formal training must complete all flight duities in 12 hours

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5
Q

Night limitations on FDP

A

10 hours

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6
Q

IFR definition

A

Rules governing the conduct of instrument flight, used by pilots and controllers to indicate type of flight plan

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7
Q

IMC definition

A

Weather conditions expressed in terms of visability, distance from clouds, and ceilings less than minima required for VMC

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8
Q

VFR definition

A

Rules governing procedures for conducting flight under VFR

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9
Q

VMC definition

A

Weather conditions better or equal to the required minima for visual flight

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10
Q

Weather Source Priorities (5)

A
  1. Local Weather Squadron
  2. Regional operational Weather Squadron
  3. Other military DOD weather sources
  4. Other US Gov sources
  5. Foreign Military sources
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11
Q

When do you need to file a flightplan?

A

File in accordance with FLIP, GP, MAJCOM guidance. If unable to file on the ground, file when airborne

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12
Q

Who signs the flight plan?

A

PIC

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13
Q

When can a destination be filed?

A

When the WX at the destination +/- 1 hour is above the lowest compatible approach mins not including TEMPO

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14
Q

When is an alternate required?

A

When the WX at the destination +/- 1 hour is below 2000/3SM including TEMPO group.

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15
Q

What disqualifies an alternate?

A
  1. Wx +/- 1 hour is below 1000/2 or 500/1 above lowest compatible approach mins whichever is higher.
  2. All approaches use unmonitored navaids
  3. No WX reporting at the field
  4. A(NA) on all compatible approaches
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16
Q

When do you declare Min/Emer fuel?

A

Declare to the appropriate controlling agency when the acft may land at the intended destination with one of the two fuel states.

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17
Q

What are the fuel requirements when you have to carry an alternate?

A

Fuel required includes an approach and missed approach at the intended destination if vis only WX criteria is used.

If using ceiling and vis WX criteria, fuel in not required.

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18
Q

What is the required fuel reserve?

A

Have enough fuel to increase the total planned flight time by 10% up to 45 min or 20 min whichever is greater?

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19
Q

How is T-6 fuel reserve computed?

A

Max endurance at 10,000 feet MSL

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20
Q

What is the min weather for an IFR departure?

A

Do not depart IF unless the WX at destination are forecast +/- 1 hour to be at or above lowest compatible approach mins

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21
Q

How much should you lead level offs by?

A

10% of your VSI

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22
Q

What is the minimum IFR climb performance an aircraft needs to have? (2)

A

Acft must meet or exceed 200’/NM OR published climb gradient, with all engines running

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23
Q

When are you allowed to begin a turn after takeoff?

A

400’ above the DER unless required earlier by the departure procedure.

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24
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient?

A

3.3% aka 200’/NM

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25
Q

IFR DER crossing restrictions

TERPS

A

0’

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26
Q

IFR DER crossing Restrictions

ICAO/NATO

A

16’

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27
Q

IFR DER crossing restrictions

NAS (Hard >= 6000’)

A

0’

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28
Q

IFR DER crossing restrictions

NAS (<6000’)

A

0-35’

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29
Q

Definition of an ODP (Obstacle Departure Procedure)

A

IFR DEP procedures specifically designed to avoid obstacles.

Look for “obstacle” in title along with “Trouble T”

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30
Q

Definition of a Diverse Departure

A

An IFR DEP that is acceptable as long as no obstacles penetrate the 40:1 plane.

Will not fly if RWY has “T” or ODP

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31
Q

What is the purpose of non-standard IFR takeoff minimums?

A

Provided for pilots to “see and avoid” obstacles when the obstacles penetrate the 40:1 plane w/in 3 SM from DER

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32
Q

When is a min climb gradient published? (non-standard IFR T/O mins)

A

Published when obstacles penetrate the 40:1 beyond the 3 SM from DER

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33
Q

What is a VCOA?

A

Visual climb over airport

VMC maneuver on IFR flight plan and is a climbing turn over the airport until a specified alt is reached

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34
Q

Min WX for VCOA?

A

250’ above visual obstacles

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35
Q

What causes a Reduced T/O Runway Length?

A

Obstacle pens the 40:1 plane by 35’ or less, the instrument procedure may limit TODA to maintain standard 200’/NM

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36
Q

What is a DVA?

A

Diverse vector area

Allows radar vectors in lieu of an ODP, headings and climb gradients are assigned by ATC.

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37
Q

What are “Specific ATC departure instructions?”

A

Includes a heading and alt, not considered vectors, do not apply wind corrections.

Need to make sure instructions comply with ODP

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38
Q

What is a SID?

A

Standard instrument departure

Used at high traffic fields to simplify clearance delivery. Do not fly unless approved by ATC

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39
Q

What are T/O obstacle notes?

A

“Trouble T”

within 3 SM of DER that require >=200’/NM

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40
Q

Definition of a low close in obstacle?

A

Obstacle that requires >200’/NM for very short distance until ACFT is 200’ above DER

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41
Q

When is supplemental O2 requried?

A

Anytime cabin ALT exceeds 10,000’

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42
Q

Right of way Rules?

(6)

A
  1. Acft in distress
  2. converging acft (right has ROW)
  3. Diff Categories
  4. Head on each goes to the right
  5. Overtaken Acft has ROW
  6. Established on final
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43
Q

Right of way based on Acft category

A
  1. Balloons
  2. Gliders
  3. Acft towing or refueling
  4. Airships
  5. All others
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44
Q

Min IFR altitudes on airways?

A

No lower than published min for airway.

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45
Q

Min IFR altitude off airways?

A

No lower than OROCA, ORTCA, or 1000/2000 mountain above within 4NM of planned route.

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46
Q

Aircraft speed restrictions below 10,000ft

A

250KIAS

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47
Q

Aircraft speed restrictions below 2500 AGL w/in 4NM of airport in class C/D?

A

200 KIAS

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48
Q

Speed limit below class B?

A

200 KIAS

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49
Q

Hazard or Severe conditions/ Thunderstorm avoidance rules?

A

Don’t operate in forecast or actual severe conditions

Avoid TS by 10 NM below FL230 and 20 NM above FL230

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50
Q

What are the Wx mins for flying VFR?

A

Do not fly VFR if unable to maintain vis/cloud clearances listed desired airspace classificaion

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51
Q

VFR min hemispheric altitudes

A

Fly VFR hemispheric altitude above 3000’ AGL NEODDSWEVEN+500

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52
Q

Min Alt over non congested area?

A

500 AGL

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53
Q

Min alt over congested area?

A

1000’ above highest obstacle within 2000’

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54
Q

Min alt over a national recreation area?

A

2000’ AGL

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55
Q

When do you use flight following?

A

When available and not a detriment to the mission use VFR flight following to the max extent practical.

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56
Q

What do you do if you are unable to maintain VFR?

(3)

A
  1. Transition to instruments
  2. Get IFR clearance
  3. Land VFR at suitable field
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57
Q

Gotchas with closing VFR flight plan?

A

Not automatically closed when landing, pilot must ensure flight plan is closed.

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58
Q

Flying direct via RNAV capabilities rule

A

Do not file direct to nav fix unless the primary nav equipment on board the acft is certified for the appropriate RNAV capability

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59
Q

RNAV substitute use

A

Suitable RNAV system may be uses to substitute an Out of Service navaid

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60
Q

RNAV alternate use

A

NAV may be use in lieu of conventional operational navaids without monitoring those navaids

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61
Q

Allowed uses for RNAV systems
(4)

A
  1. Acft position and distance to conventional navaids
  2. Nav to and from conventional navaids
  3. hold over conventional navai or DME fix
  4. fly an arc based on DME
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62
Q

RNAV prohibitions (4)

A
  1. Substituting lateral course guidance during final of VOR/TACAN/NDB
  2. Lateral nav on LOC apprch without ref raw LOC data
  3. Nav DMR/DME/IRU sys unless auth by notam
  4. Procedure is “NA”
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63
Q

What is the standard holding pattern?

A

Right turns 2x180* turns

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64
Q

Max holding airspeed MHA to 6,000’

A

200 KIAS

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65
Q

Max holding airspeed 6,001-14,000’

A

230 KIAS

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66
Q

Max holding airspeed 14,001’ to 34,000+

A

265 KAIS

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67
Q

Holding leg length is determined by what?

A

1 min at or below 14,000’ or 1.5 min above 14,000

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68
Q

Holding drift corrections expectations?

A

after entering pattern, pilot is expected to compensate for known winds on outbound to align the inbound leg. (Triple the drift)

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69
Q

How are alternate IFR arrival mins depicted on approach plate?

A

Inverse “A”

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70
Q

Straight in or sidestep WX min

A

For straight in or sidestep WX must meet required VFR vis mins

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71
Q

Circling Wx mins

A

Circling approach the forecast wx must meet prevailing vis+ ceiling

72
Q

Vectors to intercept final approach

A

Acft is vectored to intercept the final approach course at least 3 miles from FAF at max intercept angle 30* (NAS)

73
Q

Altitude & Airspeed prior to approach

A

maintain last assigned alt and airspeed until established on published segment

Approach clearances cancel any previously assigned speed adjustments

74
Q

Declared distances are marked with what?

A

Inverse “D”

75
Q

TORA definition

A

Distance of ground run available for takeoff

76
Q

TODA definition

A

takeoff run and length of remaining runway or clearway beyond the to/o run

77
Q

ASDA definition

A

Rwy + stopway available for aborting a takeoff

78
Q

LDA definiton

A

Rwy length declared suitable for landing an airplane

79
Q

When can you do practice instrument approaches under VFR?

A

When Authorized by OG.

Must maintain cloud clearances, use terminal radar services, make all position reports and recieve ATC approval to fly the missed approach

80
Q

Title of a circling only approach?

A

Name of the approach followed by a single letter.

81
Q

What do you do if the glideslope fails for the current approach?

A

Fly w/o vertical guidance (LOC)

82
Q

What is unestablished on a ILS or LOC?

A

approach must be discontinued if loc course becomes unreliable or anytime full scale CDI occurs on final

83
Q

What is an ILS critical area?

A

Ceiling less than 800’/2 SM acft not authorized in ILS critical area when arriving aircraft is between the ILS FAF and the airfield

84
Q

How do you fly a LOC back course

A

Set the published front course to achieve proper CDI deflection. T-6 does not have BC sensing capes`

85
Q

When can you descend below DH/DA/MDA?

A

Do not descend until sufficient visual ref w/rwy and in position to land.

86
Q

When can you descend below 100’ AGL?

A

Do not descend below 100’ above TDZE using approach lights as sole ref.

87
Q

What is ESA?

A

Provides 1000’ (2000’ mountain) within 100 NM of the facility

88
Q

What is MSA?

A

MSA provides 1000’ obstacle clearance (2000’ mountain) within 25 NM of the airport

89
Q

How is a non precision FAF denoted on an approach plate?

A

Maltase Cross

90
Q

How is a precision FAF denoted on an approach plate?

A

Look for the lightning bolt

91
Q

When is timing required on an approach?

A

When the final approach does not end in a fix, begins when crossing the FAF

92
Q

When is timing for an approach not authorized

A

If timing is not specifically depicted on the IAP then it is NA to ID the MAP

93
Q

What constitutes the runway environment? (7)

A
  1. Rwy or Rwy markings
  2. Rwy end identifier lights
  3. Rwy lights
  4. VGSI
  5. Threshold, markings, lights
  6. Touchdown zone, markings, lights
  7. approach lighting sys
94
Q

What do you need to do if going missed approach prior to the MAP?

A

Fly IAP as published, including alt restrictions to the MAP, no turns prior to the MAP

95
Q

What runway do you execute a circling missed approach?

A

Fly the missed approach for the IAP just flown, not to the runway you are circling to

96
Q

How do you fly a circling missed approach?

A

Climbing turn toward the runway in protected airspace, continue turn until established on missed approach course.

97
Q

What happens if the ALS is inop?

A

Most instructions depicted in the remarks of the IAP. Usually drives higher approach minimums

98
Q

What is a CDFA?

A

Constant descent final approach using published VDA to calculate the VVI to fly.

99
Q

What is industry practice DDA?

A

Use MDS specific guidance or MDA+50’

100
Q

When is the latest that you can report having your landing gear down?

A

When crossing the threshold

101
Q

Rules regarding LAHSO?

A

Crews will only passively accept LASHO?

102
Q

What is the definition of OROCA?

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance provides 1000’ (2000’) above the highest obstruction

103
Q

What is MEA Definition?

A

Lowest published alt that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, and meets obstacle clearance requirements

104
Q

What is MRA Definition?

A

Min reception alt that nav signal can be received for the route, as well as off route navaids used to determine fixes.

105
Q

What is MOCA definition?

A

Min obstruction clearance alt published between fixes that provides 1000’ obstruction clearance and acceptable nav reception out to 22NM.

106
Q

What is MCA definition?

A

Min crossing alt, when proceeding to higher min enroute alt.

107
Q

What is MVA defintion?

A

Min vectoring alt used by ATC when vectoring aircraft. May be lower than MEA or MOCAs

108
Q

Where is RVSM airspace?

A

FL290-410 inclusive

109
Q

What is RVSM

A

Reduced Vertical Separation of Aircraft from 2000’ to 1000’

110
Q

Definition of Prohibited Area?

A

Place where the flight of acft is prohibited due to national security blah blah

111
Q

Definition of Restricted Area?

A

Areas where operations are hazardous to non participating aircraft, flight is not prohibited but is subject to restrictions

112
Q

Definition of Warning Area?

A

Similar to restricted areas, US GOV doesn’t have sole jurisdiction over area. 12NM outward of US coast.

113
Q

Definition of MOA?

A

Mil operating area, separates mil activities from IFR traffic.

114
Q

Definition of Alert Area?

A

High volume of flight training or unusual aerial activity

115
Q

MTR definition?

A

Used for tactical flying usually below 10,000’ in excess of 250KIAS

116
Q

3 Types of MTRs?

A

SR, VR, IR

117
Q

TFR definition?

A

In effect when traffic in airspace would endanger or hamper air or ground activities in designate area

118
Q

Localizer usable range?

A

Within 10* 18 NM, all other angles 10 NM

119
Q

Glide slope usable range?

A

10 NM 1.4* thick

120
Q

What does an OM id?

A

4-7NM from the airport indicate if Acft is at appropriate altitude if on a localizer glideslope intercept

121
Q

What does a MM id?

A

3500’ from landing threshold 200’ above TDZE

122
Q

What does IM id?

A

Landing threshold

123
Q

When should you use landing flaps?

A

Full stop landings when heavy weight flaps up landing distance >= 80% of field length

124
Q

How low can you go in a low approach?

A

Aircrew will not allow the aircraft to touchdown when cleared a low approach

125
Q

How low can you go in a restricted low approach?

A

Aircrew will not descend below 500’ AGL or ATC specified altitude

126
Q

What are the high surface wind restrictions?

A

Will not fly over land withing training or operating area with real/forecast steady state wind >35kts

127
Q

What are the high swell restrictions?

A

OG approval for swells over 10 feet

128
Q

When can you fly an RNAV approach in the T-6?

A

Day VMC

129
Q

What is the rule regarding GPS database currency?

A

Aircrews will not use GPS as a form of primary nav with an expired database.

130
Q

Rule for FDE and GPS?

A

Loss of FDE is an unacceptable degradation of system performance

131
Q

SID/STAR RNAV rule

A

dont fly them

132
Q

Max aircraft in pattern at NTA?

A

4

133
Q

NTA overhead vs rectangular pattern?

A

Do not fly overhead pattern w/ civilian traffic in pattern

134
Q

Max speed at an NTA?

A

maintain 200 KIAS or less for pattern/approach ops within 1500’/3NM of NTA

135
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

> 15 kts or VVI change >500 FPM

136
Q

What is the distress signal for T-6?

A

Continuous wing rocking.

137
Q

What is a standard formation?

A

1NM and within 100’ of leader

138
Q

What is the squawk for radio failure?

A

7600

139
Q

What are your routing priorities during radio failure? (4)

A
  1. route assigned in the last ATC clearance recieved
  2. If radar vectors, direct to fix specified in vector clearance
  3. In absence of route, expected route in ATC EFC
  4. Filed route
140
Q

What are your altitude priorities for dual radio failure? (3)

A

Maintain the highest of the following,

  1. Alt from last assigned ATC clearance
  2. Min alt of IFR operations
  3. Highest alt or FL ATC advised may be expected
141
Q

Transmission frequency for
1. Vectors to final
2. ASR final
3. PAR final

A
  1. 1 minute
  2. 15 sec
  3. 5 sec
142
Q

What are the 4 types of icing?

A
  1. Clear
  2. rime
  3. mixed
  4. frost
143
Q

Formation responsibilites

Flight lead

A

Nav lead & admin lead, responsible for mission success

144
Q

1

Formation responsibilities

A

Clear for the formation, plan ahead of the a/c, monitor #2, communication, navigation

145
Q

2

Formation responsibilities

A

Do not hit 1,
keep 1 in sight
be in position and on freq
clear for the formation
back up #1

146
Q

Who is responsible for formation collision avoidance?

A

2 unless they are unable to maintain visual, then the visual acft has the responsibility

147
Q

Lost wingman procedures

wings level

A

Lost wingman turns away 15* bank for 15 seconds then resumes heading

148
Q

Lost wingman procedures

outside the turn

A

Lost wingman reverse turn 15* bank for 15 Sec then rolls out straight ahead

149
Q

Lost wingman procedures

inside the turn

A

Lost wingman reduces power to ensure nose tail sep and tells #1 to roll out, 2 maintains turn

150
Q

Lost wingman procedures

Final Approach

A

lost wingman makes bid away from #1 and climbs to FAF altitude while proceeding to MAP for separate clearance

151
Q

Lost wingman procedures

Missed Approach

A

Lost wingman bids away from #1 and flies MAP procedures +500’

152
Q

Wx for a wing takeoff

A

500’/1.5 SM or circle mins whichever is higher
Xwind less than 15 Kts
Dry runway 150’ wide

153
Q

Wx for an interval takeoff

A

1500’/3SM
75’ runway

154
Q

Wx mins for a formation approach (non emergency)

A

500’/1 1/2 SM or published approach mins, whichever is higher

155
Q

Min interval for instrument trail departure

A

20 Sec

156
Q

Airspeed and AOB for instrument trail departure

A

160 KIAs 30*AOB

157
Q

What altitudes do you call out on AUX during instrument trail departure?

A

even altitudes

158
Q

What does 2 squawk until formed up with #1 during Instrument trail departure?

A

0000

159
Q

How much altitude separation does #2 need to maintain until visual with #1 on an Instrument trail departure?

A

1000’

160
Q

Definition of heading crossing angle? (HCA)

A

angular difference between the longitudinal axis of 2 aircraft

161
Q

AA defintions?

A

expressed in degreees off the tail of the reference A/C in multiples of 10

162
Q

LOS definition

A

the apparent motion of the tgt aircraft in your windscreen (fwd, back, or 0)

163
Q

LOS rate

A

the rate of change in the LOS`

164
Q

When do you breakout?

A

HITS
Hazard the formation
Infront of the formation
Told to
SA is lost

165
Q

When do you KIO?`

A

EBUMSWORLD
Emergency/dangerous situation
Boundary
Unbriefed flight enters the area
Min cloud separation
SA is lost
Wx below mins
Overflown bingo or ops limits
Radio failure with wing rock
Line abreast bust or w/in 300’ bubble
Directed to

166
Q

When do you terminate?

A

Bingo is reached
DLO met
Aircraft is out of position and not expected to return
Told to

167
Q

Immediate actions to a KIO or terminate call

A

CCMA
Clear the flightpath
Cease maneuvering
Maintain visual
Acknowledge with callsign

168
Q

What do you do if 1 acft loses sight of the other?

A

The visual aircraft assumes responsibility for deconfliction and tries to talk the other aircraft back on to them.

If lead loses the visual, #2 can rejoin no closer than route

169
Q

What do you do if both aircraft lose sight of each other?

A

directive to get 1000’ separation

170
Q

Reform definition?

A

Changing from one formation position to another formation position

171
Q

Rejoin definition?

A

Changing from non formation to a formation

172
Q

How low can you plan a formation low approach?

A

100’ but in practice we do 300’

173
Q

Fingertip maneuver limits?

A

120 KIAS min 90* 2-3 Gs

174
Q

Route & Echelon maneuver limits?

A

60* AOB

175
Q
A

UPT Study Material Kronk (27 decks)

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