Misc Flashcards

1
Q

3 phases of cardiac ischaemia

A

Electrical phase, circulatory phase, metabolic phase

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2
Q

What is the starting dose for a biphasic defibrillator and what is the maximum dose?

A

Start 2-4J/Kg
Maximum dose 10J/Kg

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3
Q

What 3 parts make up Virchow’s triad?

A

Altered blood flow
Endothelial damage
Hypercoagulability

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4
Q

What is the ratio to diagnose Chylothorax

A

Fluid >3:1 x blood triglycerides
> or equal to 100mg/dL

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5
Q

What troponin value make haemangiosarcoma more like!?

A

Check Chun 0.25ng/ml?

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6
Q

Name endogenous pyrogens involved in pyrexia?

A

Cachectin (TNF-alpha)
Lymphotoxin (TNF-beta)
IL-1alpha
IL-1 beta
Interferon alpha
Interferon beta
Interferon gamma
IL-6
Macrophage inflammatory protein 1 alpha
Macrophage inflammatory protein 1 beta
IL-8

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7
Q

Benefits of high flow nasal O2 as per SACCM 2023

A

Heated and humidified
Inspiratory flows demands
Functional reserve capacity
Lighter
Oxygen
Washout dead space

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8
Q

As per SACCM what are the recommended initial high flow nasal oxygen settings

A

Flow rate = patients minute volume= respiratory rate x tidal volume (10-15ml/kg)
Fi02 = 100%
Temperature= 32-37 degrees Celsius

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9
Q

Name the categorises of necrotising soft tissue infections

A

Type 1- polymicrobial
• mixed anaerobes and aerobes
• usually isolate four or more organisms

Type 2 - monomicrobial
• commonly beta-haemolytic streptococcus

Type 3- gram neg monomicrobials
• clostridia infections
• included marine organisms

Type IV- fungal
• Candida infections

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10
Q

What does snap 4dx plus snap test for?

A

Dirofilaria immitis
Ehrlichia canis
Ehrlichia ewingii
Ehrlichia Chaffeensis
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
Anaplasma platys
Borrelia burgdorferi

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11
Q

What receptor is involved with anaphylaxis?

A

FC epsilon R1

Transmembrane with alpha, beta and gamma subunits

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12
Q

What type of reaction is anaphylaxis?

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involving IgE, mast cells, basophils

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13
Q

What type of reaction is serum sickness?

A

Delayed reaction Type III hypersensitivity reaction

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14
Q

What May cause a high anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

HAGMA
DUEL
D= diabetes
U= uremic
E= ethylene glycol
L= lactate
S= salicylates

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15
Q

What May cause a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

NAGMA

A=Addisons
B= bicarbonate loss (GI or renal)
C= chloride excess
D= Diuretics (acetazolomide)

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16
Q

Anion gap equation

A

(Na+ K)- (bicarbonate + chloride)

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17
Q

What are the 5 phases of AKI?

A

5 phases

Insult
Initiation
Extension
Maintenance
Recovery

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18
Q

Half life of synthetic canabinoids

A

72-96 hours

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19
Q

Name the methods of heat loss

A

Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Evaporation

20
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis?

A

Type I and IgE predominates

21
Q

Name the 3 forms of dyshemoglobin

A

Methemoglobin
Carboxyhemoglobin
Sulfhemoglobin

22
Q

How many sulfhydrl groups do cats have on their red blood cells and when damaged what do you see on cytology

A

8
This is why more likely to have oxidative damage and form Heinz bodies ( a few normal in cats)

23
Q

What is the normal level of methemoglobin in the blood

A

<3%

24
Q

Name three ways paracetamol/acetaminophen is metabolised

A

Glucuronidation (dogs)
Sulfation (cats)
Or
Oxidation by CYP2E1 and CYP1A2 to NAPQI which is toxic

25
Q

What enzyme(s) is thiamine a cofactor for?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Transkeletase

26
Q

What does bradykinin cause and which enzyme breaks it down

A

Causes hypotension

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

27
Q

Hypertension classification and TOD risk

A

Normal <140mmHg
Minimal risk of TOD

Prehypertensive 140-159mmHg
Low risk of TOD

Hypertensive 160-179mmHg
Moderate TOD risk

Severely hypertensive > or equal to 180mmHg
High risk of TOD

28
Q

Which organs are at risk of TOD

A

Eyes
Kidneys
Brain
Heart

29
Q

Define sepsis

A

Life-threatening organ dysfunction cause by dysregulated host response to infection

30
Q

How many plasma volumes would be needed of TPE?

A

1-1.5 plasma volumes

31
Q

Name some adverse reactions from TPE

A

Hypocalcaemia
Plasma reactions
Alkalosis secondary to citrate
AKI because of colloids
Blood loss because of circuit
Hypoproteinaemia
Haemorrhage

32
Q

In humans what categories are there for TPE to help guide tx?

A

Category 1 -1st line (myasthenia gravis)
Category 2-2nd line tx (IMHA)
Category 3- limited trials (IMTP and sepsis)
Category 4- ineffective or harmful

33
Q

For what toxins does TPE work best for?

A

Small volume of distribution and intravascular (<1L/kg)

E.g NSAIDs as highly protein bound

34
Q

Sodium concentration in hartmanns

A

130mmol/L

35
Q

Fractional excretion of Sodium

A

Urine sodium x serum creatinine divided by urine creatinine x serum sodium

36
Q

Name 4 factors that determine diffusion rate (Ficks law) of a substance from blood to interstitium

A

Gradient concentration
Surface area for exchange
Diffusion distance
Permeability of capillary wall to the diffusing substance

37
Q

Name 4 functions of the endothelial cell

A
  1. Enzymatic conversion of circulating hormones
  2. Production of substances that lead to blood clot formation
  3. Key roles in abiogenesis and remodelling of vasculature
  4. Production of vasoactive substances
38
Q

What does an inotrope do?

A

Increases strength of heart beat

39
Q

What does a chronotropic drug do?

A

Increases heart rate

40
Q

What does a dromotropic drug do?

A

Increases speed of conduction

41
Q

What would a high peak pressure mean?

A

Airway issue/resistance

E.g
ET tube blockage
Retained secretions
Mucous plug

42
Q

What does a high plateau pressure mean?

A

Compliance issue
Pneumothorax
ARDS

43
Q

What defines a massive transfusion?

A

Transfusion of Blood products totalling estimated blood volume in 24 hours

50% of blood volume in 3-4 hours

Admin 1.5ml/kg/hr for 20mins

44
Q

Cholinergic crisis signs

A

SLUDGE
MUDDLES

Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI motility, emesis, miosis

Excess of acetylcholine
Drug side effect or toxin with organophosphate?

45
Q

Naloxone
1. MOA
2. length of action

A
  1. Binds with great affinity to mu, kappa, delta opioid receptors, competitively displacing agonists with lesser affinity and so reversing actions of agonist agents
  2. Short acting whereas nalmefene and naltrexone are longer acting
46
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria of syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone secretion

A
  1. Hypoosmolar hyponatremia
  2. Euvolemia
  3. Inappropriate concentrated urine-urine osmolarity >100mOsm/L
  4. Urine sodium concentration>30mmol/L
  5. Hypoadrenocorticism excluded