MISC 04 - Finals Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

A “COLD CHAIN” is a system of storage and transport of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to the actual vaccination site.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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2
Q

These organisms pose a risk to national security because they can easily disseminated or transmitted from person-person resulting in high mortality rates and have the potential for major health impact; it may cause public panic and social disruption, and that require special action for public health preparedness.

a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D

A

a. Category A

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3
Q

ALLOGENIC cancer vaccines are made from non-self cancer cells grown in the lab

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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4
Q

Reconstituted vaccine should be discarded at the end of each immunization session and NEVER retained for use in subsequent sessions.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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5
Q

Which among the vaccine maintenance pair is INCORRECT?

a. Short period (months): Cholera vaccine
b. Solid immunity: Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccines (MMR)
c. Three to five years: BCG vaccine
d. Ten years: Yellow fever vaccine

A

c. Three to five years: BCG vaccine

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6
Q

A recombinant vaccine is a vaccine produced through recombinant DNA technology. This involves inserting the DNA encoding an antigen (such as a bacterial surface protein) that stimulates an immune response into bacterial or mammalian cells

a. Attenuated live vaccines
b. Inactivated (killed) vaccines
c. Toxoids
d. Surface antigen
e. Live vaccines

A

d. Surface antigen

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7
Q

A vaccine is “antigenic” but not “pathogenic”

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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8
Q

These are local general reactions such as pain, swelling, redness, tenderness and development of a small nodule or sterile abscess at the site of injection.

a. Reactions inherent to inoculation
b. Reactions due to hypersensitivity
c. Reactions due to faulty techniques
d. Provocative reactions

A

a. Reactions inherent to inoculation

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9
Q

These are reactions from either improper immunization site or route, vaccines reconstituted with incorrect diluents and if the diluent is contaminated.

a. Reactions inherent to inoculation
b. Reactions due to hypersensitivity
c. Reactions due to faulty techniques
d. Provocative reactions

A

c. Reactions due to faulty techniques

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10
Q

Oral polio

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

b. Live attenuated vaccines

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11
Q

Small pox variola

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

a. Live vaccines

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12
Q

Pertussis

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

c. Killed inactivated vaccines

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13
Q

Tetanus

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

d. Toxoids

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14
Q

Hepatitis B polypeptide

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

e. Cellular fraction vaccines

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15
Q

Rubella

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

b. Live attenuated vaccines

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16
Q

Cholera

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

c. Killed inactivated vaccines

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17
Q

Diphtheria

a. Live vaccines
b. Live attenuated vaccines
c. Killed inactivated vaccines
d. Toxoids
e. Cellular fraction vaccines

A

d. Toxoids

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18
Q

Immunoglobulins which can be found in high concentrations in the mucous membranes, particularly those lining the respiratory passages and gastrointestinal tract, as well as in saliva and tears

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

c. IgA

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19
Q

A COLD CHAIN equipment consists of the following, EXCEPT:

a. Cold rooms
b. Deep freezers
c. Vaccine carriers
d. Ice packs
e. Cold boxes
f. None of the options

A

f. None of the options

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20
Q

Immunoglobulins which is associated mainly with allergic reactions (when the immune system overreacts to environmental antigens such as pollen or pet dander). It is found in the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes.

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

d. IgE

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21
Q

These vaccines are used when a bacterial toxin is the main cause of illness.

a. Toxoids
b. Surface antigen
c. Attenuated live vaccines
d. Inactivated (killed) vaccines
e. Live vaccines

A

a. Toxoids

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22
Q

A BIOLOGIC product is any virus, therapeutic serum, toxin, antitoxin or analogous product employed for prevention, treatment, or cure of diseases in humans

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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23
Q

PASSIVE IMMUNITY refers to the immunity conferred by an antibody produced in another host. It may be acquired naturally or artificially (through an antibody-containing preparation)

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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24
Q

Varicella

a. Human normal Ig
b. Human specific Ig
c. Non-human Ig

A

b. Human specific Ig

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25
Gas gangrene a. Human normal Ig b. Human specific Ig c. Non-human Ig
c. Non-human Ig
26
Botulism a. Human normal Ig b. Human specific Ig c. Non-human Ig
c. Non-human Ig
27
Mumps a. Human normal Ig b. Human specific Ig c. Non-human Ig
a. Human normal Ig
28
Hepatitis B a. Human normal Ig b. Human specific Ig c. Non-human Ig
b. Human specific Ig
29
Hepatitis A a. Human normal Ig b. Human specific Ig c. Non-human Ig
a. Human normal Ig
30
Immunoglobulins which can be found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid, is the first antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM
d. IgM
31
It is synthesized into flurodeoxyglucose (FDG) for use in PET scans. It is used for labelling antibodies, then allows for PET imaging of cancer. a. Oxygen-15 b. Fluorine-18 c. Nitrogen-15 d. Carbon-14
b. Fluorine-18
32
The distribution of the radiopharmaceutical is fixed over the imaging period and multiple images can be acquired, viewing from different angles (e.g. anterior, oblique). a. Static imaging b. Dynamic imaging
a. Static imaging
33
It is a radioactive isotope of carbon that decays to boron-1. It is used in radioactive labelling of molecules in PET. a. Carbon-10 b. Carbon-11 c. Carbon-12 d. Carbon-13
b. Carbon-11
34
Curie a. Cyclotron b. Neutron c. Radium d. Nuclear reactor e. Tc-99 m in nuclear medicine
c. Radium
35
Fermi a. Cyclotron b. Neutron c. Radium d. Nuclear reactor e. Tc-99 m in nuclear medicine
d. Nuclear reactor
36
Chadwick a. Cyclotron b. Neutron c. Radium d. Nuclear reactor e. Tc-99 m in nuclear medicine
b. Neutron
37
Harper a. Cyclotron b. Neutron c. Radium d. Nuclear reactor e. Tc-99 m in nuclear medicine
e. Tc-99 m in nuclear medicine
38
Lawrence a. Cyclotron b. Neutron c. Radium d. Nuclear reactor e. Tc-99 m in nuclear medicine
a. Cyclotron
39
Deliver the minimum possible radiation dose to the patient while still obtaining the required diagnostic information a. Diagnostic radiopharmaceutical b. Therapy radiopharmaceutical
Diagnostic radiopharmaceutical
40
The fundamental unit of radioactivity is the curie (Cu) defined as 3.700 x 1010 nuclear transformation per second or disintegrations per second (dps) a. True b. False
b. False
41
It has a half-life of 64.1 hours and decay energy of 2.28 MeV and used in radiation therapy to treat cancer. a. 90 Y b. 131 I c. 201 Tl d. 99m Tc
a. 90 Y
42
Y-90 spheres a. Polycythemia vera b. Bone metastases c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Arthritic conditions e. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
43
P-32 phosphate a. Polycythemia vera b. Bone metastases c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Arthritic conditions e. Thyrotoxicosis
a. Polycythemia vera
44
Er-169 colloid a. Polycythemia vera b. Bone metastases c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Arthritic conditions e. Thyrotoxicosis
d. Arthritic conditions
45
I-131 iodide a. Polycythemia vera b. Bone metastases c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Arthritic conditions e. Thyrotoxicosis
e. Thyrotoxicosis
46
Sr-89 chloride a. Polycythemia vera b. Bone metastases c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Arthritic conditions e. Thyrotoxicosis
b. Bone metastases
47
PET works by using a scanning device to detect positrons (subatomic particles) emitted by a radionuclide in the organ or tissue being examined a. True b. False
a. True
48
Useful in imaging osteomyelitis that involves the spine, and in imaging older and chronic infections that may be cause of a fever of unknown origin a. 123 I b. 153 Sm c. 67 Ga d. 177 Lu
c. 67 Ca
49
Most radionuclides contain components that emits gamma radiation a. True b. False
a. True
50
The ability to image bone metabolism alterations enables detection of lesions such as: a. Bone trauma b. Bone metastasis c. Benign or malignant bone tumors d. All of the options
d. All of the options
51
Epidural probe a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
b. Class B
52
Revascularization device a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
d. Class D
53
Anesthesia set a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
c. Class C
54
Intraocular lens a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
c. Class C
55
Flowmeter (all types) a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
a. Class A
56
X-ray machine a. Diagnostic equipment b. Treatment equipment c. Life support equipment d. Medical monitors
a. Diagnostic equipment
57
ECG & EEG a. Diagnostic equipment b. Treatment equipment c. Life support equipment d. Medical monitors
d. Medical monitors
58
ECMO a. Diagnostic equipment b. Treatment equipment c. Life support equipment d. Medical monitors
c. Life support equipment
59
Dialysis machine a. Diagnostic equipment b. Treatment equipment c. Life support equipment d. Medical monitors
c. Life support equipment
60
Infusion pumps a. Diagnostic equipment b. Treatment equipment c. Life support equipment d. Medical monitors
b. Treatment equipment
61
MRI machines a. Diagnostic equipment b. Treatment equipment c. Life support equipment d. Medical monitors
a. Diagnostic equipment
62
ASTM F2459 refers to the standard test method for extracting residue from metallic medical components and quantifying via gravimetric analysis. a. True b. False
a. True
63
ASTM F2847 refers to the standard Guide for Validating Cleaning Processes Used During the Manufacture of Medical Devices a. True b. False
b. False
64
A medical device refers to any instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, appliance, implant, in-vitro reagent or calibrator, software, material, or other similar or related article intended by the manufacturer to be used alone, or in combination, for human beings for one or more of the specific purpose(s) of diagnosis, prevention, monitoring, treatment or alleviation of disease; diagnosis, monitoring, treatment, alleviation of, or compensation for an injury; investigation, replacement, modification, or support of the anatomy or of a physiological process; supporting or sustaining life; preventing infection; control of conception; disinfection of medical devices; and providing information for medical or diagnostic purposes by means of in-vitro examination of specimens derived from the human body. a. True b. False
a. True
65
Low a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
a. Class A
66
High a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
d. Class D
67
Moderate-high a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
c. Class C
68
Low-moderate a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
b. Class B
69
Package testing is part of a quality management system including verification and validation. a. True b. False
a. True
70
Air purifying equipment may be used in the periphery of the operating room or at point sources including near the surgical site for the removal of surgical plume. a. True b. False
a. True