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microbiology exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Many bacteria can be classified as Gram-positive or Gram-negative because of differences in:
    

    A. Outer membrane proteins; 

    B. Ribosomes;

    C. Endotoxin and exotoxin layer;

    D. Peptidoglycan layer;

    E. Whether or not the genetic material encodes the Gram gene.

A

peptidoglycan layer

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2
Q
  1. An endotoxin is:
 

    A. Actively produced by an organism once inside the human body;

    B. Specific for certain tissues, such as skin;

    C. Produced by Gram-positive bacteria outside the body;

    D. Produced by Gram-negative bacteria once inside a spore;

    E. The toxin portion of the lipopolysaccharide.

    

A

The toxin portion of the lipopolysaccharide.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct order for the solutions used in Gram staining?

  2. Alcohol 

  3. Gram’s iodine 

  4. Carbol fuchsin 

    4.Crystal violet 

  5. Methyl red

  6. Methylene blue

  7. Safranin

    

    A. 1, 3, 4, 2;

    B. 3, 7, 2, 4;

    C. 4, 2, 1, 7;

    D. 5, 4, 3, 6;

    E. 4, 1, 2, 7.

A
  1. crystal violet
  2. gram’s iodine
  3. alcohol
  4. safranin

4,2,1,7

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about complement?:
 


A. Complement is made by B lymphocytes

B. Complement is made by T helper cells
C. Complement is a type of immunoglobulin or Ig
D. Complement what is left over once phagocytic cells have engulfed and destroyed bacterial pathogens
E. Plasma proteins that work together to resist bacterial infections through a cascade of reactions

 


A

E. Plasma proteins that work together to resist bacterial infections through a cascade of reactions

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5
Q
  1. M-protein is used to distinguish antigenic groups of which of the following bacteria?

    A. Staphylococci;

    B. Gram-positive bacteria;

    C. Gram-negative bacteria;

    D. Streptococci;

    E. Lactic acid bacteria such as probiotics.

A

streptococci

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6
Q

. Important targets of antibiotics in bacteria are:

A. The cytoplasmic membrane;

B. DNA replication and transcription elements;

C. The cell wall;

D. All of the above;

E. Similar processes seen in the human body so that they are toxic or cause
adverse reactions. 




A

cell wall
(or the cytoplasmic membrane)

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following factors are helpful in the prevention of microbial growth on the skin

  2. High pH between 8 and 10
 2. Dryness of the skin

  3. Inhibitory substances

    A. 1 only;

    B. 2 only;

    C. 3 only;

    D. 1 and 2 only;

    E. 2 and 3 only.
A

2 and 3 only

dry skin
inhibitory substances
(LOW pH not high)

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8
Q
  1. Resident flora can be found in all the following locations in the human body except the:

    

    A. Female genital tract;

    B. Lungs;

    C. Skin;

    D. Mouth;

    E. Large intestine.

    

A

lungs

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9
Q
  1. Non-specific immunity includes all of the following except:
 

    A. Skin;

    B. Acid pH (example, sebaceous secretions like sweat);

    C. Mucous membranes;

    D. Antibodies made by B cells;

    E. Tears from the eye when viewing a sad movie.

    

A

antibodies made by B cells (specific - humoral)

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false 
 

    A. Newborns lack an intestinal flora;

    B. Most bacteria are not human pathogens;

    C. Healthy, intact skin is normally impermeable to microorganisms 

    D. Normal flora bacteria never cause infection;

    E. The absence of a normal flora would make an individual more susceptible to
    infection

A

normal flora bacteria never cause infection

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11
Q
  1. A bacteria that rarely causes diease in healthy humans but may do so in situations were the immune system or other defense mechanism has been compromised by, for example, a burn, overuse of antibiotics or a stab wound, is known as:

    

    A. Highly virulent;

    B. Normal microflora;

    C. Opportunistic;

    D. Non-pathogenic;

    E. A parasitic infection.

A

opportunistic

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12
Q
  1. If the safranin step were omitted in the Gram-Staining procedure, what colour would you expect Gram-positive bacteria to stain and what colour would you expect Gram- negative bacteria to stain?

    

    A. Gram-positive=colourless; Gram-negative=colourless;

    B. Gram-positive=purple; Gram-negative=purple;

    C. Gram-positive=purple; Gram-negative=colourless;

    D. Gram-positive=pink; Gram-negative=pink;

    E. Gram-positive=pink; Gram-negative=purple.

    

A

gram positive = purple
gram negative = colorless (pink with safranin)

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about streptococcus pyogenes is false?
 

    A. S. pyogenes can cause puerperal fever;

    B. Some strains of S. pyogenes produce large amounts of hyaluronidase;

    C. S. pyogenes produces streptolysins, toxic substances to macrophages;

    D. S. pyogenes is commonly known as Group B Streptococci;

    E. S. pyogenes is associated with scarlet fever.

    

A

S. pyogenes is commonly known as Group B Streptococci (IT IS GROUP A)

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about MacConkey agar plates is incorrect?
 


A. It is both selective and differential;

B. Only staphylococci or streptococci can grow on this plate;

C. Lactose-fermenting bacteria appear as bright red colonies on this plate;

D. It is a useful tool for differentiating normal flora and human pathogens;

E. Bile salt and crystal violet are the selective components of this agar plate 




A

C. Lactose-fermenting bacteria appear as bright red colonies on this plate; (they are PINK!)

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15
Q
  1. Passive immunization:

    

    A. Requires administration of pre-formed antibodies against a specific agent
    B. Is an efficient, routine way to protect against various types of infection
    C. Requires administration of pre-formed antibodies that are not specific so as to help you against an unknown infection
    to help
    D. Is when you inject someone with B-cells
    E. Is when you inject someone with T-cells
A

A. Requires administration of pre-formed antibodies against a specific agent

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
 

    A. The primary response is usually associated with a lad period;

    B. IgM has a “pentamer” structure;

    C. Humoral immunity requires B cells and production of immunoglobulins;

    D. Both the humoral and cell-mediated immune systems involve antigens;

    E. Antibodies made against “self” antigens can lead to autoimmune diseases 

A

D. Both the humoral and cell-mediated immune systems involve antigens

(humoral –> antibody)
(CMI –> antigen)

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17
Q
  1. Major mechanism(s) of resistance to an antibiotic include:
 (memorize these 3 things)
    

    A. 1 only;

    B. 2 only;

    C. 3only;

    D. 1 and 2 only;

    E. 1, 2, and 3.

A
  1. altering antibiotic target
  2. production of inactivating enzymes
  3. reducing antibiotic uptake

1,2,3

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18
Q
  1. Most organisms that cause human illness are considered:
 

    A. Thermophiles;

    B. Psychrophiles;

    C. Mesophiles;

    D. Halophiles;

    E. Barophiles.

A

mesophiles

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19
Q
  1. Laboratory media designed to illustrate the ability (or not) of a bacterial to ferment sugars such as lactose are called:
 

    A. Tissue culture;

    B. Differential media;

    C. Selective media;

    D. Enrichment media;

    E. Chemically defined media.

A

enrichment media

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20
Q
  1. The immunoglobulin responsible for a person named Franco having symptoms of allergies (runny nose, teary eyes, etc.) during ragweed season is:

    

    A. IgE;

    B. IgM;

    C. IgG;

    D. IgA;

    E. IgD.

    

A

IgE

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21
Q
  1. Antigens are:
 

    A. Substances capable of inducing a specific immune response;

    B. Compounds made of proteins only and trigger production of antibodies;

    C. Compounds made of carbohydrates only and trigger production of antibodies;

    D. Bacteria only triggering the production of antibodies;

    E. Viruses only triggering the production of antibodies.
    

A

A. Substances capable of INDUCING a specific immune response (NON-SELF)

(B-lymphocytes / B-cells produce ANTIBODIES that bind to their antigens and attack them)

22
Q
  1. Antibodies are produced by:
 

    A. T-helper lymphocytes of class 1;

    B. B lymphocytes;

    C. T-helper lymphocytes of class 2;

    D. Complement that has been activated;

    E. Macrophages that have phagocytized a microbial pathogen.

A

B-lymphocytes / B-cells

23
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever may develop two or three weeks after a _______ infection
 

    A. Staphylococcus aureus;

    B. Group A streptococcal; 

    C. Group B streptococcal;

    D. Staphylococcus epidermis;

    E. Neisseria meningitidis. 

    

A

B. Group A streptococcal; 


24
Q
  1. Staphylococcus epidermidis:


A. Is part of the normal flora of the skin;

B. Is coagulase negative;

C. Can be considered a cause of opportunistic infections post-operatively;

D. A, B, and C are correct;

E. Gram negative pathogen of the skin

A

A. Is part of the normal flora of the skin;

B. Is coagulase negative;

C. Can be considered a cause of opportunistic infections post-operatively

D. A, B, and C are correct

25
Q
  1. Neisseria meningitidis is:
 

    A. The causative agent for Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome;

    B. A Gram-positive diplococci;

    C. A common genital tract pathogen;

    D. The most common sexually transmitted bacterial infection;

    E. A problem seen in elderly populations only. 

    

A

A. The causative agent for Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome;


26
Q
  1. Anaerobic bacteria:
 

    A. Are very useful for producing live attenuated vaccines;

    B. Can not combat toxicity of oxygen and superoxide radicals;

    C. Require hypotonic media in order to be grown outside the body;

    D. Can grow under extreme pH environments;

    E. Are important respiratory pathogens. 

A

B. Can not combat toxicity of oxygen and superoxide radicals;


27
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false:

    

    A. Bacterial cellular morphology is visible without the use of a microscope;

    B. Viruses are much smaller than bacteria and are not visible in a light microscope;
    C. Staining is usually required in order to see bacteria under a microscope;

    D. Most bacteria can be classified as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative;

    E. Bacteria are prokaryotes.

A

A. Bacterial cellular morphology is visible without the use of a microscope

(or viruses are much smaller than bacteria and are not visible in a light microscope)

28
Q
  1. The most common infection caused by beta haemolytic Streptococcus is:
 

    A. Scarlet fever;

    B. Rheumatic fever;

    C. Meningitis;

    D. Food poisoning;

    E. Pharyngitis/tonsillitis.

A

E. Pharyngitis/tonsillitis.


29
Q
  1. Lower concentration of solutes in the environment leads to inflow of water and cell rupture. This type o solution is reffered to as:

    

    A. Isotonic;

    B. Isothermal;

    C. Hypertonic;

    D. Halophylic; 

    E. Hypotonic.

A

E. Hypotonic.


30
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the normal microflora of the nervous system?
 

    A. Only transient organisms are present;

    B. Microorganisms are present only in portions of the central nervous system

    C. The nervous system does not have a normal flora;

    D. Only resident organisms are present;

    E. Organisms are present only in the portions of the peripheral nervous system.

A

C. The nervous system does not have a normal flora;


31
Q
  1. The most common route of infection with Streptococcus agalactiae is through:
 

    A. Opportunistic mechanisms such as surgical procedures;

    B. Ingestion of contaminated foods that were not cooked properly;

    C. Blood and blood products that were not properly screened;

    D. Inhalation of contaminated aerosols;

    E. Contact in the female genital tract.

A

E. Contact in the female genital tract.


32
Q
  1. Complete hemolysis (i.e., destruction of red blood cells) is reffered to as:
 

    A. Epsilon;

    B. Gamma;

    C. Delta;

    D. Beta;

    E. Alpha.

A

D. Beta;


33
Q
  1. Generally, a direct ELISA:
 

    A. Detects antibodies produced by the host;

    B. Detects antibodies produced by the pathogen;

    C. Detects the antigen in the sample;

    D. Detects the B lymphocytes;

    E. Detects the T helper cells.
A

C. Detects the antigen in the sample;


ELISA
direct - antigen
indirect - antibody

34
Q
  1. Necrotising fasciatic, also known as “flesh-eating disease”, is caused by:
 

    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae;

    B. Staphylococcus aureus;

    C. Streptococcus pyogenes;

    D. Streptococcus agalactiae;

    E. Neisseria meningitidis. 

A

C. Streptococcus pyogenes;


35
Q
  1. A solid agar that contains blood from an animal source is known as:
 

    A. Chemically defined media;

    B. Chemically undefined media;

    C. Selective media;

    D. A Gram-positve only media;

    E. A Gram-negative only media;

A

B. Chemically undefined media;


36
Q
  1. Which of the following pathogens causes neonatal infection such as conjunctivitis:
 

    A. Streptococcus pneumoniae;

    B. Neisseria meningitidis;

    C. Streptococcus agalactiae;

    D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae;

    E. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae;

( or Streptococcus agalactiae)

37
Q
  1. What is the most common entery route of a microbial pathogen into the human body?
 

    A. Inhalation;

    B. Ingestion;

    C. Penetration of protective barrier;

    D. Direct deposit in deep tissue;

    E. Overuse of broad spectrum antibiotics.

A

A. Inhalation

(inhalation = 1st)
(ingestion = 2nd)

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mechanism of acquired antibiotic reisitance?
 

    A. Mutation is ribosomal protein;

    B. Production of inactivating enzymes;

    C. Decreased permeability to antibiotics;

    D. Over-prescription of antibiotics;

    E. Efflux of antibiotics by bacteria. 

A

D. Over-prescription of antibiotics;


39
Q
  1. Exotoxins are characterized by:
 

    A. Being secreted by living bacteria;

    B. Being thermostable;

    C. Only being produced by Gram-negative bacteria;

    D. Broad spectrum activity on many receptors;

    E. Being mildly toxic in most cases.

A

A. Being secreted by living bacteria;


(exotoxins = thermolabile (heat sensitive), secreted by living cells, potent)
(endotoxins = thermostable (heat resistant), liberated when cell wall disintegrates, less potent) - with peptidoglycan layer

40
Q
  1. For antibiotic therapy to be successful:
 

    A. Pathogen processes not seen in humans should be targeted;

    B. Knowledge of the site of infection is important in deciding administration
    route(s);

    C. Adverse effects should ideally be minimized;

    D. The antibiotic must be taken even if the patient begins to feel better;

    E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above


41
Q

parainfluenza viruses (5)

A

INFANTS AND YOUNG CHILDREN OVER 5
croup - barking cough, high pitch on inhalation
bronchiolitis, bronchopneumonia
no vaccine
can have serious complications

42
Q

viruses of DIARRHEA - rotavirus vs norovirus

A

rotavirus - 18 and under
norovirus - 18 and over
(more details in notes)

43
Q

measles

A

KOPLIC SPOTS ON TONGUE FEW DAYS BEFORE RASH
rash first behind ears, forehead, and nostrils
then spreads to whole body, BLOTCHY

44
Q

herpes simplex virus (HSV - respiratory!) HSV1 vs HSV2

A

HSV1 - cold sores (oral and ocular lesions), transmitted via oral and respiratory secretions
HSV2 - herpes genitalis (genital tract), transmission from infected females to newborn

45
Q

replication - viral life cycle

A
  1. aDsorption
  2. penetration and uncoating
  3. nucleic acid and protein synthesis
  4. assembly (and maturation)
  5. release (for diagnosis)
46
Q

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

TRANSPLANT PATIENTS
- disseminated (spread) infection can cause TRANSPLANT REJECTION
- serology screening of donors and recipients before transplants (diagnosis)
- match CMV immune status between donor and recipient (prevention)

47
Q

hepatitis transmission types

A

Hep A - fecal-oral (food borne)
Hep B - blood and sexual
Hep C - blood and sexual
Hep Delta agent - blood and sexual
Hep E - fecal oral
Hep G - sexual
(yellow fever virus (haemorrhagic fever + hep) mosquito)

48
Q

nosocomial chain of infection (transmission)

A
  1. source
    - where microorganisms replicate and disseminate (spread)
  2. route of infection
    - how microorganisms leave source to get to host
  3. host
    - how susceptible are you? your immune status?
49
Q

universal precaution

A

UNIVERSAL PRECAUTION IS NOT ISOLATION OF PATIENTS (bc it’s used for EVERY patient)

50
Q

decreasing order of disinfectant resistance

A

Spores/ cysts
Mycobacteria
Fungi
Vegetative bacteria
Enveloped viruses

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