Microbiology Flashcards
1
Q
Mot common cause of UTI
A
E. coli
2
Q
Most common cause of infant meningitis
A
E. coli
3
Q
What infection is caught from raw milk and is especially dangerous for pregnant women and newborns?
A
Listeria
4
Q
What is the route of transmission of Yersinia pestis?
A
Rat-flea-man
5
Q
What bacteria is associated with buboes?
A
Yersinia pestis
6
Q
What bacteria causes severe gastroenteritis and can be caught from shellfish? (3)
A
Yersinia enterocolitica
Vibrio parahemolyticus
Samonella typhi
7
Q
What bacteria causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?
A
Klebsiella pneumoniae
8
Q
What red colored organism causes UTI in debilitated patients?
A
Serratia
9
Q
Which of the following is not a lactose fermenter: Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia
A
Proteus
10
Q
Which bacteria that produces urease is often associated with UTIs especially after catheterization?
A
Proteus
11
Q
What species causes typhoid fever?
A
Salmonella typhi
12
Q
What species causes typhus?
A
Rickettsia prowazeki
13
Q
Which organism can exist chronically in the gallbladder?
A
Salmonella tyhpii
14
Q
What organism causes rose colored spots on the abdomen, high fever and possible perforation of the abdomen?
A
Salmonella typhii
15
Q
What organism, having many animal reservoirs, produces endotoxin and is a common cause of food poisoning in the US?
A
Salmonella enterides
16
Q
Salmonella choleosius causes what 3 things?
A
pneumonia, osteomyelitis, meningitis
17
Q
What causes bacillary dysentery?
A
Shigella dysenteriae
18
Q
What gram pos cocci is catalase positive?
A
Staph aureus
19
Q
What gram pos cocci is catalase negative?
A
Strep pneumoniae
20
Q
Compare salmonella and staph food poisoning in terms of incubation period
A
Staph: 4-8 hours incubation, due to exotoxin production
Strep: 10-28 hours because the cells have to die in order to release the exotoxin
21
Q
What organism causes boils, carbuncles and impetigo?
A
Staph aureus
22
Q
Two possible organism involved in impetigo are:
A
staph aureus, streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta-hemolytic)
23
Q
What type of toxin is responsible for the scalded skin syndrome of staph aureus infection?
A
Exfoliatin
24
Q
T/F: Staph aureus can be killed with penicillin
A
False: it secretes penicillinase which destroys penicillin
25
What organism is associated with toxic shock syndrome?
Staph aureus
26
The catalase test is diagnostic for what organism?
staph aureus
27
What organism has hemolysis as a diagnostic feature?
steptococcus
28
What organism is responsible for scarlet fever?
Strep pyogenes
29
What is an important sequelae to know of concerning strep ?
Rheumatic fever
30
Glomerulonephritis can follow what infection?
Strep
31
In what type of Strep infection is the capsule pathogenic?
Strep. pneumoniae
32
How does gonorrhea usually present in males?
urethritis, purulent discharge
33
How dies gonorrhea present in females and what are the complications?
usu asymptomatic, complications are PID or salpingitis
34
What STD grows on a Thayer-Martin agar in CO2?
Neisseria gonorrhea
35
Which STD is oxidase positive?
Neisseria gonorrhea
36
Patient comes in with fever, N/V stiff neck and petechiae. What is likely diagnosis?
Neisseria meningitidis infection
37
What disease can you get from home canned products?
Clostridium botulinum
38
Infection with clostridium botulinum is associated with what type of paralysis?
flaccid, top-down
39
What causes gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
40
People who handle livestock are susceptible to what kind of infection?
Bacillus anthracis
41
What is a complication of diphtheria?
Respiratory paralysis and death
42
What infection has a grey pseudomembrane in the throat?
Corynebacterium diptheriae
43
Clostridium tetani causes what kind of paralysis?
spastic paralysis
44
Rice water stool is associated with what infection?
vibrio cholera
45
What organism is associated with hot tubs and can cause folliculitis?
pseudomonas
46
What is a common cause of Otitis media in children, and can cause meningitis and pneumonia?
Haemophilus influenza
47
What causes chancroid?
hemophilus ducreyi
48
Which STD has a painful ragged ulcer?
Hemophilus ducreyi
49
What can be diagnosed with clue cells seen on a smear?
Gardnerella infx
50
What organism grows around Staph aureus on an agar plate?
Haemophilus influenza
51
What causes whooping cough?
Bordatella pertussis
52
Rabbit fever is caused by what organism?
Francisella tularensis
53
How is tularemia spread?
infected tick bites
54
What disease is walled off in the body by granulomas?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
55
What is the skin test for TB called?
Mantoux skin test
56
What is the TB immunization called?
BCG
57
How is Brucella transmitted?
raw milk
58
How is TB transmitted?
respiratory droplets
59
What kind of immune response does the body have to TB?
cell mediated, no antibodies
60
What is TB infection that has spread into the blood called?
Miliary TB
61
What are the 2 types of leprosy?
Lepromatous leprosy and Tuberculoid leprosy
62
Which type of leprosy is less infectious and has less bacteria present during infection?
Tuberculoid leprosy
63
Which type of leprosy is more infectious and has more bacteria present in the body during infection?
Lepromatous leprosy
64
What organism is cultured in armadillos?
Mycobacterium leprae
65
The chancre, a bulls eye lesion, is associated with what disease?
Treponema pallidum (syphillis)
66
When is syphillis infectious?
primary and secondary infections
67
What kind of organism causes lyme disease and syphillis?
spirochete bacteriae
68
The mucocutaneous lesion of syphilis is found in which phase?
secondary phase
69
The gummas of syphilis appear in what stage of syphilis?
tertiary
70
What is Hutchinsons triad and what is it caused by?
Congential syphilis, causes impaired vision, notched teeth and impaired hearing
71
Yaws is caused by what?
Treponema pertenue
72
What are some of the lab tests for syphilis?
VDRL, FTA-Abs, RPR
73
What does treponema vincentii cause?
Trench mouth
74
In what stage is syphilis most infectious?
secondary stage
75
What organism causes Glue ear?
Hemophilus influenze
76
What organism has a blue-green pigment and is associated with skin and especially burn infections?
Pseudomonas aeriginosa
77
Condylomata late are associated with what disease?
secondary , mucocutaneous lesion of syphilis
78
What is the vector for lyme disease?
deer tick
79
What disease has a spreading circular lesion called Erythema migrans?
Lyme disease
80
Lyme disease closely parallels what other disease in it's primary, secondary and tertiary symptoms?
syphilis
81
What organism causes infectious jaundice?
Leptospira interrogans
82
What causes rat bite fever?
Spirillum
83
What organism contracted from raw milk causes body diarrhea and can mimic appendicitis?
Campylobacter fetus jejuni
84
What organism is implicated in causing peptic ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori/jejuni
85
What causes walking pneumonia?
Mycobacterium pneumonia
86
What is so special about mycoplasma species?
no cell wall and therefore are resistant to penicillin
87
What sexually transmitted organism requires cholesterol and urea?
ureaplasma
88
Ureaplasma causes what kind of infection?
non-gonococcal urethritis
89
What species or organisms are transmitted by arthropods?
Rickettsiae
90
What causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsiae prowazeki
91
What causes endemic typhus?
Rickettsiae typhi
92
Rickettsiae type affects which type of cells?
endothelial cells
93
What is the vector for Rickettsiae prowazeki?
louse
94
What is the vector for Rickettsiae typhi?
flea
95
What is the only rickettsial disease with no vector?
Q fever- Coxiella burnetti
96
What are some symptoms of typhus?
macular rash, high fever, acute bacteremia
97
What is the organism responsible for Rocky Mountain fever?
Ricketssiae Ricketsii
98
How if the Rock Mountain fever transmitted?
ticks
99
What STD is associated with chronic conjunctivitis and blindness?
chlamydia trachomatis
100
What disease is associated with standing water, e.g. in air-conditioning systems?
legionella pneumophilla
101
What disease is associated with birds?
Chlamydia psittici
102
What does chlamydia cause?
Conjunctivits, urethritis, cervicitis, salpingitis, lymphgranuloma venerum
103
What is the most common cause of epididymitis in men?
Chlamydia trachomatis
104
Parrot fever is the common name for what infection?
Chlamydia psittici
105
What fungus-like bacteria can mimic TB?
Norcadia
106
What causes lumpy jaw?
Actinomyces
107
What is the name for trench fever?
Rochalimaea quintana
108
What is the common name for coccidiodes immitis?
valley fever
109
How do yeast reproduce?
budding
110
How do molds reproduce?
by forming tubular structures
111
What fungi is associated with bat and bird feces?
Histoplasma capsulatum
112
What large capsulated yeast is commonly found in pigeon droppings?
cryptococcus neoformans
113
What causes status asthmaticus?
aspergillus
114
What is the medical name for ring worm?
Tinea corporis
115
How is tinea diagnosed?
KOH wet mount
116
What is jock itch?
Tinea cruris
117
What opportunistic yeast commonly affects immunocompromised patients?
candida albicans
118
What causes amoebic dysentery?
Entamoeba histolytica
119
What causes beaver fever?
Giardia lamblia
120
Which of the following is NOT a cause of bloody diarrhea: Shigella dysenteriae, Campylobacter jejuni, Giardia lambda, Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
121
Which parasite interferes with fat absorption?
Giardia lamblia
122
T/F: Trichomonas has no cysts
True
123
Pneumocystitis carnii is a problem for what type of patient?
immunocompromised
124
Who is at risk for toxoplasmosis gone infection?
pregnant women (fetus)
125
What parasite is associated with cats?
Toxoplasmosis gondii
126
What is the common name for Ascaris lumbricoides?
Human roundworm
127
What is the common name for Necato americanus?
Hookworm
128
What parasite causes spoon nails, anemia and stunted growth?
Hookworm
129
What parasite can be contracted from pork or bear meat?
Trichinella spiralis
130
What is the vector for malaria?
mosquito
131
What does plasmodium species of parasites cause?
malaria
132
What parasite is associated with dog and cat feces?
Toxocara canis or catis
133
How is filariasis transmitted?
Mosquito
134
What causes elephantiasis?
filariasis
135
Schistosomata is associated with what reservoir?
snails
136
Taenia is associated with which animals?
pigs, cows
137
What kind of parasite is taenia?
Beef tapeworm
138
Clonorchis is what kind of parasite?
liver fluke
139
Diphyllobothrium datum is what kind of parasite?
fish tapeworm
140
What kind of parasite is a schistosome?
a blood fluke
141
What are the 2 central lymphoid tissues?
thymus gland and bone marrow
142
What are the 3 peripheral lymphoid tissues?
lymph nodes, peyers patches, spleen
143
The role of B lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?
humoral
144
What is produced with humoral immunity?
Antibodies
145
The role of T lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?
Cell mediated
146
What type of chemical activates components of the immune system i.e.. activates macrophages, PMNs, etc?
cytokines/ lymphokines
147
What is the function of basophils?
release histamine and other chemicals that act on blood vessels
148
What is the function of neutrophils?
recognize foreign antigens and destroy the through phagocytosis
149
What is the function of eosinophils?
destroy parasitic organisms
150
What is the function of monocytes/ macrophages?
engulf foreign antigens and cell debris and process antigen and present it
151
What is the function of B lymphocytes?
independently able to indentify foreign antigens and differentiate into antibody producing plasma and memory cells
152
What chemical produced by the body stimulates B lymphocytes?
IL-2
153
What is the role of T lymphocytes?
T helper cells induce B lymphocytes. T suppressor cells recognize and kill virus-infected cells
154
What is the function of natural killer cells?
cell that bond to and lyse other cells especially virally-infected cells
155
What is the principal immunoglobulin in exocrine secretions (e.g. breast milk, respiratory and intestinal mucus, saliva, tears)?
IgA
156
What immunoglobulin can move across the placenta thus becoming an important immunoglobulin for newborns?
IgG
157
What is the main immunoglobulin in serum?
IgG
158
What immunoglobulin activates complement and is important in opsonization?
IgG
159
What immunoglobulin attaches to mast cells in the respiratory and intestinal tracts and plays a role in allergic responses?
IgE
160
What immunoglobulin is the first to form in response to an infection?
IgM
161
What immunoglobulin controls the A, B, O blood group antibody response?
IgM
162
Antigens present on all nucleated cells in the body that identify a cell as self are called what?
HLA
163
What is a hapten?
substance that normally does not act as an antigen
164
Complement is activated in what kind of immune response?
B-cell mediated immune response
165
What kind of proteins are involved in vasodilation, chemotaxis, opsonization of antigens, lysis of cells and blood clotting?
complement
166
What is opsonization?
coat placed on cells so that they can be recognized
167
What role does interferon play?
interferon is released when invading organisms are viral. They inhibit the production of virally infected cells, prevent viral spread, enhance activity of macrophages, NK cells, cytotoxic T cells and inhibit tumor growth
168
Which interleukin permits cells of the immune system to talk to one another and intimate responses?
IL 1
169
Which interleukin promotes cellular immunity ie. promote growth and activity of macrophages and B cells?
IL 2
170
Which interleukins promote humoral immunity?
IL 4, 5, 10
171
Antibodies are produced in what type of immunity?
humoral
172
Hayfever is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type 1
173
IgE is formed in what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
type 1
174
The reaction of antigens and antibodies at cell surfaces is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type 2
175
The reaction to blood transfusions would be what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type 2
176
The reaction os antigen and antibody in extracellular fluid spaces is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type 3
177
A cell mediated or delayed reaction meditated by the interaction of antigen and T lymphocytes and subsequent release of lymphokines is an example of what type of immunity?
Type 4
178
Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type 4
179
Loss of normal tolerance by the immune system of "self" antigens on the surface of the body's cells and destruction of normal tissue with autoantibodies is defined as what?
autoimmunity
180
What is the name of genital warts?
condyloma accuminata
181
What is the name of the virus that causes measles?
Rubeola
182
Downey cells or atypical lymphocytes are seen in what infection?
Epstein Barr Virus
183
Why does Hep B have a potential carrier state?
Viral DNA is integrated in the chromosome of the host cell
184
Pandemics of flu are associated with what?
antigenic shift, major changes in viral RNA
185
Which polio vaccines is alive attenuated and given orally?
Sabin
186
Which polio vaccine is inactivated, multivalent and injectable?
Salk
187
How does polio cause paralysis?
destroying motor neurons in anterior horn and medulla
