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Preventive And Social Medicine II > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Who first observed CELLS? And said that “all living things are composed of cells”

A

Robert Hooke (1665)

OO - hooke
LL - cells

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2
Q

Who first observed MICROORGANISMS? (animalcules)

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek (1673)

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3
Q

Fermentation - Pasteur

A

1857

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4
Q

When did Pasteur disprove spontaneous generation theory wherein life can arise from NON-living matter?

A

1861

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5
Q

When was Koch’s postulate done?

A

1876

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6
Q

Where is the DNA contained in a prokaryote?

A

Free in the cytoplasm bcs no nucleus

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7
Q

Ribosome svedberg of prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

Prokaryotes: 70s
Eukaryotes: 80s

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8
Q

What are cylindrical bacteria which are convoluted in varying degrees?

A

Spirals

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9
Q

Give 2 examples of diplococci

A

Neisseria gonorrheae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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10
Q

Cocci in chains

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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11
Q

Simple bacilli

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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12
Q

Actual spiral or helices

A

Spirillum minor

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13
Q

What is an example of gram staining mtd?

A

Hucker’s staining

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14
Q

Gram staining:

What are the

  • Primary stain
  • Mordant
  • Decolorizer
  • Counterstain
A

Primary stain: CV
Mordant: Iodine
Decolorizer: Acetone alcohol
Counterstain: Safranin

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15
Q

Acid fast staining

What are the

  • Primary stain
  • Mordant (fixes 1° stain)
  • Decolorizer
  • Counterstain
A

Primary stain: Carbolfuchsin (30s)
Mordant: Heat
Decolorizer: Acid alcohol
Counterstain: Methylene blue

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16
Q

Mechanisms of GS is related to:

A

1 Thickness of CW
2 Pore size
3 Permeability properties of the intact cell envelope

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17
Q

Gram’s Rule

A

All cocci are G+ except NVM

All bacilli are G- except MCS (sporeformers e.g bacillus)

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18
Q

Phenotypic basis classification

A

1 Environmental req (temp, O2/gas presence, pH lvls, ion/salt presence)
2 Nutritional req (utilize Ca, Nitrogen)
3 Resistance profiles (antibiotics, heavy metals, toxins)
4 Antigenic properties (immuno-sero: relatedness)
5 Subcellular properties (molec constituents that are typical of a particular taxon)

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19
Q

What is a flagella at both poles called?

A

Amphitrichous

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20
Q

Tuft of flagella at one pole like bundle in one side only, and sample of this is Salmonella typhi

A

Lophotrichous

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21
Q

What is the difference of capsule and slime layer (glycocalyx)?

A

Capsule: regular and gelatinous

Slime layer: less regular and more diffuse

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22
Q

What does the G+ have that the G- doesn’t?

A

Teichoic and Lipoteichoic acid - provides fxn rel to elasticity, porosity, tensile strength, and electrostatic properties of the envelope

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23
Q

What does the G- have that the G+ lacks?

A

Outer membrane

  • Lipoprotein: stab other mem and anchors it to the peptido
  • Phospholipid: prevent leak of periplasmic CHON and protects the cell from bile salts & hydrolytic enz
  • LPS: endotoxin (fever, shock)
  • Porin protein - molecule passage

Periplasmic space - degrades, detox

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24
Q

It serves as storage areas for nutrients and stain

A

Inclusions

1) Volutin - inorg phos –> ATP
2) Polysaccharide granules - glycogen & starch
3) Lipid incl
4) Sulfur granules

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25
Q

What microbe grows best at low temps? (-5 to 15°C)

A

Psychrophile

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26
Q

What microbes grow best at 30-37°C?

A

Meso

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27
Q

What microbes grow best at 50-60°C?

A

Thermophiles

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28
Q

Physical requirements for microbial growth

A

Temp
pH
Osmotic pressure

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29
Q

Examples of obligate aerobes (need O2 to live)

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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30
Q

Example of facultative anaerobe (fermentation or anaerobic respiration)

A

Salmonella

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31
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Bacteroides

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32
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Streptococcus

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33
Q

Microaerophilic capnophilic

A

Streptococcus

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34
Q

Altered AA seq –> nonfxnal

A

Missense

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35
Q

Not code –> early truncated

A

Nonsense mutation

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36
Q

Insertion snd deletions, not divisible by 3

A

Frameshift mutation

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37
Q

Enz destruction of drug, altered targets for the antibiotic, and decreased cellular uptake of drug

A

Resistance to beta lactams

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38
Q

Altered CW precursors that don’t bind to vancomycin

A

Resistance to glycopeptides

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39
Q

Modifying enzymes

A

Resistance to aminoglycosides

40
Q

Decreased uptake or by production of an altered target

A

Resistance to quinolones

41
Q

Equivalent to a bacterial suspension of 1.5x10^8 CFU/mL

A

McFarland turbidity stds (1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% BaCl)

42
Q

What is the lowest antimicrobial conc that completely inhibits visible growth?

A

MIC (minimal inhibitory conc)

43
Q

Depth of agar medium

A

4mm

44
Q

How much is the maximum bdisks in a 159mm MH agar plate?

A

12 antibiotic disks

45
Q

What may be performed in life-threatening infxns?

A

Minimal Bactericidal Conc (MBC) Test

46
Q

What us the lowest conc of a drug that results in 99.9% killing of bact?

A

Minimal Bactericidal Conc (MBC) Test

47
Q

What measures rate of killing over time?

A

Time kill studies lel

48
Q

What tests the effectiveness of antimicrobial combi against a single bacterial isolate?

A

Synergy testing

49
Q

Activity of antimicrobial combi is substantially greater than the activity of the single most active drug alone

A

Synergy

Doc: “2 is better than 1” uwu

50
Q

No bettern or worse than tye single most active drug alone

A

Indifference

51
Q

The activity of the combination is substantially less than the activity of the single most active drug alone (an interaction to be avoided)

A

Antagonism

Doc: “1 is better than 2” aye strong independent women/men

52
Q

What is the term that means destruction of all forms of life including spores?

A

Sterilization

53
Q

What is the process of elimination of microorganisms EXCLUDING spores?

A

Disinfection

54
Q

Incineration temperature

A

870-980°C

55
Q

What is the fastest and simplest physical mtd of sterilization?

A

Moist heat (stem under pressure)

56
Q

Used to sterilize biohazardous trash and heat-stable objects

Uses autoclave 1 atm (15 psi) of pressure

A

Moist heat (stem under pressure)

57
Q

Sterilization temperatures for media, liquids, and instruments

A

121°C (250°F) for 15 minutes

58
Q

Sterilization temperatures for infectious medical waste

A

132°C (270°F) for 30-60 minutes

59
Q

Requires longer exposure times (1.5 to 3 hrs) and higher than moist heat (160-180°C)

A

Dry heat

60
Q

What is used to sterilize glassware, oil, petroleum, or powders?

A

Dry heat

61
Q

Mtd of choice for antibiotic solns, toxic chem, radioisotopes, vaxx, carbs, wc are heat sensitive

A

Filtration

62
Q

Sterilize disposables s/a plastic syringes, catheters, or gloves

A

Ionizing radiation

63
Q

What is used in gaseous form of sterilizing heat sensitive obj?

A

Ethylene oxide (ETO)

64
Q

A sporicidal in 3-10 hrs and used for med equipment s/a bronchoscopes, bcs it doesn’t corrode lenses, metal or rubber

A

Glutaraldehyde

65
Q

Effective in presence of organic material

Used for the surface sterilization of surgical instruments

A

Peracetic acid

66
Q

Kills vegetative bacteria

A

Boiling at 100°C for 15 mins

67
Q

What physical mtd kills food pathogens w/o damaging the nutritional value of the flavor?

A

Pasteurizing at 63°C for 30 mins or 72°C for 15 seconds

68
Q

What is a chemical mtd of inactivating DNA and RNA thru alkylation of sulfhydryl grps?

A

Aldehyde

- they also hav irritating fumes

69
Q

What is germicidal in 10 mins and sporicidal in 3-10 hrs?

A

Glutaraldehyde

70
Q

What is germicidal in 10 minutes and spermicidal in 3-10 hrs?

A

Formaldehyde

71
Q

Surface disinfectants

E.g chlorine (bleach), iodine

A

Halogens

72
Q

Example of this is eye drop with 1% silver nitrate (newborns to prevent infxn w Neisseria gonorrheae)

A

Heavy metals

73
Q

Reduce surface tension of molecules in a liquid

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to this

A

Quats or quaternary ammonium compounds

74
Q

Not sporicidal
Acts by pptating CHONs
Found in germicidal soaps

A

Phenolics

E.g ortho-phenylphenol, -benzyl-para-chloroohenol

75
Q

H2O2

A

Oxidizing agents

76
Q

Temperature is directly proportional to the degree of

A

Disinfection

77
Q

Resistant < or =

A

Ampicillin 17
Ceftriaxone 24
Meropenem 22

Co-trimoxazole R 17
I 18-29
S 21

78
Q

All bacilli are gram negative except

A

Bacillus, Clostridium, Mycobacterium, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Nocardia, Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, Kurthia, Rothia.

79
Q

E.g. of amphitrichous bacteria

A

Campylobacter jejuni

80
Q
  • act as detergents
  • more effective against G (-)
A

Polymyxins (B and Colistin)

81
Q

Inhibit teichoic acid synthesis

A

Nalidixic acid

82
Q

Permit rapid diffusion

A

Ionophores

83
Q

Binds to membrane in Ca dependent manner causing depolarization of bacterial mem potential

A

Daptomycin

84
Q

most are for topical use to avoid toxicity

A

Daptomycin

85
Q

bind to the 50s portion and inhibits
formation of peptide bonds

A

Chloramphenicol

86
Q

changes shape of 30s portion causing
code on mRNA to be read incorrectly

A

Streptomycin

87
Q

interfere with the attachment of tRNA to
mRNA ribosome complex

A

Tetracyclines

88
Q

broad spectrum antibiotic

A

chloramphe

89
Q

usually used for mycobacteria
(pulmonary tuberculosis)

A

streptomy

90
Q

alternative to patients with allergies to
penicillin and penicillin derivative drugs

A

erythromycin

91
Q

more common
semi-synthetic drugs; better and deeper penetration
than erythromycin

A

Azithromycin and telithromycin

92
Q

used for penicillin-resistant gram-positive
bacteria

A

Linezolid

93
Q

Inhibit microbial DNA synthesis by blocking
DNA gyrase

A

FLUOROQUINOLONES

94
Q

bind strongly to the DNA dependent RNA
polymerase of bacteria, inhibits bacterial RNA
synthesis

A

RIFAMPIN

95
Q

for herpes virus, shingles, chicken pox and
hepatitis B infections

A

ACYCLOVIR

96
Q
A

Preventive And Social Medicine II (32 decks)

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