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Step 1 > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

How do you culture H. flu?

A

Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

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2
Q

How do you culture N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis?

A

Thayer-Martin (or VPN) media –> Vancomycin + Polymyxin, and Nystatin

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3
Q

How do you culture B. pertussis?

A

Bordet-Gengou agar (potato)

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4
Q

How do you culture C. diptheriae?

A

Tellurite agar, Loffler medium

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5
Q

How do you culture M. tuberculosis?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

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6
Q

How do you culture M. pneumoniae?

A

Eaton agar - requires cholesterol

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7
Q

How do you culture lactose-fermenting enterics?

A

Pink colonies on MacConkey agar. E. coli also grown on EMB as shiny green colonies.

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8
Q

How do you culture Legionella?

A

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron

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9
Q

How do you culture fungi?

A

Sabouraud agar

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10
Q

What bug has yellow granules?

A

Actinomyces israelii – yellow “sulfur” granules composed of filaments of bacteria

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11
Q

What bug has yellow pigment (not granules)?

A

Staph. aureus (aureus means “gold”)

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12
Q

What bug has green pigment?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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13
Q

What bug has red pigment?

A

Serratia marcescens (think” maraschino cherries”)

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14
Q

Which bacterial capsule contains D-glutamate instead of polysaccharide?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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15
Q

What bugs stain with Giemsa stain?

A

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsiae, Trypanosomes, Plasmodium

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16
Q

What does PAS stain for, and what bugs are positive?

A

Stains glycogen - Whipple disease (Tropheryma whipplei)

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17
Q

What does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain stain?

A

Acid-fast organisms - Norcardia, mycobacterium

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18
Q

What bugs show up on silver stain?

A

Fungi, Legionella, and H. pylori

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19
Q

What group of bacteria generally have a foul smell?

A

Obligate anaerobes - lack catalase or superoxide dismutase. Aminoglycosides are ineffective

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20
Q

What is Protein A?

A

Binds Fc region of IgG - prevents opsonization & phagocytosis. Staph aureus.

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21
Q

What is M protein?

A

Helps prevent phagocytosis –> in group A streptococcus

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22
Q

What does diptheria toxin do?

A

Inactivates EF-2 (no more protein synthesis)

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23
Q

What is Exotoxin A?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa toxin : Inhibits EF-2

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24
Q

What do Shiga and Shiga-like toxin do?

A

Inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA

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25
Q

What does ETEC heat-labile toxin do?

A

Overactivates adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP and increase Cl- secretion into gut

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26
Q

What does ETEC heat-stable toxin do?

A

Overactivates guanylate cyclase to increase cGMP and decrease reabsorption of NaCl and water in the gut (Labile in Air, Stable on Ground)

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27
Q

What bug has edema factor, and what does it do?

A

Bacillus anthracis - mimics adenylate cyclase enzyme to increase cAMP (responsible for edematous borders of black eschar)

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28
Q

What does cholera toxin do?

A

Overactivates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP) by permanently activating Gs –> increased Cl- secretion and H2O efflux

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29
Q

What does pertussis toxin do?

A

Overactivates adenylate cyclase (inc cAMP) by disabling Gi - impairs phagocytosis to permit microbe survival

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30
Q

What does Tetanospasmin do?

A

Cleaves SNARE proteins responsible for GABA and glycine release (from Renshaw cells in spinal cord)

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31
Q

What does botulinum toxin do?

A

Cleaves SNARE proteins responsible for ACh release

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32
Q

What bug has alpha toxin, and what does it do?

A

Clostridium perfringens - Phospholipase (lecithinase) that degrades tissue and cell membranes –> myonecrosis and gas gangrene

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33
Q

What bug has streptolysin O, and what does it do?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes - Protein that degrades cell membrane –> lyses RBCs (contributes to B-hemolysis)

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34
Q

What does TSST-1 do?

A

Brings MHC II and TCR in proximity to outside of antigen-binding site to cause overwhelming release of IFN-gamma and IL-2

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35
Q

What second bug has Exotoxin A, and what does it do?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes - Brings MHC II and TCR in proximity to outside of antigen-binding site to cause overwhelming release of IFN-gamma and IL-2 (superantigen)

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36
Q

What does Endotoxin cause?

A

Edema, Nitric Oxide, DIC/Death, Outer Membrane, TNF-alpha, O-antigen, eXtremely heat stable, IL-1, Neutrophil chemotaxis

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37
Q

Which bacterial toxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage?

A

ABCDE: ShigA-like toxin, Botulinum toxin, Cholera toxin, Diptheria toxin, Erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes

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38
Q

Word association: Novobiocin resistant?

A

Staph saprophyticus

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39
Q

What two bugs are distinguished by sensitivity to Bacitracin?

A

S. pyogenes is sensitive, S. agalactiae is resistant (both B-hemolytic)

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40
Q

What is used to distinguish gamma-hemolytic strep species?

A

Group D/ enterococcus can grow in bile and 6.5% NaCl.

Nonenterococcus (strep bovis) cannot.

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41
Q

Optochin sensitivity distinguished between which bugs?

A

Alpha-hemolytic strep:
S. pneumo is optochin sensitive (and bile soluble)
Viridans strep is Optochin resistant (and bile insoluble)

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42
Q

Which bugs are B-hemolytic?

A

Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes, Strep agalactiae, Listeria

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43
Q

What the bleep is S. sanguinis???

A

Part of Viridans group Strep - makes dextrans which bind fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves –> endocarditis. Dental caries are Strep

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44
Q

How does Rheumatic fever originate?

A

Antibodies to M protein of GAS. ASO detects recent infection. (Jones criteria - joints, heart, nodules (subQ), erythema, syndenham chorea)

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45
Q

With Group A strep, is impetigo more common before pharyngitis or glomerulonephritis?

A

glomerulonephritis

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46
Q

Which bug is Hippurate test +?

A

Strep agalactiae (also has CAMP factor that helps in hemolysis)

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47
Q

What are Lancefield antigens based on?

A

Differences in the C carbohydrate on strep bacterial cell wall (D includes enterococci)

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48
Q

What bacteria shows gram positive rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules?

A

Crynebacterium diptheriae (club-shaped)

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49
Q

What do spores have in their core?

A

Dipicolinic acid (autoclave to kill spores)

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50
Q

What bug (and toxin) cause reheated rice syndrome?

A

Bacillus cereus - toxin is cereulide (preformed)

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51
Q

How does Listeria evade the immune system?

A

Forms “rocket tails” via actin polymerization –> moce through cytoplasm and into cell membrane to avoid antibody (tumbling motility)

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52
Q

What is the only gram-positive organism to produce LPS?

A

Listeria

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53
Q

What bug often causes oral/facial abscesses?

A

Actinomyces

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54
Q

What bacteria resemble fungi?

A

Actinomyces and Nocardia

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55
Q

What is cord factor?

A

In mycobacteria - inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha. *Sulfatides (surface glycolipids) inhibit phagolysosome fusion.

56
Q

Lepromatous vs. Tuberculoid leprosy: what types of immune response predominates?

A

Lepromatous - Th2
Tuberculoid - Th1
*Leprosy likes cold parts of body (stocking/glove)

57
Q

How do you differentiate the oxidase +, gram -, comma-shaped rods?

A

C. jejuni - grows at 42 C
V. cholerae - Grows in alkaline media
H. pylori - produces urease

58
Q

Which bug produces B-galactosidase?

A

E. coli –> breaks lactose into glucose and galactose

59
Q

What large group of bugs are resistant to Pen G and vanc but not penicillin derivatives?

A

Gram negatives - outer membrane inhibits entry of pen G and vancomycin

60
Q

What is used to prevent neonatal transmission of gonorrhoea?

A

Erythromycin ointment

61
Q

What should you use to treat mucosal infections of H. flu?

A

Amoxicillin and clavulanate. Ceftriaxone for meningitis

62
Q

Which bug is detected by presence of antigen in the urine?

A

Legionella (treat wiht macrolide or quinolone)

63
Q

What is Pontiac Fever?

A

Mild flu-like syndrome from Legionella

64
Q

Chronic pseudomonas pneumonia in a CF patient is associated with what?

A

Biofilms

65
Q

What is ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Ulcerous lesions from pseudomonas

66
Q

What is unique about EPEC?

A

Common for diarrhea in Pediatrics (Prevents absorption by adhering to apical surface)

67
Q

Which E. coli does NOT ferment sorbitol?

A

EHEC

68
Q

What special groups are associated with Klebsiella?

A

Diabetics and Alcoholics

69
Q

Which GI bug is notable for producing hydrogen sulfide?

A

Salmonella (also, antibiotics may prolong fecal excretion of organism)

70
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella: what types of cells respond?

A

Salmonella - monocytic response

Shigella - PMN infiltrate

71
Q

Which bug causes mesenteric adenitis that can mimic Crohn’s or appendicitis?

A

Yersinia entercolitica (from pet feces, contaminated milk, or pork)

72
Q

Name the spirochetes.

A

Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema (BLT)

73
Q

Tell me about Leptospira interrogans.

A

From water contaminated with animal urine (surfers and in tropics) - flu-like symptoms w/ jaundice, photophobia, and conjunctival suffusion. Weil disease is severe form w/ azotemia from liver and kidney dysfxn.

74
Q

What bug causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (Ixodes tick)

75
Q

When does transmission of congenital syphilis normally occur?

A

After the first trimester

76
Q

What are some causes of false positives on VDRL testing?

A

Viruses (mono, hepatitis), Drugs, Rheumatic Fever, Lupus and Leprosy (VDRL)

77
Q

What causes relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia recurrentis (transmitted by louse)

78
Q

What infection is assocaited with aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid?

A

Q Fever from Coxiella burnetii

79
Q

What insect caries Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Dermacentor ticks

80
Q

Clue cells are associated with what infection?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis - associated with sexual activity, but not sexually transmitted. Overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria in the vagina.

81
Q

What is the treatment for all Rickettsia and vector-borne illnesses?

A

Doxycycline

82
Q

Where dose RMSF rash start?

A

Wrist and ankles

83
Q

What infections have morulae, and how do you distinguish between them?

A

Ehrlichiosis - morulae (berry-like inclusions) in monocytes

Anaplasma - morulae in granulocytes

84
Q

How does one catch Q fever?

A

Tick feces and cattle placenta release Coxiella spores

85
Q

What makes the chlamydial cell wall special?

A

Lacks muramic acid

86
Q

What do Chlamydia trachomatis Types A,B, and C cause?

A

Chronic infection and blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis in Africa (Africa/Blindness/Chronic)

87
Q

What infection has a high titer of cold agglutinins?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

88
Q

What has budding yeast with “captain’s wheel” formation?

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis - in Latin America

89
Q

Latex agglutination test detects which bug?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans (fungus)

90
Q

Mucormycosis and rhizopus especially like which patients?

A

Ketoacidotic diabetic and leukemic patients –> penetrate cribriform plate (irregular, broad, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles)

91
Q

What are “cigar-shaped budding yeast”?

A

Sporothrix schenkii - treat with potassium iodid (“rose in the pot”)

92
Q

What bug has a “Maltese cross” on blood smear?

A

Babesia (parasite) - also can have ring form. Carried by Ixodes tick. Fever and hemolytic anemia in NE US.

93
Q

What are the signs of visceral leishmaniasis?

A

(Kala-azar) - spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia. Transmitted by sandfly. macrophages contain amastigotes.

94
Q

Which parasite cannot live outside a human b/c it cannot form cysts?

A

Trichomonas (strawberry cervix)

95
Q

Tell me about Onchocerca volvulus.

A

A parasite transmitted by the female blackfly. Causes hyperpigmented skin and river blindness (black flies, black skin nodules, black sight) Allergic reaction to microfilaria possible. Treat w/ Ivermectin

96
Q

What it loa loa?

A

Parasite - deer/horse/mango fly. Swelling skin, worm in conjunctiva. Diethylcarbamazine.

97
Q

What bug causes visceral larva migrans?

A

Toxocara canis –> Bendazoles

98
Q

What drug to treat most tapeworms and flukes?

A

Praziquantel (bendazole for neurocysticercosis)

99
Q

What is Diphyllobothrium latum?

A

Parasite from ingesting raw fish - competes for vit B12 in gut –> anemia

100
Q

Which parasite causes hydatid cysts in the liver?

A

Echinococcus granulosus - ingestion of eggs from dog feces

101
Q

What is clonorchis sinensis?

A

Parasite from undercooked fish - biliary tract inflammation –> pigmented gallstones. Associated with cholangiocarcinoma.

102
Q

Which DNA viruses are circular?

A

Papilloma, polyoma, and hepadna

103
Q

All viruses are single-stranded except for which?

A

Reoviridae

104
Q

Which is the only DNA virus that does not replicate in the nucleus?

A

Poxvirus

105
Q

What are the other names for HHV-3, HHV-4, and HHV-5?

A

3-VZV, 4-EBV, 5-CMV

106
Q

Which virus family is Hep B?

A

Hepadna

107
Q

Which virus causes pink eye?

A

Adenovirus. Also febrile pharyngitis, acute hemorrhagic cystitis, pneumonia

108
Q

What virus family do JC and BK viruses belong to?

A

Polyomavirus

109
Q

JC virus causes what?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephaly

110
Q

BK virus normally infects whom?

A

Transplant patients (esp kidney)

111
Q

Molluscum contagiosum belongs to what virus family?

A

Poxvirus

112
Q

Single “owl eye” in a cell makes you think of what?

A

CMV

113
Q

Hep A belongs to what virus family?

A

Picornavirus

114
Q

Norovirus is from what virus family?

A

calicivirus

115
Q

HCV is from what virus famaily?

A

Flavivirus (so is Yellow fever, dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, and West Nile)

116
Q

What are the togaviruses?

A

Rubella, Eastern and Western equine viruses

117
Q

What causes croup?

A

parainfluenza

118
Q

Waht are the Filoviruses?

A

Ebola/Marburg hemorrhagic fever - often fatal

119
Q

What are the arenaviruses?

A

LCMV, Lassa fever encephalitis (from mice)

120
Q

What are the bunyaviruses?

A

CAlifornia, Sandfly/rift fever, Crimena-Congo, Hantavirus

121
Q

What is special about picornaviruses in terms of protein production?

A

Production of one large polypeptide that is cleaved

122
Q

HDV is from what virus family?

A

RNA delta virus

123
Q

What are the functions of gp120, gp41, gp24, and pol?

A

gp120- Docking glycoprotein
gp41- Fusion and entry
p24(gag)- capsid protein
pol- reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease, integrase

124
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis in HIV is caused by what?

A

BArtonella henselae

125
Q

Waht is the main bug that causes retinitis in HIV?

A

CMV

126
Q

What is the dominant normal flora of the vagina?

A

Lactobacillus

127
Q

What is the reservoir for shigella?

A

Humans only

128
Q

Motility of which bug causes “swarming” on agar?

A

Proteus mirabilis - UTI; assciated with struvite stones

129
Q

How does roseola present?

A

Macular rash appears after several days of high fever. Can have febrile seizures.

130
Q

Koplik spots associated with which childhood infection?

A

Measles

131
Q

What bug causes scarlet fever?

A

Strep pyogenes (A)

132
Q

What causes chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi - painful

133
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis?

A

infection of liver capsule from PID causing “violin string” adhesions

134
Q

What bugs are not covered by Cephalosporins?

A

LAME: Listeria, Atypicals, MRSA, and enterococci

135
Q

What are imipenem administered with?

A

Cilastatin to decrease inactivation of drug in renal tubules.

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