Michelle Summary Flashcards

1
Q

Gs?

A
B1
B2
H2
D1
(heart and lungs)
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2
Q

Gi?

A

M2 (in SAN)

A2 (in heart)

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3
Q

Gq?

A

A1
M1
M3

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4
Q

Parasympathetic = short preganglionic fibres and sympathetic = long, true or false?

A

false, other way around

go into chains then go to eyes, heart, lungs etc

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5
Q

what is heamethonium?

A

non-competitive antagonist that sits in the nicotinic ganglionic channel and blocks it

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6
Q

conceptus?

A

fetrtilization > week 3

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7
Q

embryo?

A

week 4 > 8

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8
Q

foetus?

A

week 9 > birth

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9
Q

what are the 6 stages of development?

A
gametogenesis
fertilization
cleavage
gastrulation
morphogenesis
organogenesis
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10
Q

gametogenesis?

A

forms oocyte or spermatozoa

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11
Q

fertilization?

A

fusion to form zygote in ampulla

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12
Q

cleavage?

A

rapid cell division

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13
Q

gastrulation?

A

germ layers form

  • exoderm = outer - becomes skin and NS
  • mesoderm = middle - becomes organs
  • endoderm - becomes all tubes (gut and lungs etc)
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14
Q

morphogenesis?

A

cluster forms a 3D shape

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15
Q

organogenesis?

A

formation of organs and structures

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16
Q

zona pellucida?

A

protective layer around oocyte

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17
Q

primary bronchial buds?

A

bifurcation of rachea produces left and right bronchi

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18
Q

2ndary bronchial buds?

A

further bifurcation into 3 right and 2 left bronchi

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19
Q

what happens to foramen ovale in adults?

A

closes due to increased pressure and becomes the fossa ovalis

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20
Q

what gives rise to the heart?

A

visceral mesoderm

develops during week 4

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21
Q

heart tube from cranial > caudal?

A

truncus arteriosus (R aorta and pulm trunk)
bulbus cordus (R ventricle)
ventricle (left ventricle)
atrium (both atria)
sinus venosus (R. atria and coronary sinus)

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22
Q

what is septation?

A

division from folds into 4 heart chambers

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23
Q

what is churg strauss?

A

vasculitis with eosinophilic granulomatosis
assoc. with allergic airway hypersensitivity (asthma)
pANCA

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24
Q

wegner’s granulomatosis?

A

vasculitis of nose, lungs, kidneys and throat
causes sinusitis, renal failure etc
assoc. with epistaxis or haemoptysis
cANCA

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25
Q

what is kussmaul breathing?

A

deep laboured breathing in attempt to blow off CO2 to reduce metabolic acidosis

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26
Q

normal waist circumference?

A

<37 inches

27
Q

components of med. diet?

A
starchy foods
fish
less meat
olive oil
swap dairy for soya
28
Q

pressure in atria and ventricles during passive filling?

A

0

29
Q

when are korotkoff sounds heard?

A

when cuff pressure between syst and dias

30
Q

right axis deviation?

A

III is most +ve

I and II are -ve

31
Q

left axis deviation?

A

I is most positive

II and III are -ve

32
Q

prolonged PR interval?

A

> 0.2 secs

sign of heart block

33
Q

U waves?

A

sign of bradycardia, hypokalaemia or digoxin

34
Q

how is HR measured?

A

300/number of large squares between R waves

35
Q

how do you measure irregular HR?

A

number of QRS’s in 30 large squares X10

36
Q

how is MAP calculated?

A

1/3rd of (systolic + (2 X diastolic))
diastolic + 1/3rd pulse pressure
CO X SVR

37
Q

what makes up total body fluid?

A

60% water

2/3 ICF, 1/3 ECF

38
Q

baroreceptor firing in decreased BP?

A

decreased firing via aortic (vagus) and carotid (CN IX)

39
Q

effect of decreased vagal stimulation on medulla?

A

increased HR > increased CO > increased BP

40
Q

effect of increased sympathetic stimulation on medulla?

A

increased SV > increased CO > increased BP

41
Q

effect of increased sympathetic vaso/veno-constrictor tone on medulla?

A

increased SV > increased BP

42
Q

where is ADH produced and stored?

A

produced in hypothalamus

stored in posterior pituitary

43
Q

what stimulates ADH release?

A

RAAS

increased ECF osmolality (monitored by osmoreceptors in brain)

44
Q

what does ADH do?

A

acts on tubules to retain H2O which concentrates urine

vasoconstricts, esp in hypovolaemic shock

45
Q

what counter-regulates the RAAS system and decreased BP?

A

Natriuretic peptides (NPs)

46
Q

what are the 2 types of NP and where are they released from?

A
ANP = atrial myocytes
BNP = ventricular myocytes, brain etc (increases in HF)
47
Q

what do NPs do?

A

released in response to cardiac distension

  1. increase Na and H2O excretion
  2. decrease renin release
  3. vasodilate
48
Q

there is no parasympathetic innervation in blood vessels smooth muscle, true or false?

A

true (apart from genitalia)

49
Q

name 8 vasodilators

A
NO
histamine
bradykinin
adrenaline
dobutamine
ANP
BNP
PGI2
50
Q

name 5 vasoconstrictors

A
endothelin
leukotrienes (asthma, mast cells)
thromboxane A2
serotonin
adrenaline on alpha (skin, gut, kidneys)
51
Q

investigations for intermittent claudication?

A

non invasive = ABPI (systolic)
- should be 0.4-0.85
Invasive = MRA, CT angio/catheter

52
Q

critical limb ischaemia?

A

pain at rest, worse lying flat, better moving around

53
Q

6 Ps of acute limb ischaemia?

A
pain
pallor
pulseless
perishingly cold
paraesthesia
paralysis
54
Q

salvageable limb ischaemia?

A

<12 hrs

blanching mottled

55
Q

non-salvageable limb ischaemia?

A

red, tender compartment of calf

>12 hrs

56
Q

management of acute limb ischaemia?

A
ABC
bloods
ECG
CXR
anticoagulants
arterial imaging
if in doubt - urgent CT/catheter angio
57
Q

3 components of diabetic foot sepsis?

A

diabetic neuropathy
peripheral vascular disease
infection

58
Q

pathogenesis of aneurysm?

A

defect of elastin/collagen > dilation/increased aortic wall stress

59
Q

AAA diagnosis?

A

1st line = US

CT if looking to tell whether its ruptured

60
Q

diseases assoc with mitral regurg?

A
rheumatic disease
MI/papillary rupture
LVH
cardiomyopathy
Marfans
61
Q

diseases assoc with mitral stenosis?

A
rheumatic fever
SLE
calcification
amyloidosis
prosthetic valve
62
Q

diseases assoc with aortic regurgitation?

A
cusp rupture
marfans
rheumatoid arthritis
SLE
aortic dissection
infection > perforation
ankylosing spondylitis
syphilis
63
Q

diseases assoc with aortic stenosis?

A

congenital
age-related calcification
rheumatic disease

64
Q

tricuspid regurgitation?

A

pan systolic

high pitched