Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Holy Grail Docs > Cardio Bible > Flashcards

Cardio Bible Flashcards

1
Q

what are the side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

dry cough

hyperkalaemi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when are ACE inhibitors contraindicated?

A

pregnancy

renal artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are tall tented T waves and wide QRS complexes indicative of?

A

hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does rib notching on CXR indicate?

A

coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does radial-radial delay indicate?

A

aortic dissection/coarctation of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

collapsing pulse?

A

aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

slow rising pulse?

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

crescendo-decrescendo murmur?

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who gets staph aureus endocarditis?

A

prosthetic valves

IV drug users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

who gets strep viridans endocarditis?

A

post dental surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how is AF treated?

A 
treat underlying cause
Control ventricular rate with:
- Beta blocker/Ca blocker
- Add digoxin or amiodarone
Anticoagulate
- heparin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does clopidogrel work?

A

binds to P2Y12 receptor via disulphide bond so ADP cant bind, GP not expressed, reduced platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does heparin work?

A

binds to AT3 and increases affinity for clotting factors to inactivate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the ductus arteriosus?

A

connection between pulmonary artery and descending aorta during foetal development to bypass the lungs
should close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a patent ductus arteriosus and what is the main sign of it?

A

connection between the pulmonary artery and descending aorta due to failure of the closure of ductus arteriousus
continuous machine like murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does strawberry milkshake coloured blood indicate?

A

hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which dermatome does the herpes zoster virus (shingles) affect?

A

rash at level T4/T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme in the production of cholesterol?

A

HMG - CoA - Reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do cholesterol lowering drugs target?

Give an example?

A

HMG - CoA - Reductase enzyme

Statins = competitive inhibitor of HMG - CoA - Reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are 2 side effects of statins?

A

rhabdomyolysis (death of muscle fibres and contents released into blood affecting the kidneys)
myositis (inflammation of muscles of movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the symptoms of an AAA?

A

expansile pulsatile mass

central abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is an AAA treated, depending on size?

A

only intervene if >5cm or grown more than 0.5cm in past 6 months/1cm in past year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is an aneurysm?

A

vessel dilated more than 50% of normal diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

true vs false aneurysm?

A 
true = vessel wall intact just swollen
false = breach in vessel wall, surrounding structures act as vessel wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
3 types of aneurysm?
saccular (berry) fusiform (in line with artery) mycotic (2ndary to infectious process, all 3 layers)
26
how is AAA diagnosed?
Doppler US | CT ( better as shows whether ruptured)
27
how is an AAA managed?
open repair | EVAR (better - excludes from inside artery)
28
salvageable acute limb ischaemia?
- 0-4 hrs - white foot - painful - sensorimotor deficit
29
partly salvageable acute limb ischaemia?
4-12 hrs mottled appearance blanches on pressure
30
non-salvageable acute limb ischaemia?
``` >12 hrs fixed mottling non-blanching paralysis compartments tender/red ```
31
what is the triad of diabetic foot problems and what can it cause?
diabetic neuropathy peripheral vascular disease infection can cause necrosis, ulceration and gangrene
32
what is kussmaul's breathing?
sign of severe metabolic acidosis | indicated diabetic problem (eg. DKA)
33
how is diabetic foot sepsis managed?
vascular surgical emergency - remove infected tissue | appropriate antibiotics
34
how is diabetic foot sepsis managed?
vascular surgical emergency - remove infected tissue | appropriate antibiotics
35
what is the main innervation of the heart at rest?
parasympathetic via vagus nerve (to keep the HR low)
36
what effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
negative chronotropic effect | slows heart rate
37
how does the sympathetic nervous system innervate the heart and what effect does it have?
via adenosine B1 receptors | positive chronotropic effect (increases HR)
38
what is the longest vein in the body?
great saphenous
39
which artery supplys the SA node?
right coronary artery
40
which artery supplies the AV node?
AV nodal branch of right coronary artery
41
name a potassssium sparring diuretic
spironolactone
42
what are the components of tetralogy of fallot?
RV hypertrophy ventricular septal defect Overriding aorta Pulmonary stenosis
43
which side of the heart is generally affected in IV drug users?
right side
44
what are the anterior branches of the thoracic aorta?
``` bronchial oesophageal mediastinal pericardial phrenic arteries ```
45
what is the counter regulatory mechanism to the RAAS system?
Atrial natriuretic peptide | ANP
46
what does ANP do?
released in response to atrial distension/hypervolaemia | acts as vasodilator and decreases renin release
47
what is the carotid sinus?
dilated area at base of internal carotid just above bifurcation detects stretching of walls for BP changes monitors blood gas and pH
48
what nerve innervates the carotid sinus?
glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
49
a 4th heart sound is always pathological, true or false?
true | active filling of stiff ventricle by atrial contraction
50
what does a 4th heart sound often indicate?
LVH
51
what causes a splitting of the 2nd heart sound?
due to inspiration pulmonary being behind aortic compartment usually normal
52
name 3 orally given anticoagulants
warfarin digoxin rivaroxaban
53
which murmur is associated with AF?
mitral regurgitation
54
what is the treatment for ventricular tachycardia?
adenosine/Ca blocker/Beta blocker amiodarone cardioversion
55
what is atropine?
competitive antagonist of muscarinic ACh receptors | blocks parasympathetic reversing bradycardia after MI
56
where does the azygous vein lie?
right side of thoracic vertebrae | loops around lung root
57
which drug causes a slate grey rash as a side effect?
amiodarone
58
what is metoclopramide?
antiemetic given for gastroparesis or post MI
59
characteristics of aortic regurgitation?
``` SOB/chest pain high volume collapsing pulse early diastolic wide pulse pressure left lower sternal edge leaning forward on expiration ```
60
which murmur is associated with IV drug users?
tricuspid regurgitation

Holy Grail Docs (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions