Management of Fractures Flashcards

1
Q

What four factors can help predict most orthopaedic injuries?

A

Chief complaint, age of the patient, mechanism of injury, and energy of trauma.

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2
Q

What should you do if a fracture is suspected clinically but X-rays are negative?

A

Treat it as a fracture and reassess clinically and radiographically in 7–10 days.

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3
Q

When should radiographic studies be performed in fracture care?

A

Before attempting most reductions, unless delay would be harmful.

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4
Q

What neurovascular checks are essential in fracture management?

A

Neurovascular status must be checked and documented before and after reductions and immobilisation.

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5
Q

What’s the difference between a closed and open fracture?

A

Closed: Skin is intact; Open: Bone is exposed to the outside environment.

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6
Q

How should fracture location be described?

A

Using the name of the bone, side (left/right), and specific reference points (e.g., distal third of the right radius).

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7
Q

What terms describe the direction of fracture lines?

A

Transverse, oblique, spiral.

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8
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

A fracture with more than two bone fragments.

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9
Q

How is displacement described in fractures?

A

Based on the position of the distal fragment relative to the proximal.

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10
Q

What does angulation refer to in fractures?

A

Deviation in the longitudinal axis, described by the apex direction.

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11
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

A fragment pulled away by tendon or ligament force.

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12
Q

What is an impaction fracture?

A

One bone fragment is forcefully driven into another.

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13
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

Fracture through weakened bone due to disease (e.g., malignancy, osteomalacia).

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14
Q

What is a stress fracture?

A

A fracture from repetitive low-intensity forces (aka fatigue or March fracture).

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15
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

Incomplete fracture causing angulation, common in children.

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16
Q

What is a torus fracture?

A

Incomplete fracture with buckling of the cortex.

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17
Q

What is the Salter-Harris classification used for?

A

Describing epiphyseal (growth plate) fractures.

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18
Q

Describe Salter-Harris Type I injury.

A

A slip of the growth plate only.

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19
Q

What is a Type V Salter-Harris fracture?

A

Crushing injury to the growth plate.

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20
Q

What is the primary imaging modality for fractures?

A

Plain X-ray.

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21
Q

How many views are mandatory in long bone X-rays?

A

At least two perpendicular views (AP and lateral).

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22
Q

What imaging is helpful for detecting stress fractures early?

A

MRI or bone scans.

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23
Q

When should CT be used in fracture diagnosis?

A

To assess alignment, displacement, or confirm complex fractures.

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24
Q

What is the sequence of fracture healing?

A

Haematoma → Inflammation → Callus formation → Ossification → Remodelling.

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25
Q

How long does a femur fracture typically take to heal in a healthy adult?

A

Around 4 months.

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26
Q

What type of fractures heal faster: oblique or transverse?

A

Oblique fractures.

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27
Q

What factors can delay healing?

A

Corticosteroids, hyperthyroidism, chronic hypoxia, and poor alignment.

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28
Q

What is delayed union?

A

Healing that takes longer than expected.

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29
Q

What is malunion?

A

Fracture heals with deformity.

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30
Q

What is nonunion?

A

A fracture fails to unite.

31
Q

What is pseudarthrosis?

A

A false joint formed due to nonunion.

32
Q

What are the 5 Ps of vascular injury?

A

Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis.

33
Q

What is the hallmark sign of compartment syndrome?

A

Pain out of proportion to the injury.

34
Q

What is the treatment for compartment syndrome?

A

Complete fasciotomy.

35
Q

What bones are prone to avascular necrosis?

A

Femoral head, talus, scaphoid, lunate, capitate.

36
Q

What is fat embolism syndrome associated with?

A

Long bone or pelvic fractures, especially in young adults.

37
Q

What are early signs of fat embolism syndrome?

A

Respiratory distress and hypoxaemia.

38
Q

What is a sprain?

A

Injury to ligament fibres due to abnormal joint motion.

39
Q

What is tendinitis?

A

Inflammation at a tendon’s insertion, often from overuse.

40
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of a bursa, commonly at joints like elbow, knee, and shoulder.

41
Q

What is a subluxation?

A

Partial loss of joint surface contact.

42
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

Complete loss of joint congruity.

43
Q

What is a fracture dislocation?

A

A fracture occurring along with a joint dislocation.

44
Q

What are the first priorities in managing trauma with orthopaedic injury?

A

Life- and limb-threatening injuries (ABCDE of trauma).

45
Q

What are the mainstays of orthopaedic treatment?

A

Pain control, reduction, immobilisation, surgery, and rehabilitation.

46
Q

What are common methods of immobilisation?

A

Splints, braces, casts, bandages.

47
Q

How are long bone fractures classified by location?

A

Diaphyseal (shaft), metaphyseal, and epiphyseal (end of bone).

48
Q

What is the difference between simple and complex (comminuted) fractures?

A

Simple: two bone fragments; Comminuted: more than two fragments.

49
Q

What is an intra-articular fracture?

A

A fracture that extends into the joint space.

50
Q

What is an extra-articular fracture?

A

A fracture that does not involve the joint space.

51
Q

What injury type is typically caused by a twisting mechanism?

A

Spiral fracture.

52
Q

What injury is common in elderly women after low-energy trauma (like a fall)?

A

Colles’ fracture (distal radius).

53
Q

What kind of trauma often causes pelvic fractures?

A

High-energy trauma (e.g., MVCs, falls from height).

54
Q

What fracture type is associated with repetitive loading (like in runners)?

A

Stress fracture (fatigue fracture).

55
Q

What is Volkmann’s ischemic contracture?

A

Contracture of the forearm muscles due to untreated compartment syndrome.

56
Q

What is myositis ossificans?

A

Bone formation within muscle tissue after trauma.

57
Q

What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD) aka complex regional pain syndrome?

A

Pain, swelling, and skin changes following an injury without nerve damage.

58
Q

What is the most common nerve injury in a midshaft humeral fracture?

A

Radial nerve injury.

59
Q

What nerve is commonly injured in a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic nerve.

60
Q

Name systemic factors that impair fracture healing.

A

Smoking, diabetes, corticosteroid use, malnutrition, hypothyroidism.

61
Q

What vitamins are essential for fracture healing?

A

Vitamin D and Vitamin C.

62
Q

How does smoking affect bone healing?

A

Reduces blood flow and oxygenation, delaying healing.

63
Q

What fracture might be missed on X-ray and seen only on MRI or bone scan?

A

Stress fracture.

64
Q

What imaging is most sensitive for detecting occult hip fractures?

65
Q

What is the radiologic hallmark of a nonunion?

A

Persistent fracture line with no signs of bridging callus.

66
Q

What are the radiographic signs of healing?

A

Bridging callus, obliteration of fracture line, and cortex continuity.

67
Q

What is the goal of reduction in fracture care?

A

To restore anatomic alignment and joint function.

68
Q

When should open reduction be considered?

A

When closed reduction fails, or in cases of intra-articular or unstable fractures.

69
Q

What is internal fixation?

A

Stabilisation using plates, screws, or rods inside the body.

70
Q

What is external fixation?

A

Use of external frames with pins or wires to stabilise fractures.

71
Q

What is traction used for in fracture treatment?

A

To realign bones, reduce muscle spasm, and maintain length.

72
Q

What is a pathological fracture?

A

A fracture through bone weakened by disease (e.g., cancer, osteoporosis).

73
Q

What is the most common site of pathological fractures?

A

Vertebrae (spine) and proximal femur.

74
Q

What test is used to detect fat embolism?

A

Chest imaging and ABG (hypoxemia is often present), clinical triad is key: petechiae, hypoxia, altered mental status.