Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

What is the correct definition of infectivity?

A

The ability of an organism to infect a host

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2
Q

Which of the following fluids should be microbe-free in a healthy individual?

A

Blood

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3
Q

What is the primary function of bacterial fimbriae and pili?

A

Adhesion to host cells

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune response?

A

T cells

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5
Q

Which bacterial structure helps in immune system evasion by preventing phagocytosis?

A

Capsule

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6
Q

Which of the following is an example of an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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7
Q

Which bacterial species produces a neurotoxin that blocks acetylcholine release, causing flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium botulinum

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8
Q

Which of the following is a strategy bacteria use to evade the immune system?

A

Antigenic variation

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9
Q

Which bacterial pathogen is capable of living intracellularly and escaping from vacuoles to survive in the host cell’s cytoplasm?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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10
Q

What type of bacterial toxin is heat stable and weakly toxic, but causes general symptoms such as fever and diarrhea?

A

Endotoxin

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11
Q

What is the correct definition of a commensal bacterium?

A

A bacterium that benefits from the host without harming it

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12
Q

How can commensal bacteria prevent pathogen colonization?

A

By occupying available niches and competing for resources

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13
Q

What can cause an imbalance in the human microbiome, leading to overgrowth of certain commensal bacteria?

A

Antibiotic use and immune deficiency

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14
Q

what does pathogenicity refer to?

A

Pathogenicity refers to a pathogen’s ability to cause disease

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15
Q

The human microbiome consists of:

A

Microorganisms and their genomes that inhabit the human body

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16
Q

What is dysbiosis?

A

A microbial imbalance or maladaptation in the body

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17
Q

What best describes a prebiotic?

A

A non-digestible food ingredient that promotes beneficial bacterial growth

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18
Q

What is the role of probiotics in the human microbiome?

A

They help stimulate immune system development and prevent pathogen colonization

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19
Q

Which of the following best describes probiosis?

A

An association between organisms that enhances life processes for both

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20
Q

How does the human microbiome influence bacterial pathogenesis?

A

It can contain bacteria that are commensal or mutualistic, but some may become pathogenic

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21
Q

What is one potential risk of disrupting the balance of the microbiome?

A

Development of dysbiosis, leading to infections

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22
Q

Which of the following is a potential benefit of the human microbiome?

A

Producing beneficial nutrients and destroying toxins

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23
Q

How do antibiotics contribute to microbial imbalance?

A

By killing both harmful and beneficial bacteria, disrupting microbiome balance

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24
Q

What happens when commensal bacteria spread into previously sterile areas of the body?

A

They may cause infections

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25
Q

Which of the following is an example of a prebiotic?

A

Fiber-rich foods that promote beneficial bacterial growth

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26
Q

Why is the microbiome sometimes referred to as a “second genome”?

A

It contains DNA that contributes to the overall genetic makeup of humans

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27
Q

What is the main function of gut microbiota in digestion?

A

Breaking down and fermenting complex carbohydrates

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28
Q

How does the microbiome contribute to immune system development?

A

It trains immune cells to recognize beneficial and harmful microbes

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29
Q

How many bacterial species can be found as normal oral flora?

A

Up to 500 species.

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30
Q

How many bacterial cells can be found in 1 mL of saliva?

A

40 million

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31
Q

Which bacterial genus and species is commonly known as a “lab rat” and is non-pathogenic?

A

Escherichia coli K12.

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32
Q

Which strain of E. coli is known for causing food poisoning and hemolytic uremia?

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7.

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33
Q

What is the difference between Bacillus subtilis and Bacillus anthracis?

A

B. subtilis is a soil bacterium and non-pathogenic, whereas B. anthracis causes anthrax.

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34
Q

What disease is caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Bacterial meningitis.

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35
Q

What disease is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Gonorrhea.

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36
Q

What is the primary function of flagella in bacteria?

A

Motility.

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37
Q

Which bacterium is responsible for peptic ulcers and requires motility for virulence?

A

Helicobacter pylori.

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38
Q

Does Listeria monocytogenes require flagella for virulence?

A

No, flagella-mediated motility is not essential for virulence.

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39
Q

What are the main methods used to classify bacteria?

A

Gram staining, morphology, nutritional/enzymatic properties, protein/lipid profiling.

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40
Q

What is the key difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, whereas Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane and a thin peptidoglycan layer.

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41
Q

Which component in Gram-negative bacteria contributes to their outer protective layer?

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

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42
Q

Which type of bacteria contain teichoic acid in their cell wall?

A

Gram-positive bacteria.

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43
Q

Which bacterial species lack a conventional cell wall?

A

Chlamydia species.

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44
Q

Which staining method is used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Acid-fast staining.

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45
Q

What is a bacterial capsule composed of?

A

Strain-specific complex carbohydrates.

46
Q

Which bacterial species produces a slimy, mucoid colony due to its capsule?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae.

47
Q

Which bacterial shape is typically arranged in chains?

A

Cocci (e.g., Streptococcus species).

48
Q

Which Gram-positive bacteria can form spores?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium species.

49
Q

What are spores resistant to?

A

Heat (100°C), desiccation, and chemicals.

50
Q

What are the basic elements required for bacterial growth?

A

Carbon, nitrogen, phosphate, sulfate, minerals, and trace elements like iron

51
Q

What is MacConkey agar used for?

A

It is selective for Gram-negative bacteria and differentiates lactose fermenters.

52
Q

Why do lactose fermenters appear different on MacConkey agar?

A

Fermentation lowers pH, causing a color change.

53
Q

What is the oxygen requirement of Escherichia coli?

A

Facultative anaerobe.

54
Q

What is MALDI-TOF MS used for?

A

Protein and lipid profiling for bacterial identification.

55
Q

What is a limitation of MALDI-TOF MS in bacterial identification?

A

It is not suitable for very closely related strains or rare pathogens.

56
Q

What is serotyping used for?

A

To detect specific surface structures (capsule, O-antigen, flagella).

57
Q

What do the letters “K,” “O,” and “H” stand for in Escherichia coli serotyping?

A

K = Capsule, O = O-antigen, H = Flagella.

58
Q

What are the two main genetic components of bacteria?

A

Chromosome (usually circular) and plasmids.

59
Q

What are plasmids, and why are they important?

A

Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can carry antibiotic resistance genes.

60
Q

What is the purpose of PCR in bacterial identification?

A

To detect the presence of specific DNA sequences in a sample.

61
Q

What is the advantage of whole genome sequencing in microbiology?

A

It helps track outbreaks, predict antibiotic resistance, and study pathogen evolution.

62
Q

What are the three main mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

63
Q

Which form of gene transfer involves a bacterial virus (phage)?

A

Transduction.

64
Q

Which form of gene transfer involves bacteria transferring DNA through direct contact?

A

Conjugation.

65
Q

What is a transposon?

A

A “jumping gene” that can move within the genome.

66
Q

How do bacteria reproduce?

A

Binary fission.

67
Q

What is the formula for bacterial growth after n generations?

68
Q

What is the approximate doubling time of Escherichia coli under ideal conditions?

A

20 minutes.

69
Q

After 8 hours, how many bacteria can a single E. coli cell produce?

A

About 16.7 million

70
Q

What are the four phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag, exponential (log), stationary, and death.

71
Q

Which phase of bacterial growth is characterized by rapid division?

A

Exponential (log) phase.

72
Q

What happens during the lag phase of bacterial growth?

A

Bacteria adapt to new conditions before starting to divide.

73
Q

What is an antimicrobial?

A

A natural or synthetic chemical that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms.

74
Q

What is the difference between an antibacterial agent and an antibiotic?

A

An antibacterial agent is any antimicrobial targeting bacteria, whereas an antibiotic traditionally refers to antibacterial compounds produced by microorganisms.

75
Q

What is the difference between narrow-spectrum and broad-spectrum antimicrobials?

A

Narrow-spectrum antimicrobials target a limited number of bacterial genera, while broad-spectrum antimicrobials are effective against many bacterial genera.

76
Q

What are the four main targets of antibacterial drugs?

A

1) Cell wall synthesis, 2) Protein synthesis, 3) Nucleic acid synthesis, 4) Metabolic pathways & cytoplasmic membrane.

77
Q

How do beta-lactam antibiotics work?

A

They inhibit penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), preventing transpeptidation in peptidoglycan cross-linking.

78
Q

Why are glycopeptides only effective against Gram-positive bacteria?

A

Their large size prevents them from crossing the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.

79
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fosfomycin?

A

It inhibits MurA (enolpyruvate transferase), blocking the synthesis of N-acetylmuramic acid, a key bacterial cell wall component.

80
Q

Which ribosomal subunit do aminoglycosides and tetracyclines target?

A

The 30S subunit.

81
Q

Which ribosomal subunit do macrolides, chloramphenicol, and oxazolidinones target?

A

The 50S subunit.

82
Q

Why are tetracyclines avoided in pregnant women and children?

A

affect bone and teeth development due to poor selectivity between bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes.

83
Q

What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

A

inhibit DNA replication by targeting DNA gyrase and topoisomerases.

84
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycins?

A

block mRNA synthesis by inhibiting RNA polymerase.

85
Q

How do sulfonamides work?

A

They prevent folic acid synthesis by competitively inhibiting the enzyme that binds PABA.

86
Q

Why are sulfonamides selectively toxic to bacteria?

A

Humans acquire folic acid from their diet, while bacteria must synthesize it.

87
Q

How do polymyxins work?

A

They act like detergents, disrupting bacterial membranes.

88
Q

What are the steps in antimicrobial drug development?

A

Identifying targets, designing drugs, testing efficacy in vitro, testing in model organisms, clinical trials, and market approval.

89
Q

What is peptidoglycan, and why is it important?

A

A unique component of bacterial cell walls that provides structural integrity.

90
Q

How do beta-lactam antibiotics work?

A

They inhibit penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), preventing transpeptidation in peptidoglycan synthesis.

91
Q

What was the first beta-lactam antibiotic discovered?

A

Penicillin, discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1929.

92
Q

What is the difference between bacterial and eukaryotic ribosomes?

A

Bacterial ribosomes are 70S (30S + 50S), while eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S (40S + 60S).

93
Q

How do sulfonamides work?

A

They competitively inhibit an enzyme required for folic acid synthesis.

94
Q

Why do sulfonamides have selective toxicity?

A

Humans acquire folic acid from their diet, whereas bacteria must synthesize it.

95
Q

What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim?

A

It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHR), preventing tetrahydrofolic acid (THFA) synthesis.

96
Q

What is the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)?

A

The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth in vitro.

97
Q

How is MIC used in clinical labs?

A

It helps determine if a bacterial isolate is sensitive, intermediate, or resistant to an antibiotic.

98
Q

What are the two main mechanisms of beta-lactam resistance?

A

1) Producing beta-lactamases to degrade the antibiotic
2) Modifying PBPs to prevent binding.

99
Q

What are the two ways bacteria acquire resistance?

A

1) Horizontal gene transfer
2) Mutations in target genes.

100
Q

What is multidrug resistance (MDR)?

A

When bacteria develop resistance to multiple antibiotic classes.

101
Q

What factors influence the pharmacokinetics of antibiotics?

A

Stability, dosage, tissue distribution, toxicity, and drug interactions.

102
Q

Why is broad-spectrum antibiotic use a concern?

A

It increases resistance and disrupts normal microbiota.

103
Q

What is antibiotic stewardship?

A

A strategy to optimize antibiotic use, reduce misuse, and prevent resistance.

104
Q

How can hospitals reduce antibiotic resistance?

A

Proper hygiene, reducing device use, environmental cleaning, and antibiotic stewardship programs.

105
Q

What is dual therapy, and why is it useful?

A

Using two antibiotics together to enhance effectiveness and reduce resistance development.

106
Q

How can resistance enzymes be targeted to restore antibiotic activity?

A

By using inhibitors that block the resistance enzyme, allowing the antibiotic to work.

107
Q

What is an example of combining old and new antibiotics to combat resistance?

A

Ceftazidime/avibactam – a cephalosporin combined with a novel beta-lactamase inhibitor.

108
Q

How can hospitals reduce infection reservoirs?

A

Proper cleaning, minimizing catheter use, and maintaining aseptic techniques.

109
Q

What public health measures help slow antibiotic resistance?

A

Education campaigns, antibiotic stewardship, and global surveillance (e.g., GLASS).

110
Q

Why is antibiotic discovery challenging?

A

Clinical trials are expensive, failure rates are high, and patents last only ~15 years.