M6410.3 Aviation Medical Manual Flashcards

Edited 3/15/24

1
Q

Class 1 medication

A

Over the counter medications used with proper supervision no waiver no grounding

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2
Q

How many medication classes are there

A

4
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3
Q

Class 2 medications

A

These medications do not require a waiver when used under the supervision of a flight surgeon. First time used requires a 24-hour grounding period to ensure the member is free of significant side effects. Subsequent use does not require grounding if the medication is known to be free of significant Side effects.

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4
Q

Class 3 medications

A

These medications and the underlying disease process require a waiver.

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5
Q

Class 4 medications

A

These medications are CD, necessitate grounding, and are not waiverable. Included as Class 4 are any medications or nutritional/dietary/herbal supplements that are not listed in the APLs

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6
Q

How long are you grounded from motion sickness and medications

Motion sickness and the medications to treat it are grounding

A

Aviation personnel must be free of residual symptoms and off motion sickness medications for 24 hours prior to resuming aviation duties.

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7
Q

How long are you grounded after immunizations

A

12 hours

member will be formally grounded using form 6020 should significant aeromedical side effects develop

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8
Q

How long are you grounded after allergy immunotherapy

A

12 hours

requires a waiver to receive immunotherapy

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9
Q

Who shall you obtain permission from to donate blood

A

CO

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10
Q

How long are you grounded after 200 cc of blood donation

A

72 hours or 3 days

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11
Q

How long are you grounded after 500 cc blood donation

(standard unit of donated blood is less than 500 cc)

A

7 days

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12
Q

What is a standard unit of blood

A

less than 500 CCs

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13
Q

How often are you allowed to donate blood

A

Once per 120 days

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14
Q

Aircrew personnel should not be permitted to engage in flights above _____ feet, night flying, or other demanding flights for a period of how long after blood donation

A

35,000 ft
One week

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15
Q

Donation of plasma, platelets or other blood components that results in less than 200cc of whole blood loss is grounding for how long

A

24 hours

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16
Q

Aviation personnel selected for and undergoing bone marrow donation are grounded for a minimum of how long

A

7 days

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17
Q

Who approves back to flight status after bone marrow donation

A

Flight surgeon

include a satisfactory medical examination and repeat CBC evaluation with return to acceptable values

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18
Q

Aviation personnel will not fly or perform low-pressure chamber “runs” within ____ hours following SCUBA diving, compressed air dives or hyperbaric chamber dives

A

24 hours

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19
Q

If an urgent operational requirement dictates, aviation personnel may fly within 24 hours of SCUBA diving
only after the examination by and clearance of whom

A

a FS/AMO/APA and the authorization of the commanding officer

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20
Q

What is the maximum amount of caffeine recommended per day

A

450 mg (3-4 cups of coffee)

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21
Q

Alcohol containing beverages. Requires _____ hours of flight restriction following termination of
use ( ______ hour “Bottle-to-throttle” rule)

A

12 hours

12

this includes non alcoholic beer

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22
Q

Use of any _____ products is prohibited during the performance of flight duties and aboard any military aircraft

A

tobacco

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23
Q

What class medical examination is the aircrew member PHA

A

Class 3

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24
Q

What class examination is for pilots

A

Class 1

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25
Q

What class examination is for flight surgeons, flight surgeon trainees, and physician assistants

A

Class 2

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26
Q

All designated aviation personnel must obtain an annual aviation physical examination commensurate with the type of duty to be performed. The examination is required every year after initial designation. This requirement alternates annually between

A

FDME and FDHS

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27
Q

What class mishaps require a physical examination for return to flight status after investigation

A

Class A and B

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28
Q

How long do you have to complete an aviation medical examination

A

the exam will be performed within the 3 months preceding the last day of the birth month (EX. for October you have August, September, and October)

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29
Q

What medical history is disqualifying for a class 1 physical examination

A

seizures, isolated or repetitive (grand
mal, petit mal, psychomotor, or Jacksonian); head injury complicated by unconsciousness in excess of 12 hours or post traumatic amnesia or impaired judgment exceeding 48
hours; malaria, until adequate therapy has been completed and there are no symptoms while off all medication for 3 months.

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30
Q

How long is grounding after dental work like routine crowns work

A

6-12 hours

1-6

31
Q

What are the 3 TYPES of aviation physicals

A

FDME initial, FDME comprehensive (good for 2 years until age 49), and FDHS (used for the years in between the comprehensive)

1-2

32
Q

What is the min and max height for aviation class 1 qualification

A

62 in-78 in(157.4cm-198cm)

1-5

33
Q

Multivision lenses are authorized for use while flying if uncorrected near vision is less than what in each eye?

A

20/40

1-7

34
Q

What test is used for field of vision

A

finger fixation

1-7

35
Q

Any contraction of the form field of ____ degrees or more of any meridian is disqualifying

A

15 degrees

1-7

36
Q

Candidates up for flight training class 1 and class 3 aircrew initial must have had a chest x ray in the last ____ years

A

3 years

1-10, 1-11

37
Q

What is the minimum height requirement for class 3 aircrew qualification

A

60 in/152.5 cm

1-11

38
Q

Aviation Mission Specialist candidates(HS’s) who are assigned to flight orders must meet what standards

A

AERO classification PA

1-11

39
Q

Personnel prescribed as a “technical observer” (personnel who do not possess an aviation designation but who are detailed to duty involving flying) are not required to have a flight physical as long as they have had a physical examination within the preceding ____ months

A

60

1-11

40
Q

How long can class 1 personnel use contacts lenses before replacing for flight

A

2 weeks

1-13

41
Q

What are criteria for aircrew to be able to use contact lenses

A

do not sleep in them

contacts are disposed of after 2 weeks of use

contact lens case, saline solution, and eyeglasses are within reach during flight

use is authorized by flight surgeon and is only good for one year

1-13

42
Q

Who may authorize designated personnel to perform aviation duties

A

CO

2-1

43
Q

What is the official document used to notify aviation commander of the certification of medical fitness for all classes of military and civilian aircrew

A

CG-6020 medical recommendation for flying duty

2-2

Medical recommendation for grounding or clearance may only be made to the CO by medical personnel using Medical Recommendation for Flying Duty, Form CG-6020

2-3

CG-2992 per the form used in real life

44
Q

The authority to issue a 6020 for grounding of aviation personnel includes whom

A

medical and dental officers and HS’s

2-2

45
Q

Who can issue a 6020 recommending the resumption of flight duties

A

flight surgeons, FST, AMO, APA

2-2

46
Q

Who may temporarily suspend aviation personnel from flight duties signing the CG-6020 with DNIF

A

any healthcare professional

2-4

47
Q

Medical recommendation for flying duty CG-6020 may be used to extend the validity of a flight physical by no more than how many days?

A

30 days

2-6

48
Q

The _____ is established to consider unusual, complicated, or controversial medical fitness for aviation duty cases. The _____ assists the Commander (PSC-PSD-med) flight surgeon in making a waiver recommendation

A

ACAB: Aeromedical Consultation Advisory Board

2-3

49
Q

Only an ______ may authorize aviation personnel as medically fit for flying duties (FFD-Fit for Full Duty) by signing the Medical Recommendation for Flying Duty, Form CG-6020 , recommending flying duty

A

FS/FST/AMO

2-4

50
Q

A determination of what is required for all flying duty examinations

A

Aeronautical Adaptability (AA)

3-1

51
Q

Who has the authority to grant aeromedical waivers

A

Commander PSC, decision based off the policy developed by commandant CG-11

4-1

52
Q

Flight surgeons must complete how many flight hours within first year of assignment to an air station

A

48 hours with 8 dedicated to night operations

5-3

53
Q

How shall an Aviation Medical Officer (FS/FST/AMO/APA) report any medical condition or defect that does not meet the aviation medical standards

A

Entering a detailed description of the defect in Block 77 of the Report of Medical Examination, Form DD-2808

4-2

54
Q

A _____ waiver may be authorized when a physical defect or condition has not stabilized and may either progressively increase or decrease in severity. These waivers are authorized for a specific period of time and require medical re-evaluation prior to being extended.

A

temporary

4-1

55
Q

A _____ waiver may be authorized when a defect or condition is not normally subject to change or progressive deterioration, and it has been clearly demonstrated that the condition does not impair the individual’s ability to perform aviation duty.

A

Permanent

4-1

56
Q

An FST who, while assigned to an air station, fails to complete the requirements to become a fully qualified flight surgeon within how many months will become an AMO

A

24 months

5-2

57
Q

The FST must complete a minimum of _____ hours of flight time in CG aircraft. At least _____ hours must be during night operations and flight time shall be evenly distributed over all airframe types at the unit within the first year of assignment

A

48

8

5-3

58
Q

In order to adequately meet the needs of an air station safety program, a flight surgeon is expected to spend a minimum of _____ engaged in non-clinical safety related activities at the air station

A

one half day per week

5-6

59
Q

ONLY whom shall issue “up” chits, except as noted in the Coast Guard Aviation Medicine Manual, COMDTINST M6410.3

A

FS, Aviation Medical Officer (AMO) or Aeromedical PA (APA)

5-6

60
Q

The duty FS shall make every effort to respond telephonically within _____ minutes

A

5 minutes

5-8

61
Q

The unit _____ shall be responsible for oversight of the unit Rescue Swimmer (RS) EMT Continuing Education (CE) program

A

flight surgeon

5-9

62
Q

RS’s will acquire _____ hours of EMT level CE required for periodic recertification by NREMT

A

24

5-9

63
Q

Who serves as the certifying authority for all rescue swimmers’ EMT CE credits

A

unit flight surgeon

5-9

64
Q

How many classes of medications are there

A

4

7-1

65
Q

All CG aviation physical examinations will be completed and submitted through the U.S. Army’s electronic medical record system known as what

A

AERO

1-3

66
Q

The AERO system automatically populates Report of Medical Examination, Form _____, Report of Medical History, Form _____-1 and Interim Abbreviated Flying Duty Medical Exam, Form _____

A

DD-2808

DD-2807

DA-4497

1-3

67
Q

Upon reaching what age, will all aviation personnel be required to complete an FDME annually

A

50

1-3

68
Q

How often is a FDME required for aviation personnel of any age that have a waiver (temporary or permanent) of physical standards that prohibits unrestricted
flight

A

annually

1-3, 1-4

69
Q

Any CG member involved in a Class A or B aircraft mishap shall undergo a complete aviation physical examination as part of the mishap investigation. Examinations after other mishaps are left to the discretion of the unit ______

A

FS/FST/AMO

1-4

70
Q

The aviation medical exam will be performed within _____ months preceding the last day of the birth month

A

3 months

1-4

71
Q

The period of validity of an aviation medical exam goes through what day of the members birth month for 1 year

A

last day

1-5

72
Q

Head injury complicated by unconsciousness in excess of _____ hours or post traumatic amnesia or impaired judgment exceeding _____
hours; malaria, until adequate therapy has been completed and there are no symptoms while off all medication for _____ months is disqualifying for a class 1 exam

A

12 hours

48 hours

3 months

1-5

73
Q

Temporary grounding of how long is required after routine crown or temporary dental work

A

6-12 hours
1-6

74
Q

What level of vision is required for flying duties

A

20/20 or corrected to 20/20

1-7