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Manuals > M5100.47D Safety and Environmental Health > Flashcards

M5100.47D Safety and Environmental Health Flashcards

3/26/24

1
Q

Units and individuals may recommend changes of this manual to the Office of whom

A

Safety and Environmental Health (CG-113)

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2
Q

Risk Assessment Code (RAC). Priority for response is as follows

A

RAC 1 – Within 24 hours for conditions that pose imminent danger

RAC 2 – Within 3 working days for conditions that pose potentially serious safety
and health concerns

RAC 3 – Within 20 working days for conditions that pose less than serious safety and health concerns

RAC 4 – No prescribed timeline for conditions that pose a minimal safety and health concern and may represent best practices

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3
Q

If the employee disagrees with the disposition of unsafe or unhealthful conditions they have the right to appeal to whom

A

Right to appeal, through the chain of command to the Deputy Commandant for Mission Support (DCMS) who is the Coast Guard’s
Designated Safety and Health Official (DSHO), and ultimately to the Commandant, through the Vice Commandant (VCG)

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4
Q

What is the goal of the SMS, safety management system

A

The goal of the SMS is to maximize mission effectiveness by mitigating
hazards to manage risk to acceptable levels and prevent mishaps

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5
Q

SMS is comprised of four components: what are they

A

Safety Policy
Safety Risk Management
Safety Assurance
Safety Promotion

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6
Q

Risk is inherent in all tasks, training,
missions, operations, and in personal activities no matter how routine. _____ is a systems-oriented process to identify, assess and control hazards to manage risk associated with any activity

A

Risk management

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7
Q

The RM process consists of five steps: What are they

A

(1) Identify Hazards

2) Assess Hazards

3) Develop Controls and Make Decisions

4) Implement Controls

5) Supervise and Evaluate Controls that are applied

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8
Q

Successful safety cultures must contain the following elements

A

Reporting Culture. Reporting culture refers to a climate where people are encouraged, prepared and equipped to report hazards, errors and near-misses.

Learning Culture. Learning culture refers to using safety information systems to analyze and develop accurate conclusions regarding hazard exposure and safety.

Just Culture. Just culture refers to an atmosphere of trust where people willingly and freely provide safety-related information without fear of reprisal. Clear lines exist and are understood between acceptable and unacceptable behavior. Personnel by their human nature make errors. Just culture recognizes this fact and encourages appropriate responses to these human errors.

Informed Culture. Informed culture refers to safety system managers having accurate and current knowledge about factors (human, technical, organizational, and environmental) that determine safety of the system.

Flexible Culture. Flexible culture refers to the organization reconfiguring its hierarchy as
necessary to adapt during high-tempo or extraordinary hazard exposure, and recognizing
the hazard associated with normalized deviation.

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9
Q

The cornerstone to a successful safety program is what

A

clear and concise guidance regarding expectations and responsibilities for
identifying, assessing, monitoring, and promoting safety practices

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10
Q

The Coast Guard’s overarching SEH policy is what

A

to provide personnel a safe and healthy workplace and to protect the public from risk of death, injury, illness, or property damage as
a result of Coast Guard activities

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11
Q

Safety is a team effort, and who is responsible and accountable for identifying and reporting hazards, and managing risk both on and off duty.

A

every member

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12
Q

The DHS has delegated Coast Guard SEH responsibilities to whom

A

Commandant

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13
Q

Who is responsible for overall
DHS Safety and Health Program

A

Designated Agency Safety and Health Official (DASHO)

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14
Q

Who serves as Designated Safety and Health Official (DSHO)

A

The Deputy Commandant for Mission
Support (DCMS)

2-4

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15
Q

Who is the Director, Health, Safety, and Work-Life

A

CG-11

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16
Q

Who is the Program Manager (PM) for the Coast Guard SEH and SMS

safety and environmental health
safety management system

A

Chief, Safety and Environmental Health (CG-113) Commandant

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17
Q

Who manages the mishap analysis process for all Class C and Class D mishaps

A

Commanding Officer, Health, Safety, and Work-Life Service Center (HSWL SC)

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18
Q

What does SMART stand for

A

Safety Mobile Assistance, Response and Training

SMART

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19
Q

Who is the unit safety Officer

(head of safety)

A

XO

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20
Q

Who appoints a SSM in writing

sector safety manager

A

CO

2-13

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21
Q

Where can you find mishap response and reporting guidelines

A

CGPORTAL (type in key words: HSWL TTP). Additional guidance is provided by HSWL SC (se) and Commandant (CG-113)

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22
Q

A Coast Guard mishap is defined as what

A

any unplanned, unexpected or
unintentional event that causes injury, occupational illness, death, material loss or damage.

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23
Q

What is the reportable dollar amount threshold for a mishap for property damage

A

$5000

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24
Q

Report all midair collisions and serious near midair collisions regardless of the amount of injury or damage to whom

A

Commandant (CG-1131) and National Command Center via telephone

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25
Q

For all midair collisions and serious near midair collisions regardless of the amount of injury or damage, a preliminary aviation mishap or OPHAZ message must
be submitted within how many hours

A

12 hours

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26
Q

What is an event where the possibility of collision occurred and either aircraft took evasive action or bodily injury occurred

A

A serious near midair collision

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27
Q

What is an incident where the possibility of collision results
from an aircraft passing within 500 feet of another aircraft

A

A near midair collision

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28
Q

What is the property damage dollar amount for a class E mishap (the least severe)

A

$5000-$24999

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29
Q

What is a HIPO (high potential) event

A

A HIPO event is a Class C, D, E mishap, OPHAZ or ‘near miss’ event that had the potential to result in catastrophic loss

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30
Q

The purpose of labeling an event as a HIPO is to speed the reporting requirement and alert the field to a potential severe hazard. What is the hour requirement

A

24-hour preliminary database entry

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31
Q

Dual reporting for multiple OPMODE
mishaps may be approved by whom
on a case-by-case basis

A

CG-113

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32
Q

MRPs (mishap response plans) must be updated and drilled how often

A

annually

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33
Q

What are the mishap and hazard reporting timelines

A

Class A: initial- 5 minute phone call, preliminary entry- 12 hours, final report- 30 days part A, less than 60 days after MAB arrival

Class B: initial- 5 minute phone call, preliminary entry- 12 hours, final report- 30 days part A, less than 60 days after MAB arrival

Class C: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days

Class D: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days

Class E: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days

OPHAZ: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days

CG Civilian: initial- 8 hours death, 24 hours major injury

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34
Q

What class mishaps is a toxicology test required

A

Toxicology testing must be conducted for all personnel involved in Class A and B mishaps, for mishaps with the potential of meeting or exceeding the Class B threshold, or for any mishap where toxicology might be relevant.

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35
Q

For class a and b mishaps, toxicology analyses must be completed within _____ hours to screen for alcohol, and _____ hours to screen for controlled substances

A

2 hours

32 hours

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36
Q

Who manages, directs, oversees and supervises the Coast Guard post-mishap process to include unit and COMDT level mishap response, evidence preservation, mishap
analysis, reporting and record keeping

A

CG-113

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37
Q

What is the CGs definition of risk

A

Risk is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to the exposure to a hazard or danger, and/or a dangerous element or factor

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38
Q

The _____ is the cornerstone to a successful safety program

A

RM process

4-1

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39
Q

Under Reference (a), employers must provide a safe and healthy work environment and keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards

Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections are just one of the tools to assure compliance with this federal law. There are two types of inspections:

A

Routine and/or Informal Inspections

Formal inspections

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40
Q

The formal inspection for work place hazards is conducted at least _____ for all workspaces or more frequently at the discretion of the Commanding Officer

A

annually

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41
Q

Safety climate assessments should be conducted how often

A

annually

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42
Q

The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form, number _____ and
instructions are located at http://www.dcms.uscg.mil/Our-Organization/AssistantCommandant-for-C4IT-CG-6/The-Office-of-Information-Management-CG-
61/Forms-Management/CG-Forms/smdpage4081/7/smdsort4081/organization/

A

CG-4903

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43
Q

Hazardous workplace conditions that are beyond the unit’s ability to correct, or require longer than _____ days to correct, require the preparation of an abatement plan

A

30 days

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44
Q

_____ are prescriptive procedures
designed to minimize risks during specific operations, tasks and circumstances.

A

SWPs (safe work practices)

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45
Q

SWPs typically incorporate several different types of controls including engineering controls, _____ _____, and _____ to reduce risks.

A

administrative controls
PPE

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46
Q

Who oversees the RM program’s policy, guidance, development, administration, and evaluation

A

CG-113

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47
Q

The SARM (Safety and Risk Management) council and Safety and Environmental Health Committees must meet at the call of the Chairman but no less than how often

A

quarterly

5-4

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48
Q

Who is the Chief, Safety and Environmental Health commandant

A

(CG-113)

multiple pages in every chapter

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49
Q

Who is designated as the safety and environmental health program manager

A

(CG-113)

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50
Q

Personal protective devices do nothing to reduce or eliminate the
hazard itself, but merely establish what

A

a “last line of defense”

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51
Q

Who must promulgate general PPE policy for the Coast Guard and serve as the Program Manager for the Coast Guard PPE program

A

Chief, Safety and
Environmental Health (CG-113)

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52
Q

_____ _____ refers to a variety of conditions, both environmental and internal physiological responses, which tend to increase body temperature.

A

Heat stress
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53
Q

_____ _____refers to any physiological and/or psychological response to heat stress.

A

Heat strain

Symptoms of heat strain include fatigue, severe headache, nausea, and ineffective physical or mental performance

8-1

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54
Q

A minimum period of how many days is required for acclimatization
of unseasoned Coast Guard personnel

A

7 days

8-1

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55
Q

_____ _____ refers to environmental or personal conditions resulting from exposure to cold climatic conditions or submersion in water cooler than normal body temperature. These exposures tend
to remove body heat and decrease body temperature

A

Cold stress

8-2

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56
Q

_____ _____ refers to physiological and /or psychological responses to cold stress

A

Cold strain

8-2

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57
Q

Selection of PPE depends on what

A

humidity, temperature, wind, acclimation and other factors including task/mission when
selecting the proper clothing

8-2

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58
Q

Who must develop and periodically update policy on heat and cold injury prevention.

A

CG-113

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59
Q

What manual provides heat stress training

A

M5100.47D

8-3

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60
Q

What does CBRN stand for

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear

9-1

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61
Q

How should respirators and filters/cartridges be stored

A

in a sealed bag to prevent
contamination

9-5

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62
Q

How often are respiratory program managers re-trained

A

5 years

9-6

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63
Q

Breathing air quality for SCBAs must meet at least the minimum limiting characteristics of _____ air

What grade for cold air

A

Grade D

Grade L

9-6

64
Q

How often is air quality monitoring required to maintain air
quality standards for SCBAs

A

Quarterly

9-6

65
Q

Who designates a qualified RPM in writing

A

CO

9-6

66
Q

Who is qualifies as a RPM

A

ASO

9-6

67
Q

Who coordinates with unit safety personnel to complete a self-evaluation of the unit RPP at
least annually

A

RPM

9-8

68
Q

The goal of the Coast Guard _____ _____ _____ is to prevent occupational hearing loss and ensure auditory fitness for the military and civilian workforce

A

Hearing Conservation Program (HCP)

10-1

69
Q

What is the OEL, Occupation Exposure Limits, for a continuous or intermittent noise source, for an eight (8) hour Time-Weighted
Average (TWA)

A

85 db

10-1

70
Q

What is the OEL, Occupation Exposure Limits, for impact or impulse noise,

A

140 db

10-1

71
Q

Coast Guard members exposed to continuous or intermittent noise that has an 8- hour TWA noise level of 85 dB(A) or greater at least one day per calendar year; or exposed to impulse/impact noise SPL of 140 dB(P) or greater must be enrolled
in what

A

a medical surveillance program

10-2

72
Q

Noise exposure data must be kept for the duration of employment plus how many years

A

30

10-4

73
Q

Units must label designated hazardous noise areas, tools,
and equipment that produce sound levels _____ dB(A) or greater, or _____ dB(P) SPL(sound pressure level)

A

85

140

10-4

74
Q

Single hearing protection for continuous noise is required for what levels

A

85 spl - 95 spl (less than 96)

10-4

75
Q

Double hearing protection for continuous noise is required for what levels

A

96 db or above

10-4

76
Q

Single hearing protection for impact or impulse noise is required for what levels

A

140 db - 164 db (less than 165)

10-4

77
Q

Double hearing protection for impact or impulse noise is required for what levels

A

165 db or greater

10-4

78
Q

Who appoints the HCP, hearing conservation program, manager in writing

A

CO

10-6

79
Q

Who ensures that personnel exposed to hazardous noise receive initial and refresher training
in hearing conservation and are enrolled in medical surveillance program

A

CO

10-6

80
Q

Who ensures that all noise areas and sources are properly labeled and posted

A

supervisors

10-6

81
Q

Provide copies of SDSs and labels of the HAZMAT to the contracting officers, who must forward these documents to the Unit HAZCOM Program Manager, HAZMAT Officer at least _____ working days before the HAZMAT are brought onto the installation

A

5

11-2

82
Q

If the SDS is not available, units must notify whom that a SDS is needed and obtain the SDS from the manufacturer prior to use of the HAZMAT

A

the manufacturer

11-3

83
Q

At a minimum, HAZWOPER/HAZMAT FRA training must include these elements:

A

PPE; regulatory overview; decontamination; hazard communication; and emergency
response and spill control

11-4

84
Q

For HAZMAT/HAZWOPER FRA and FRO, some on-line trainings are available where, and can be accessed through _____ _____ _____ at:
https://cg.portal.uscg.mil/training/SitePages/Home.aspx

A

Skillport

Coast Guard Portal

11-4

85
Q

HAZWOPER/HAZMAT FRA Refresher training shall be conducted how often

A

annually

11-4

86
Q

Asbestos-Containing Material (ACM) is defined as any material containing greater than _____ asbestos by weight

A

1%

12-1

87
Q

The Asbestos Program Manager (APM) must be appointed in writing by whom

A

CO

12-3

88
Q

Asbestos records are kept how long

A

exposure monitoring- 30 years

medical surveillance-30 years

employee training-1 year after completion of employment

Asbestos Waste Shipping Papers- 2 years from date of acceptance

12-4

89
Q

The Coast Guard requires confined spaces to be cleared at least every _____ hours or sooner if conditions within the confined space change.

A

24 hours

13-2

90
Q

Who is the only person authorized to amend the unit’s confined space program

A

The CSPM

13-2

91
Q

A _____ _____ _____ is someone who has completed a Gas Free Engineer (GFE) training or Shipyard Competent Person (SCP) training; with requisite work experience; and is authorized to clear confined spaces for law enforcement operations

A

designated competent person

13-2

92
Q

The _____ is a term used to designate a specifically trained and authorized individual to test confined spaces and certify the permit for entry. The _____ has primary responsibility for assessing for safe levels of oxygen, flammable gases, vapors and toxic air contaminants

A

EA (entry authority)

13-3

93
Q

GFEs (Gas Free Engineer) are typically a Coast Guard
military officer or Engineering Petty Officer, _____

A

E-6 or above

13-3

94
Q

Active duty and civilian Coast Guard
personnel must not authorize entry (their own or anyone else’s) into a confined space without being
designated that authority in writing by their _____ _____

A

Commanding Officer

13-4

95
Q

For confined spaces, practice making permit space rescues at least once every _____ months , by means of simulated rescue operations

A

12 months

13-6

96
Q

Coast Guard personnel only enter confined spaces aboard commercial vessels after the space has been certified as _____ _____ _____ by a CMC (certified marine chemist)

A

“Atmosphere Safe for Workers”

13-7

97
Q

_____ _____ of Coast Guard air stations must certify and re-certify, their unit’s ES (entry supervisor) in writing, at least annually.

A

Commanding Officers

13-9

98
Q

Personnel who authorize entry into confined spaces must be professionally certified and/or designated entry authority by whom

A

their Commanding Officer

13-10

99
Q

All Coast Guard personnel must have what level understanding of confined spaces in order to recognize a confined space and understand the hazards associated with confined spaces

A

awareness

13-12

100
Q

Appoint a CSPM in writing, to manage and execute the unit’s CSE program, designate in writing, unit MIs (marine inspector), EAs, ESs(entry supervisor), and SCPs (shipyard competent person) as required.

A

COs

13-15

101
Q

______ is a reactive posture to protect workers from exposure to hazardous energy

A

Lockout/Tag-Out

14-2

102
Q

Who appoints in writing AOs (authorizing officers) to manage and execute the unit’s lockout/tag-out and/or tags plus program

A

COs

14-4

103
Q

The ECP (exposure control plan), blood borne pathogens, must be updated how often

A

annually

15-2

104
Q

What are standard precautions

A

These are guidelines to reduce the risk of transmission from sources of infections

15-2

105
Q

How often is blood borne pathogen refresher training

A

annually

15-2

106
Q

What are the leading causes of
fatalities and serious injuries to Coast Guard members, accounting for an average of 50-75% of all reported mishaps and several fatalities annually

A

Motor vehicle and recreational off-duty mishaps

16-1

107
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous eight hours. Members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.

A

14 hours

16-2

108
Q

What things are prohibited while driving on coast guard installations (pov or gmv) or on official business (pov or gmv)

A

cell phone use to include hands free devices, texting, radar detectors, or head/ear phones

16-2

109
Q

Coast Guard active and reserve members must complete a
what or similar DoD or state approved motorcycle
training course to operate on or off base

A

Motorcycle Safety Foundation (MSF)

16-3

110
Q

How often is motorcycle refresher training required

A

5 years

16-3

111
Q

Coast Guard Motorcycle Safety Foundation Rider Coaches who remain current are exempt from the 5 year refresher requirement as they are required to re-certify every _____ years

A

2 years

16-3

112
Q

In cases where training is not available by location or time,
Commanding Officers are authorized to grant a member temporary riding privileges and installation access to operate a motorcycle for up to _____ days while
the member acquires training

A

90 days

16-3

113
Q

Military members in a permanent change of station status who are traveling more than _____ miles in their POV must complete a TRiPS

A

400 miles

16-6

114
Q

Access to TRiPS is available to all personnel where

A

https://trips.safety.army.mil

16-6

115
Q

What can be worn in lieu of helmets while riding a bicycle in an industrial area

A

hard hat approved by the command

16-6

116
Q

Who must designate a Motor Vehicle Safety Coordinator (MVSC) in writing

A

CO

16-8

117
Q

These individuals, designated in writing by the unit commander and assisted by the MVSC, are charged with implementing the command motor vehicle and recreational safety program

A

safety officers

16-9

118
Q

Work-related MSDs (Musculoskeletal Disorders) account for how much of all occupational injuries and illnesses reported to the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS)

A

one-third

17-1

119
Q

The signs and symptoms of MSDs vary according to the type
of injury or illness, but typically include:

Musculoskeletal Disorders

A

pain that does not cease overnight, numbness and tingling, and decreased joint motion, mobility and strength

17-1

120
Q

The most common MSD risk factors are

Musculoskeletal Disorders

A

force, repetition, Awkward or static postures, Vibration (localized and whole-body), contact stress

17-2

121
Q

The FEAP shall provide essential immediate information for
responding to emergencies, including fire, medical, severe weather, flooding, and loss of
utilities, bomb threats, chemical and any other reasonably possible emergency

A

Facility Emergency Action Plan

18-3

122
Q

Measures shall be taken to control the growth of tall grass, brush and weeds adjacent to facilities. A break between facilities and such growth of at least _____ feet (0.9
meters) shall be maintained around all facilities

A

3 ft

18-5

123
Q

Designated smoking areas shall be located a sufficient distance away, minimum of _____ feet, from building entrances, exits and combustible materials such as wood decks attached to buildings, and wood mulched and grassed areas

A

25 feet

18-5

124
Q

How often shall fire drills be conducted

A

industrial buildings/quarters- semi-annually

CDCs- monthly

all other buildings-12 months or COs discretion

18-6

125
Q

Where should portable fire extinguishers be placed in hangars

A

Extinguisher placement should be placed near exits then evenly spaced throughout within the travel distance guidelines

50 ft

18-8

126
Q

How often shall portable fire extinguishers be inspected

A

monthly

18-9

127
Q

Fire watches must remain on site with their extinguishing equipment at least how long after completion of hot work or until the hot work area is cool to the touch

A

30 minutes

18-10

128
Q

What is the response time of fire fighting crews for CG aircraft

A

5 minutes unannounced

1 minute announced

18-18

129
Q

What type of fire extinguishers shall be placed on rotary wing landing pads

A

150-pound Halon replacement agent, 150-pound Compressed Air Foam or 150-pound Potassium Bicarbonate Powder (PKP)

18-19

130
Q

Who designates smoking areas

A

CO

18-24

131
Q

At a minimum, units will receive an “in-person” aviation safety examiner visit on a _____ basis

A

triennial

20-2

132
Q

A detailed unit aviation safety survey must be conducted _____ and whenever the CO directs

A

annually

20-3

133
Q

Who manages the Coast Guards VFDR program

A

Commandant (CG-1131)

20-4

134
Q

Who maintains the Aircraft Flight Data Users Process Guide (PG-85-00-1560-A)

A

Aviation Logistic Center (ALC)

20-4

135
Q

Requests to access recorded aircraft voice, flight, and systems data for purposes not described above must be submitted to whom

A

Commandant (CG-1131)

20-5

136
Q

Aviation units must discontinue their regular work routine of all shifts for at least _____ workday each calendar year to promote safety through training, awareness and enhancement of the command safety culture

A

one workday

20-6

137
Q

A _____ is any condition that affects or might affect the safety of Coast Guard aircraft, personnel or equipment

A

hazard

20-6

138
Q

CRM Refresher facilitators are permitted access to selected mishap records upon written request to whom, or can receive case study assistance from a unit FSO

A

Commandant (CG-1131)

20-6

139
Q

_____ and _____ should be taught in small groups, preferably fewer than _____ individuals

A

CRM and MRM

30

20-6, 20-7

140
Q

Fully-designated FSOs must complete a Commandant _____ approved FSO Performance Qualification Standard (PQS) and course

A

CG-1131

20-7

141
Q

CRM refresher instructor competency expires when

A

2 years from date of course attendance

20-8

142
Q

Laser Hazard Safety Officer (LHSO) competency expires when

A

2 years from date of course attendance

20-8

143
Q

Who serves as CRM program manager

A

CG-711

20-10

144
Q

Who serves as MRM program manager

A

CG-41

20-10

145
Q

Who has overall responsibility for conducting safe flight operations for afloat units during shipboard-helicopter operations

for deployed aircraft

A

cutter CO

20-16

146
Q

Who serves as the flight safety representative on the unit Flight Standards Board (FSB)

A

flight safety officer

20-18

147
Q

How often is the mishap response plan (MRP) updated

A

annually

20-18

148
Q

Who designates in writing the salvage officer IAW CH. 10 of the M13020.1

A

CO

20-21

M13020.1H p 10-1

149
Q

What is the standard mandated height requiring fall protection measures

A

4 ft

24-2

150
Q

Pesticide log and training records are kept how long

A

2 years

25-5

151
Q

Who performs weekly food service facilities inspections

A

HS or XO

25-6

152
Q

Units must notify each employee in writing of his/her lead exposure monitoring results within how many days after receipt of results

A

5 working days

27-6

153
Q

How long are lead records kept

A

Exposure Monitoring- 40 years or duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer

medical surveillance- 40 years or duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer

employee training- 1 year beyond employment

27-7

154
Q

How often are SMART visits

A

3 years or as needed

28-9

155
Q

What does SMART stand for

A

Safety Mobile Assistance and Response Training Team

Enclosure 1, p 8

Manuals (30 decks)

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