M5100.47D Safety and Environmental Health Flashcards
3/26/24
1
Q
Units and individuals may recommend changes of this manual to the Office of whom
A
Safety and Environmental Health (CG-113)
p 3
2
Q
Risk Assessment Code (RAC). Priority for response is as follows
A
RAC 1 – Within 24 hours for conditions that pose imminent danger
RAC 2 – Within 3 working days for conditions that pose potentially serious safety
and health concerns
RAC 3 – Within 20 working days for conditions that pose less than serious safety and health concerns
RAC 4 – No prescribed timeline for conditions that pose a minimal safety and health concern and may represent best practices
1-3
3
Q
If the employee disagrees with the disposition of unsafe or unhealthful conditions they have the right to appeal to whom
A
Right to appeal, through the chain of command to the Deputy Commandant for Mission Support (DCMS) who is the Coast Guard’s
Designated Safety and Health Official (DSHO), and ultimately to the Commandant, through the Vice Commandant (VCG)
1-4
4
Q
What is the goal of the SMS, safety management system
A
The goal of the SMS is to maximize mission effectiveness by mitigating
hazards to manage risk to acceptable levels and prevent mishaps
1-4
5
Q
SMS is comprised of four components: what are they
A
Safety Policy
Safety Risk Management
Safety Assurance
Safety Promotion
1-4
6
Q
Risk is inherent in all tasks, training,
missions, operations, and in personal activities no matter how routine. _____ is a systems-oriented process to identify, assess and control hazards to manage risk associated with any activity
A
Risk management
1-4
7
Q
The RM process consists of five steps: What are they
A
(1) Identify Hazards
2) Assess Hazards
3) Develop Controls and Make Decisions
4) Implement Controls
5) Supervise and Evaluate Controls that are applied
1-4
8
Q
Successful safety cultures must contain the following elements
A
Reporting Culture. Reporting culture refers to a climate where people are encouraged, prepared and equipped to report hazards, errors and near-misses.
Learning Culture. Learning culture refers to using safety information systems to analyze and develop accurate conclusions regarding hazard exposure and safety.
Just Culture. Just culture refers to an atmosphere of trust where people willingly and freely provide safety-related information without fear of reprisal. Clear lines exist and are understood between acceptable and unacceptable behavior. Personnel by their human nature make errors. Just culture recognizes this fact and encourages appropriate responses to these human errors.
Informed Culture. Informed culture refers to safety system managers having accurate and current knowledge about factors (human, technical, organizational, and environmental) that determine safety of the system.
Flexible Culture. Flexible culture refers to the organization reconfiguring its hierarchy as
necessary to adapt during high-tempo or extraordinary hazard exposure, and recognizing
the hazard associated with normalized deviation.
1-6
9
Q
The cornerstone to a successful safety program is what
A
clear and concise guidance regarding expectations and responsibilities for
identifying, assessing, monitoring, and promoting safety practices
1-6
10
Q
The Coast Guard’s overarching SEH policy is what
A
to provide personnel a safe and healthy workplace and to protect the public from risk of death, injury, illness, or property damage as
a result of Coast Guard activities
1-6
11
Q
Safety is a team effort, and who is responsible and accountable for identifying and reporting hazards, and managing risk both on and off duty.
A
every member
1-6
12
Q
The DHS has delegated Coast Guard SEH responsibilities to whom
A
Commandant
2-4
13
Q
Who is responsible for overall
DHS Safety and Health Program
A
Designated Agency Safety and Health Official (DASHO)
2-4
14
Q
Who serves as Designated Safety and Health Official (DSHO)
A
The Deputy Commandant for Mission
Support (DCMS)
2-4
15
Q
Who is the Director, Health, Safety, and Work-Life
A
CG-11
2-5
16
Q
Who is the Program Manager (PM) for the Coast Guard SEH and SMS
safety and environmental health
safety management system
A
Chief, Safety and Environmental Health (CG-113) Commandant
2-5
17
Q
Who manages the mishap analysis process for all Class C and Class D mishaps
A
Commanding Officer, Health, Safety, and Work-Life Service Center (HSWL SC)
2-9
18
Q
What does SMART stand for
A
Safety Mobile Assistance, Response and Training
SMART
2-10
19
Q
Who is the unit safety Officer
(head of safety)
A
XO
2-13
20
Q
Who appoints a SSM in writing
sector safety manager
A
CO
2-13
21
Q
Where can you find mishap response and reporting guidelines
A
CGPORTAL (type in key words: HSWL TTP). Additional guidance is provided by HSWL SC (se) and Commandant (CG-113)
3-2
22
Q
A Coast Guard mishap is defined as what
A
any unplanned, unexpected or
unintentional event that causes injury, occupational illness, death, material loss or damage.
3-2
23
Q
What is the reportable dollar amount threshold for a mishap for property damage
A
$5000
3-4
24
Q
Report all midair collisions and serious near midair collisions regardless of the amount of injury or damage to whom
A
Commandant (CG-1131) and National Command Center via telephone
3-7
25
For all midair collisions and serious near midair collisions regardless of the amount of injury or damage, a preliminary aviation mishap or OPHAZ message must
be submitted within how many hours
12 hours
3-7
26
What is an event where the possibility of collision occurred and either aircraft took evasive action or bodily injury occurred
A serious near midair collision
3-7
27
What is an incident where the possibility of collision results
from an aircraft passing within 500 feet of another aircraft
A near midair collision
3-7
28
What is the property damage dollar amount for a class E mishap (the least severe)
$5000-$24999
3-16
29
What is a HIPO (high potential) event
A HIPO event is a Class C, D, E mishap, OPHAZ or ‘near miss’ event that had the potential to result in catastrophic loss
3-17
30
The purpose of labeling an event as a HIPO is to speed the reporting requirement and alert the field to a potential severe hazard. What is the hour requirement
24-hour preliminary database entry
3-17
31
Dual reporting for multiple OPMODE
mishaps may be approved by whom
on a case-by-case basis
CG-113
3-22
32
MRPs (mishap response plans) must be updated and drilled how often
annually
3-22
33
What are the mishap and hazard reporting timelines
Class A: initial- 5 minute phone call, preliminary entry- 12 hours, final report- 30 days part A, less than 60 days after MAB arrival
Class B: initial- 5 minute phone call, preliminary entry- 12 hours, final report- 30 days part A, less than 60 days after MAB arrival
Class C: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days
Class D: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days
Class E: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days
OPHAZ: preliminary entry- 24 hours, final report- 45 days
CG Civilian: initial- 8 hours death, 24 hours major injury
3-24
34
What class mishaps is a toxicology test required
Toxicology testing must be conducted for all personnel involved in Class A and B mishaps, for mishaps with the potential of meeting or exceeding the Class B threshold, or for any mishap where toxicology might be relevant.
3-41
35
For class a and b mishaps, toxicology analyses must be completed within _____ hours to screen for alcohol, and _____ hours to screen for controlled substances
2 hours
32 hours
3-41
36
Who manages, directs, oversees and supervises the Coast Guard post-mishap process to include unit and COMDT level mishap response, evidence preservation, mishap
analysis, reporting and record keeping
CG-113
3-63
37
What is the CGs definition of risk
Risk is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to the exposure to a hazard or danger, and/or a dangerous element or factor
4-1
38
The _____ is the cornerstone to a successful safety program
RM process
4-1
39
Under Reference (a), employers must provide a safe and healthy work environment and keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards
Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections are just one of the tools to assure compliance with this federal law. There are two types of inspections:
Routine and/or Informal Inspections
Formal inspections
4-1,2
40
The formal inspection for work place hazards is conducted at least _____ for all workspaces or more frequently at the discretion of the Commanding Officer
annually
4-2
41
Safety climate assessments should be conducted how often
annually
4-3
42
The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form, number _____ and
instructions are located at http://www.dcms.uscg.mil/Our-Organization/AssistantCommandant-for-C4IT-CG-6/The-Office-of-Information-Management-CG-
61/Forms-Management/CG-Forms/smdpage4081/7/smdsort4081/organization/
CG-4903
4-4
43
Hazardous workplace conditions that are beyond the unit’s ability to correct, or require longer than _____ days to correct, require the preparation of an abatement plan
30 days
4-5
44
_____ are prescriptive procedures
designed to minimize risks during specific operations, tasks and circumstances.
SWPs (safe work practices)
4-6
45
SWPs typically incorporate several different types of controls including engineering controls, _____ _____, and _____ to reduce risks.
administrative controls
PPE
4-6
46
Who oversees the RM program’s policy, guidance, development, administration, and evaluation
CG-113
4-7
47
The SARM (Safety and Risk Management) council and Safety and Environmental Health Committees must meet at the call of the Chairman but no less than how often
quarterly
5-4
48
Who is the Chief, Safety and Environmental Health commandant
(CG-113)
multiple pages in every chapter
49
Who is designated as the safety and environmental health program manager
(CG-113)
6-2
50
Personal protective devices do nothing to reduce or eliminate the
hazard itself, but merely establish what
a “last line of defense”
7-2
51
Who must promulgate general PPE policy for the Coast Guard and serve as the Program Manager for the Coast Guard PPE program
Chief, Safety and
Environmental Health (CG-113)
7-4
52
_____ _____ refers to a variety of conditions, both environmental and internal physiological responses, which tend to increase body temperature.
Heat stress
8-1
53
_____ _____refers to any physiological and/or psychological response to heat stress.
Heat strain
Symptoms of heat strain include fatigue, severe headache, nausea, and ineffective physical or mental performance
8-1
54
A minimum period of how many days is required for acclimatization
of unseasoned Coast Guard personnel
7 days
8-1
55
_____ _____ refers to environmental or personal conditions resulting from exposure to cold climatic conditions or submersion in water cooler than normal body temperature. These exposures tend
to remove body heat and decrease body temperature
Cold stress
8-2
56
_____ _____ refers to physiological and /or psychological responses to cold stress
Cold strain
8-2
57
Selection of PPE depends on what
humidity, temperature, wind, acclimation and other factors including task/mission when
selecting the proper clothing
8-2
58
Who must develop and periodically update policy on heat and cold injury prevention.
CG-113
8-3
59
What manual provides heat stress training
M5100.47D
8-3
60
What does CBRN stand for
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
9-1
61
How should respirators and filters/cartridges be stored
in a sealed bag to prevent
contamination
9-5
62
How often are respiratory program managers re-trained
5 years
9-6
63
Breathing air quality for SCBAs must meet at least the minimum limiting characteristics of _____ air
What grade for cold air
Grade D
Grade L
9-6
64
How often is air quality monitoring required to maintain air
quality standards for SCBAs
Quarterly
9-6
65
Who designates a qualified RPM in writing
CO
9-6
66
Who is qualifies as a RPM
ASO
9-6
67
Who coordinates with unit safety personnel to complete a self-evaluation of the unit RPP at
least annually
RPM
9-8
68
The goal of the Coast Guard _____ _____ _____ is to prevent occupational hearing loss and ensure auditory fitness for the military and civilian workforce
Hearing Conservation Program (HCP)
10-1
69
What is the OEL, Occupation Exposure Limits, for a continuous or intermittent noise source, for an eight (8) hour Time-Weighted
Average (TWA)
85 db
10-1
70
What is the OEL, Occupation Exposure Limits, for impact or impulse noise,
140 db
10-1
71
Coast Guard members exposed to continuous or intermittent noise that has an 8- hour TWA noise level of 85 dB(A) or greater at least one day per calendar year; or exposed to impulse/impact noise SPL of 140 dB(P) or greater must be enrolled
in what
a medical surveillance program
10-2
72
Noise exposure data must be kept for the duration of employment plus how many years
30
10-4
73
Units must label designated hazardous noise areas, tools,
and equipment that produce sound levels _____ dB(A) or greater, or _____ dB(P) SPL(sound pressure level)
85
140
10-4
74
Single hearing protection for continuous noise is required for what levels
85 spl - 95 spl (less than 96)
10-4
75
Double hearing protection for continuous noise is required for what levels
96 db or above
10-4
76
Single hearing protection for impact or impulse noise is required for what levels
140 db - 164 db (less than 165)
10-4
77
Double hearing protection for impact or impulse noise is required for what levels
165 db or greater
10-4
78
Who appoints the HCP, hearing conservation program, manager in writing
CO
10-6
79
Who ensures that personnel exposed to hazardous noise receive initial and refresher training
in hearing conservation and are enrolled in medical surveillance program
CO
10-6
80
Who ensures that all noise areas and sources are properly labeled and posted
supervisors
10-6
81
Provide copies of SDSs and labels of the HAZMAT to the contracting officers, who must forward these documents to the Unit HAZCOM Program Manager, HAZMAT Officer at least _____ working days before the HAZMAT are brought onto the installation
5
11-2
82
If the SDS is not available, units must notify whom that a SDS is needed and obtain the SDS from the manufacturer prior to use of the HAZMAT
the manufacturer
11-3
83
At a minimum, HAZWOPER/HAZMAT FRA training must include these elements:
PPE; regulatory overview; decontamination; hazard communication; and emergency
response and spill control
11-4
84
For HAZMAT/HAZWOPER FRA and FRO, some on-line trainings are available where, and can be accessed through _____ _____ _____ at:
https://cg.portal.uscg.mil/training/SitePages/Home.aspx
Skillport
Coast Guard Portal
11-4
85
HAZWOPER/HAZMAT FRA Refresher training shall be conducted how often
annually
11-4
86
Asbestos-Containing Material (ACM) is defined as any material containing greater than _____ asbestos by weight
1%
12-1
87
The Asbestos Program Manager (APM) must be appointed in writing by whom
CO
12-3
88
Asbestos records are kept how long
exposure monitoring- 30 years
medical surveillance-30 years
employee training-1 year after completion of employment
Asbestos Waste Shipping Papers- 2 years from date of acceptance
12-4
89
The Coast Guard requires confined spaces to be cleared at least every _____ hours or sooner if conditions within the confined space change.
24 hours
13-2
90
Who is the only person authorized to amend the unit’s confined space program
The CSPM
13-2
91
A _____ _____ _____ is someone who has completed a Gas Free Engineer (GFE) training or Shipyard Competent Person (SCP) training; with requisite work experience; and is authorized to clear confined spaces for law enforcement operations
designated competent person
13-2
92
The _____ is a term used to designate a specifically trained and authorized individual to test confined spaces and certify the permit for entry. The _____ has primary responsibility for assessing for safe levels of oxygen, flammable gases, vapors and toxic air contaminants
EA (entry authority)
13-3
93
GFEs (Gas Free Engineer) are typically a Coast Guard
military officer or Engineering Petty Officer, _____
E-6 or above
13-3
94
Active duty and civilian Coast Guard
personnel must not authorize entry (their own or anyone else’s) into a confined space without being
designated that authority in writing by their _____ _____
Commanding Officer
13-4
95
For confined spaces, practice making permit space rescues at least once every _____ months , by means of simulated rescue operations
12 months
13-6
96
Coast Guard personnel only enter confined spaces aboard commercial vessels after the space has been certified as _____ _____ _____ by a CMC (certified marine chemist)
“Atmosphere Safe for Workers”
13-7
97
_____ _____ of Coast Guard air stations must certify and re-certify, their unit’s ES (entry supervisor) in writing, at least annually.
Commanding Officers
13-9
98
Personnel who authorize entry into confined spaces must be professionally certified and/or designated entry authority by whom
their Commanding Officer
13-10
99
All Coast Guard personnel must have what level understanding of confined spaces in order to recognize a confined space and understand the hazards associated with confined spaces
awareness
13-12
100
Appoint a CSPM in writing, to manage and execute the unit’s CSE program, designate in writing, unit MIs (marine inspector), EAs, ESs(entry supervisor), and SCPs (shipyard competent person) as required.
COs
13-15
101
______ is a reactive posture to protect workers from exposure to hazardous energy
Lockout/Tag-Out
14-2
102
Who appoints in writing AOs (authorizing officers) to manage and execute the unit’s lockout/tag-out and/or tags plus program
COs
14-4
103
The ECP (exposure control plan), blood borne pathogens, must be updated how often
annually
15-2
104
What are standard precautions
These are guidelines to reduce the risk of transmission from sources of infections
15-2
105
How often is blood borne pathogen refresher training
annually
15-2
106
What are the leading causes of
fatalities and serious injuries to Coast Guard members, accounting for an average of 50-75% of all reported mishaps and several fatalities annually
Motor vehicle and recreational off-duty mishaps
16-1
107
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous eight hours. Members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
14 hours
16-2
108
What things are prohibited while driving on coast guard installations (pov or gmv) or on official business (pov or gmv)
cell phone use to include hands free devices, texting, radar detectors, or head/ear phones
16-2
109
Coast Guard active and reserve members must complete a
what or similar DoD or state approved motorcycle
training course to operate on or off base
Motorcycle Safety Foundation (MSF)
16-3
110
How often is motorcycle refresher training required
5 years
16-3
111
Coast Guard Motorcycle Safety Foundation Rider Coaches who remain current are exempt from the 5 year refresher requirement as they are required to re-certify every _____ years
2 years
16-3
112
In cases where training is not available by location or time,
Commanding Officers are authorized to grant a member temporary riding privileges and installation access to operate a motorcycle for up to _____ days while
the member acquires training
90 days
16-3
113
Military members in a permanent change of station status who are traveling more than _____ miles in their POV must complete a TRiPS
400 miles
16-6
114
Access to TRiPS is available to all personnel where
https://trips.safety.army.mil
16-6
115
What can be worn in lieu of helmets while riding a bicycle in an industrial area
hard hat approved by the command
16-6
116
Who must designate a Motor Vehicle Safety Coordinator (MVSC) in writing
CO
16-8
117
These individuals, designated in writing by the unit commander and assisted by the MVSC, are charged with implementing the command motor vehicle and recreational safety program
safety officers
16-9
118
Work-related MSDs (Musculoskeletal Disorders) account for how much of all occupational injuries and illnesses reported to the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS)
one-third
17-1
119
The signs and symptoms of MSDs vary according to the type
of injury or illness, but typically include:
Musculoskeletal Disorders
pain that does not cease overnight, numbness and tingling, and decreased joint motion, mobility and strength
17-1
120
The most common MSD risk factors are
Musculoskeletal Disorders
force, repetition, Awkward or static postures, Vibration (localized and whole-body), contact stress
17-2
121
The FEAP shall provide essential immediate information for
responding to emergencies, including fire, medical, severe weather, flooding, and loss of
utilities, bomb threats, chemical and any other reasonably possible emergency
Facility Emergency Action Plan
18-3
122
Measures shall be taken to control the growth of tall grass, brush and weeds adjacent to facilities. A break between facilities and such growth of at least _____ feet (0.9
meters) shall be maintained around all facilities
3 ft
18-5
123
Designated smoking areas shall be located a sufficient distance away, minimum of _____ feet, from building entrances, exits and combustible materials such as wood decks attached to buildings, and wood mulched and grassed areas
25 feet
18-5
124
How often shall fire drills be conducted
industrial buildings/quarters- semi-annually
CDCs- monthly
all other buildings-12 months or COs discretion
18-6
125
Where should portable fire extinguishers be placed in hangars
Extinguisher placement should be placed near exits then evenly spaced throughout within the travel distance guidelines
50 ft
18-8
126
How often shall portable fire extinguishers be inspected
monthly
18-9
127
Fire watches must remain on site with their extinguishing equipment at least how long after completion of hot work or until the hot work area is cool to the touch
30 minutes
18-10
128
What is the response time of fire fighting crews for CG aircraft
5 minutes unannounced
1 minute announced
18-18
129
What type of fire extinguishers shall be placed on rotary wing landing pads
150-pound Halon replacement agent, 150-pound Compressed Air Foam or 150-pound Potassium Bicarbonate Powder (PKP)
18-19
130
Who designates smoking areas
CO
18-24
131
At a minimum, units will receive an “in-person” aviation safety examiner visit on a _____ basis
triennial
20-2
132
A detailed unit aviation safety survey must be conducted _____ and whenever the CO directs
annually
20-3
133
Who manages the Coast Guards VFDR program
Commandant (CG-1131)
20-4
134
Who maintains the Aircraft Flight Data Users Process Guide (PG-85-00-1560-A)
Aviation Logistic Center (ALC)
20-4
135
Requests to access recorded aircraft voice, flight, and systems data for purposes not described above must be submitted to whom
Commandant (CG-1131)
20-5
136
Aviation units must discontinue their regular work routine of all shifts for at least _____ workday each calendar year to promote safety through training, awareness and enhancement of the command safety culture
one workday
20-6
137
A _____ is any condition that affects or might affect the safety of Coast Guard aircraft, personnel or equipment
hazard
20-6
138
CRM Refresher facilitators are permitted access to selected mishap records upon written request to whom, or can receive case study assistance from a unit FSO
Commandant (CG-1131)
20-6
139
_____ and _____ should be taught in small groups, preferably fewer than _____ individuals
CRM and MRM
30
20-6, 20-7
140
Fully-designated FSOs must complete a Commandant _____ approved FSO Performance Qualification Standard (PQS) and course
CG-1131
20-7
141
CRM refresher instructor competency expires when
2 years from date of course attendance
20-8
142
Laser Hazard Safety Officer (LHSO) competency expires when
2 years from date of course attendance
20-8
143
Who serves as CRM program manager
CG-711
20-10
144
Who serves as MRM program manager
CG-41
20-10
145
Who has overall responsibility for conducting safe flight operations for afloat units during shipboard-helicopter operations
## Footnote
for deployed aircraft
cutter CO
20-16
146
Who serves as the flight safety representative on the unit Flight Standards Board (FSB)
flight safety officer
20-18
147
How often is the mishap response plan (MRP) updated
annually
20-18
148
Who designates in writing the salvage officer IAW CH. 10 of the M13020.1
CO
20-21
M13020.1H p 10-1
149
What is the standard mandated height requiring fall protection measures
4 ft
24-2
150
Pesticide log and training records are kept how long
2 years
25-5
151
Who performs weekly food service facilities inspections
HS or XO
25-6
152
Units must notify each employee in writing of his/her lead exposure monitoring results within how many days after receipt of results
5 working days
27-6
153
How long are lead records kept
Exposure Monitoring- 40 years or duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer
medical surveillance- 40 years or duration of employment plus 20 years, whichever is longer
employee training- 1 year beyond employment
27-7
154
How often are SMART visits
3 years or as needed
28-9
155
What does SMART stand for
Safety Mobile Assistance and Response Training Team
Enclosure 1, p 8
