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Manuals > 3710.1I AIR OPS 2/2/2024 > Flashcards

3710.1I AIR OPS 2/2/2024 Flashcards

1
Q

Commanders implementing unit specific syllabi or any other non traditional training, techniques, and procedures shall inform who

A

Office of Aviation Forces CG-711

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2
Q

How do you propose updates and changes to this manual

A

CG-711 via requesting units CO

1-2

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3
Q

Who has primary authority for the operation
of aircraft in the Coast Guard under 14 U.S.C. §88 and §93.

A

The Commandant

1-2

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4
Q

Who gives PIC clearance for a flight

A

CO- scheduled flights it is obtained via the flight schedule, non scheduled must be obtained prior to departure

1-2

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5
Q

Who investigates mishaps and flight violations for the coast guard academy flight club

A

appropriate office of the NTSB

1-3

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6
Q

For aviation missions involving multiple aircraft (e.g., fastroping, airborne use of force) an Air Mission Commander (AMC) maybe assigned by who, and will be responsible for the overall mission execution

A

unit Operations Officer

1-3

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7
Q

If two or more aircraft are operating jointly for other missions (e.g.,SAR), the responsibility for the mission normally passes to whom

A

to the PIC of the aircraft with the better communications capabilities

1-4

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8
Q

No aircraft modifications and changes will be made without specific authorization from who

A

CG-41 and CG-711

1-4

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9
Q

No inflight testing will be conducted without specific authorization from who

A

inflight testing specifically from CG-711

1-4

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10
Q

The Aircraft Configuration Control Board Process Guide,

A

CGTO PG-85-00-70-A, is maintained by Commandant (CG-41)

1-4

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11
Q

What is the risk management manual

A

M3500.3

1-5

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12
Q

If a mission is likely to save human life, it warrants a maximum effort.

A

which warrants damage or abuse to the aircraft even if its. unrecoverable

1-5

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13
Q

If a mission is likely to prevent or relieve intense pain or suffering, or if it may result in the possibility of saving human life,

A

it warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovering the aircraft can be reasonably expected

1-5

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14
Q

Damage to the aircraft in order to save government or citizen property is warranted if what

A

the cost of the property is unquestionably more than the damage to the aircraft and the aircraft is expected to be recoverable

1-5

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15
Q

Who develops and promulgates standardization flight procedures

A

ATC

1-10

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16
Q

What certifies that a pilot or aircrew
member has gained the training and experience necessary to perform basic operation of a specified aircraft type and model

A

designation

1-10

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17
Q

What certifies that a member has gained advanced knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform specific missions in Coast Guard aircraft.

A

qualification

1-10

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18
Q

How much time in flight hours should be dedicated to training

A

40 % rotary wing
20 % fixed wing

1-10

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19
Q

Who allocates program flight hours

A

CG-711

1-11

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20
Q

What is the US Coast Guard Maritime Law Enforcement Manual

A

M16247.1

1-12

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21
Q

A medium range recovery aircraft (H60) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers

A

100-200 NM radius, 6-15 passengers

1-13

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22
Q

A long range surveillance aircraft (C-130) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers

A

1500 NM radius plus 2.5 hours 75 passengers

1-13

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23
Q

A medium range surveillance aircraft (C-27) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers

A

400 NM radius

C-27 46 passengers

C-144 40 passengers

1-13

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24
Q

A short range recovery aircraft (H65) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers

A

100 NM radius and 1-5 passengers

1-13

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25
Q

Atlantic area C-130s are under whose control

A

OPCON, Operation Control

1-13

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26
Q

If possible, make airspace reservations for pre-planned missions _____ in advance.

A

24 hours

1-14

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27
Q

The basic authority for the Coast Guard to operate aircraft is
contained where

A

in 14 U.S.C. §§2, 88 and 93

2-1

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28
Q

The primary responsibility and authority for the operation of coast guard aircraft is vested in what/whom

A

Commandant

2-1

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29
Q

Commanding Officers of units with tactical control of aircraft have authority to approve flights for Mission Requirements use; this approval is embodied by signing the unit flight schedule. This authority can be delegated no lower than whom

A

assigned Operations Officer

2-2

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30
Q

In regards to aircraft modifications, airworthiness certifications, developmental and operational evaluations flights, Flight clearance authority resides with whom

A

CG-711

2-2

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31
Q

A transfer of PIC authority and responsibility maybe authorized only by the _____ of the unit to which the aircraft is attached, or by a higher authority within the unit’s operational chain of command

A

Commanding Officer

2-6

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32
Q

Final responsibility for the safe conduct of a mission rests with whom

A

PIC

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33
Q

If a PIC refuses a mission under unsafe conditions another crew may not be assigned under the same conditions without specific approval from whom and this may not be delegated

A

CO

2-8

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34
Q

Who has authority to clear an aircraft for further flight if the damage is non structural or cosmetic or malfunction is minor or not a threat to safety

A

CO gives clearance after EO or qualified maintenance officer has evaluated and reported

2-8

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35
Q

Who will be the clearance authority for further flights of aircraft with actual or suspected structural damage or major malfunction

A

CG-711 with concurrence from CG-41 after the units CO has briefed them

2-9

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36
Q

A _____ may authorize assigned personnel to fly aboard non-Coast Guard aircraft for operational missions.

A

commanding officer
OIC

2-9

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37
Q

Retain IFR flight planning weather information recorded at a coast guard unit for how long

A

90 days

3-1

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38
Q

How long is a weight and balance form good for

A

12 months

3-2

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39
Q

Fuel reserve shall be at least that required for _____ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for fixed-wing aircraft) or ____ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for rotary-wing aircraft)

A

45 minutes for fixed wing
20 minutes for rotary wing

In any case, fuel carried on departure will be at least ten percent more than that required to reach the alternate airfield via the destination

3-1

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40
Q

How long do you retain weight and balance forms at a unit

A

90 days

3-2

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41
Q

What is the weight and balance PG

A

PG 85-00-180

3-2

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42
Q

How long should copies of filed flight plans be retained at units

A

90 days

3-3

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43
Q

Manifests maybe recorded in ALMIS or on paper and shall be retained by the aircraft’s home unit for no less than how long

A

seven years

3-3

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44
Q

For ferry flights what is the minimum required pilot assignment for 2 pilot aircraft and single pilot SRR

A

AC and CP

3-4, 3-6

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45
Q

For a SRR helicopter what is the minimum pilot requirement for a maintenance flight

A

AC

3-5

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46
Q

What is the minimum number of aircrew required for SAR or MEDEVAC on C-130

A

C-130H
SAR- 5: BA, DM,R,N,FE
MEDEVAC- 4: BA, LM, R, FE

C-130J
SAR- 2: DM,LM

3-8, 3-9

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47
Q

What is the minimum number of aircrew required for SAR or MEDEVAC on C-144 AND C-27J

A

Both are 2: BA, DM

3-10, 3-11

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48
Q

For other missions, only who of aviation units are authorized to waive the crew utilization requirements of this Paragraph to move an aircraft or a deadheading flight crew to or from a staging area. This authority may not be delegated

A

Commanding Officers

3-11

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49
Q

For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, crew utilization requirements of this Paragraph maybe waived by whom on a calculated risk basis. This authority may not be delegated

A

Commanding Officers

3-11

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50
Q

A new 24-hour period will begin anytime a flight crew or non-crew member has completed how many hours rest, regardless of duty status

A

10

3-12

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51
Q

Unless a flight crew member has
night adapted, the member may not be scheduled for more than
______ consecutive nights of reverse cycle operations

A

2

3-12

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52
Q

Alert crew duty is limited to how long when adequate rest facilities are not available

A

12 consecutive hours

3-13

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53
Q

Flight crew members shall be assigned no more than 24 hours consecutive alert duty and must have how many hours off duty immediately before assuming alert duty. exceptions maybe be authorized by whom on a calculated risk basis

A

10

CO

3-13

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54
Q

Flight crew members shall not be assigned strip or special alert for more than ____ consecutive hours (with adequate crew rest facilities) or ____ consecutive hours (without adequate crew rest facilities)

A

12 with
8 without

3-13

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55
Q

Aircraft events are not authorized within a _____ hour period immediately after simulator or AWT events

A

12 hour

3-13

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56
Q

How many hours off should air crew member have before assuming alert duty or strip alert duty

A

10 hours

3-13

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57
Q

Off duty time must allow how many hours of bed rest

A

8 hours

3-13

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58
Q

For any crew day that ends in a time zone that is four or more hours different from where it began, required hours off duty listed in Table 3-7 shall be increased by how many hours.

A

3 hours

3-13

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59
Q

How much of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as crew mission time

A

One half

3-13

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60
Q

For deployed aircrews, If the average flight hours per day exceed
____ hours during any seven consecutive days ,then the crew member shall be relieved from all duty for no less than _____ hours

A

04

24

3-14

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61
Q

If your individual flight hours are 8 or more and crew mission time is 12 or more how much crew rest shall you have in a 24 hour period

A

15 hours

3-14

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62
Q

A flight crew member shall be relieved from all duty (including collateral duties) for not less than ____ consecutive hours at least once during any ____ consecutive days (192hours)

A

24 hours
8 days

3-14

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63
Q

What are the 7, 30, and 365 day flight hour limitations

A

7-50
30-125
365-1100

3-14, 15

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64
Q

How long after last alcohol intake must aviation personnel abstain from flight

A

12 hours with no residual affects

3-15

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65
Q

How long after hyperbaric exposure (low pressure chamber) can you not fly

A

12 hours no flight duties with flight above 30,000 ft
May fly as passengers of aircraft that does not exceed 10,000ft

3-15

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66
Q

Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within ____ hours following Self-Contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus (SCUBA) diving,compressed air dives, or high-pressure chamber evolutions

A

24 hours

3-15

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67
Q

For urgent operation requirements Who can clear a member to fly within _____ hours after scuba diving given no symptoms of decompression sickness or air embolism

A

12

Flight surgeon or other qualifies aviation medical provider

3-15

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68
Q

Who gives permission to donate blood and bone marrow

A

CO

3-15

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69
Q

What is the aviation medical manual

A

M6410.3

3-15

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70
Q

What can a pilot not wear during single pilot operations

A

Contact lenses

3-16

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71
Q

Crew members who require corrective lenses to correct to 20/20 vision must have what in their possession

A

A back up pair of corrective lenses

3-16

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72
Q

All flights shall comply with
the weather requirements of this Section based on the actual weather at the point of departure, the forecast weather en route, and the forecast at both the destination and alternate for the period beginning one hour before until _____ after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at each point

A

one hour

3-16

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73
Q

What are weather take off minimums

A

Meteorological visibility of one half statute mile for non-operational missions.
*Meteorological visibility of one quarter statute mile for operational missions

3-16

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74
Q

Who can give take off permission below minimums

A

CO and it can be delegated down to the deployed AC

3-16

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75
Q

What are the requirements for alternate destinations including one hour before and after landing

A

RW:
Ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation or at least 400 feet above the lowest compatible approach minimum, whichever is higher

Visibility is at least two statute miles

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76
Q

What are RWAI weather requirements

A

No take off mins,
Have target in sight clear of clouds with visibility no less than 1 statute mile

3-16

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77
Q

What is the correct flight path when dealing with volcanic ash

A

Above or on the upwind side of volcanic dust

maintenance inspection needed to clear flight afterwards

3-19

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78
Q

What is the Shipboard Helicopter Operational Procedures Manual

A

M3710.2

3-18

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79
Q

Local modifications to checklists, including partial completions without specific intent for flight operations, are not authorized without approval from whom

A

Commandant (CG-711)

4-2

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80
Q

What is the primary responsibility of flight crews

A

to execute their assigned duty in aircraft cabin and monitor the flight path of the aircraft during critical phases of flight

4-1

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81
Q

for flight control transfer, if verbal transfer is not possible due to excess noise or failed ICS, what is the appropriate manner of transfer

A

The pilot desiring to be relieved shall pat his or her head with one hand
and then point to the other pilot.

The pilot taking control shall pat his or her head in acknowledgment
and immediately and deliberately move both hands to the flight controls.

The pilot being relieved shall hold both hands over head signifying that
he or she has given up control

4-4

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82
Q

Naps shall be limited to ____ minutes, and all crew members shall be awakened ____ hour before an anticipated high-workload event

A

40 minutes
One hour before

4-5

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83
Q

When an aircraft is being taxied within ____ feet of obstructions, a two person (minimum) taxi crew is required. One member will serve as taxi signalman/wing walker, the other as an additional wing walker. Aircraft shall not be taxied at anytime within ____ feet of obstructions

A

25 ft
5 ft

4-6

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84
Q

What is the Physical Security and Force Protection Program manual

A

COMDTINST M5530.1

4-7

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85
Q

Who is responsible for an aircraft if it has been involved in a mishap until relieved by proper authority

A

PIC unless incapacitated then the responsibility falls on senior crewmember

4-7

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86
Q

Proposed changes to flight publications shall be coordinated through what

A

CG-711

4-8

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87
Q

Who may publish minimum equipment list for aircraft and missions for a unit’s guidance for flight crews

A

CO

4-11

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88
Q

What eye test is given to an aircrewman after a laser strike

A

AMSLER grid eye chart

4-12

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89
Q

What is the Safety and Environmental health manual

A

M5100.47

4-12

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90
Q

After a laser strike an aircrew member is assessed medically IAW what manual

A

M5100.47

Safety and Environmental Health Manual

4-12

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91
Q

Who do you report laser strikes to

A

Local law enforcement, CGIS, OPCON, nearest ATC, the CIO/CDIO, and District Intelligence Staff

4-12, 4-13

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92
Q

Resorts and beaches should be avoided by flying aircraft by what distances and altitude

A

fixed wing- 2000 ft AGL, 1 mile

rotary wing- 500 ft AGL, 1/4 mile

4-13

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93
Q

If flying over environmentally sensitive areas, maintain an altitude of no less than how many feet

A

2,000 ft AGL

4-13

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94
Q

Who approves the items inside an aerial delivery container

A

CG-711

4-15

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95
Q

When a single CG aircraft is converging with a flight formation who has the right of way

A

the formation has the right of way

4-16

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96
Q

RWAI: Intercept training shall be conducted at what altitude

A

minimum 1000 ft AGL

4-17

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97
Q

What is the CG maritime law enforcement manual

A

M16247.1

4-18

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98
Q

How may divers be deployed from CG aircraft

A

rescue basket (tanks deployed separately), ACCB approved harness (inspected by AST and enrolled in MSR ACMS), harness deployments with tanks are limited to water only

4-19

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99
Q

How often shall a diver complete the diver helicopter deployment syllabus with a qualified RS or conduct a harness deployment dive mission

A

Either one within the previous 12 months

4-19

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100
Q

The decision to deploy the RescueSwimmer (RS) is initiated by whom, but who has the authority to decline deployment if the RS assesses the situation to be beyond his or her capability.

A

PIC

RS

4-20

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101
Q

The crew shall consider what when deciding to deploy the RS

A

on scene environmental factors like sea state, water/air temp, marine life, and the RS ability to complete the mission

4-20

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102
Q

A RS shall not swim under a capsized object (vessel, vehicle, ice layers, parachutes, aircraft, etc.), but may search under visually while maintaining a grasp of a reference point on the exterior

A

true

4-20

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103
Q

Vertical delivery of boarding team members shall have completed at least one hoist evolution within the preceding ____ calendar months, if no hoist accomplished, member shall complete CG-711 approved initial qual syllabus

A

12 months

4-20

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104
Q

Hoisting of Canine Explosive Detection Teams (CEDT) is authorized. The handler and canine must complete the Commandant (CG-711) approved Canine Handler initial qualification syllabus. Each CEDT shall complete at least one hoist evolution within the preceding ______ calendar months.

A

12

4-21

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105
Q

Who has approval authority for hoisting the CEDT

A

CO

4-21

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106
Q

What are the 3 aircrew survivability factors that should be evaluated by the CO during planning for an offshore mission

A

estimated time to to loss of useful consciousness

probable survival time

estimated recovery time

4-22

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107
Q

Even in situations where fatality from hypothermia is highly improbable, cold water greatly facilitates unconsciousness and/or
death from drowning, often in the first ______, particularly for those not wearing flotation devices.

A

10 to 15 minutes

4-22

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108
Q

Who approves static displays

A

Area or District Commander

4-25

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109
Q

All approved requests for flight or static display shall be filed and maintained at the unit for how long

A

1 year

4-26

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110
Q

What is the Aircraft Transfer PG

A

PG 85-00-160A

4-27

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111
Q

Who directs the transfer of all aircraft

A

CG-711

4-27

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112
Q

Test flights shall be conducted in daylight hours, however who can waive this requirement if the flight can be conducted safely and it may not be delegated

A

CO

4-27

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113
Q

What is the Military Justice manual

A

M5810.1

4-28

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114
Q

Who tasks mobile ATC via memorandum to provide AUF training to specific units

A

CG-711

4-32

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115
Q

The use of deadly force from an aircraft is authorized as
prescribed in what manual

A

U.S. Coast Guard Maritime Law Enforcement Manual (MLEM), COMDTINST M16247.1(series)

4-33

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116
Q

Who approves a portable electronic device

A

ACCB

4-33

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117
Q

Voice recordings maybe considered a form of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and shall be protected in accordance with what

A

Privacy Act of 1974

4-37

118
Q

Who keeps flight records and for how long for the following?

a record of each flight with a senior federal official, their spouse, or dependent
*Copy of the passenger manifest.
*Copy of all documents approving the transportation of such passengers on the flight.
*Copy of cost justification where appropriate.

A

7 years, CG-711

5-1, 5-2

119
Q

Who approves Space Available Travel for non official travel

A

Vice Commandant

5-5, table 5-1

120
Q

Any transportation of senior Federal officials, their spouses, dependents and any non-Federal travelers during a semi-annual period shall be reported to whom. Reports shall be submitted by 15 October and 15 April

A

Commandant (CG-711)

5-8

121
Q

Who approves congressional members to fly on CG aircraft and handles all congressional type flights

(including congress members, their staff and dependents)

A

CG-0921

5-9

122
Q

Who reviews and forwards recommendations to CG-711 for congressional transportation and operational orientation flights

A

CG-0921

5-9

123
Q

Who is the Assistant Commandant for Intelligence

A

CG-2

5-9

124
Q

Commanding Officers of air stations conducting aeromedical transportation flights shall maintain, for a minimum of ____ years, a paper record for each aeromedical transportation flight containing the following documents: hard copies of flight record from ALMIS, passenger manifest, and A copy of all documents establishing the cost justification for aeromedical transportation

A

7 years

5-11

125
Q

With aircraft embarked or deployed who has the authority to approve orientation flights. This authority shall not be delegated.

A

Commanding Officers of Coast Guard air stations and cutters

5-12

126
Q

Active and reserve military personnel and members of the Department of the Homeland Security are authorized to act as survivors on RS training flights after completing the _____ approved Rescue Swimmer Training Survivor Syllabus. Only graduates of a formal helicopter rescue swimmer training program are permitted to perform free fall deployments

A

Commandant
(CG-711)

5-15

127
Q

Who may assign an aircraft not meeting all mission capability requirements if he or she determines that the mission will have a reasonable chance of success

A

Commanding Officer

6-1

128
Q

Who shall ensure the aircraft is suitably equipped to provide a reasonable chance of success

A

Commanding Officer

6-1

129
Q

The minimum rescue equipment required to be carried aboard coast guard aircraft is described where

A

M13520.1 and PG 85-00-310-A

6-1

130
Q

To be considered fully mission capable for SAR, a fixed-wing aircraft shall have the following raft abilities during the day and at night

A

*Deliver a raft for 5 or more survivors

*Deliver rafts for 15 or more survivors (recommended but not required for MRS)

6-1

131
Q

To be considered fully mission capable for SAR, a rotary-wing aircraft shall have the following abilities during the day and at night

A

*Recover 1 to 5 survivors from a vessel or the water (SRR)

*Recover 6 to 15 survivors from a vessel or the water (MRR)

6-2

132
Q

To provide maximum fire protection, sleeves shall not

A

be rolled up

6-4

133
Q

Policy, Authorization, and Instructions pertaining to the procurement, configuration, use and maintenance of protective clothing authorized for personnel conducting Coast Guard missions from an aircraft is specified in the

A

M13520.1 and PG 85-00-310-A

6-4

134
Q

How often shall flight gear be inspected

A

Annually and reporting aboard

6-4

135
Q

Non-aircrew personnel conducting fast roping or vertical delivery shall wear anti-exposure garments in accordance with

A

Rescue and Survival Systems Manual, COMDTINST M10470.10

6-5

136
Q

When are anti exposure garment (ADC)required

A

70°F ≤ Water and Any air temp: Not required

60°F ≤ Water < 70°F and 85°F ≤ Air temp: Not required

60°F ≤ Water < 70°F and Air temp < 85°F: Required

60°F > Water and Any air temp: Required

6-5

137
Q

Non-aircrew personnel with frequent periodic flight requirements shall wear the authorized anti-exposure garments described in

A

Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1

6-5

138
Q

All non-aircrew personnel may wear anti-exposure coveralls or dry suit ensembles described in the

A

M10470.10

6-5

139
Q

A Pilot in Command must weigh the performance/degradation of an RS in a wetsuit for periods of longer than

A

30 minutes

6-6

140
Q

Aircrew shall wear the Aircrew
Dry Coverall or the Aircrew Immersion Coverall garments described in the

A

Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual,
COMDTINST M13520.1(series)

6-5

141
Q

Underwear and socks worn under flight suits shall be what material

A

Underwear-100 % cotton or fire retardant moisture wicking
Socks- 80 % cotton or wool

6-5

142
Q

What temperature should the RS wear the dry suit

A

55 degrees or below

6-6

143
Q

All air craft shall carry enough life rafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate all aircraft occupants for flights that remain over water longer than ____ minutes or extend beyond ____ nautical miles from the nearest shore.

A

30 minutes, 100 nautical miles

6-6

144
Q

Who approves the transport of infectious biological samples

A

Routed via the chain of command to CG-711 for review and forwarding onto to the director of health safety and work life, CG-11 for final approval.

6-6

145
Q

What manual contains the minimum contents of survival vests

A

M13520.1

CO may require additional items for local conditions with CG-711 approval

6-7

146
Q

The minimum altitude for oxygen use in an unpressurized aircraft can be extended to 12,000 ft if what

A

As long as it does not remain above 10,000 ft for more than 30 minutes

6-7

147
Q

What is the minimum altitude for oxygen use in an unpressurized aircraft

A

10,000 ft MSL

6-7

148
Q

What age shall children occupy their own seat

A

above the age of 2

6-8

149
Q

When is the required seat harness or seatbelt considered an exception to wearing

A

Flight above 1000 ft, during medevacs, required flight crew duties, and purposes of stan check duties on C-130 with PIC approval

6-8

150
Q

One first aid kit for treatment of injuries likely to occur in flight or minor accidents shall be provided for every

A

10 occupants

6-9

151
Q

How is Oxymetazoline spray(AFRIN) procured

A

From local medical facilities

6-9

152
Q

Where can you find the required number of crash axes for an aircraft

A

The aircraft’s flight manual

6-9

153
Q

Approved litters aboard cutters or at boat stations shall be marked as
HELICOPTER HOIST-ABLE and maintained in accordance with what manual

A

Rescue and Survival Systems Manual, COMDTINST M10470.10

6-9

154
Q

Who has the authority to issue or revoke designations and qualifications

A

CO

7-1

155
Q

Who designates and assigns flight surgeons

A

Commandant CG-1121

p. 7-1

156
Q

How many hours must an aviation mission specialist have in aircraft to wear insignia permanently

A

200 R/W
400 F/W

7-2

157
Q

How long are designations valid for

A

12 months (can be waived to 15 months via CO approval)

7-1

158
Q

For cg aviators, enlisted aircrew, and flight surgeons, insignia is awarded IAW what manual

A

Aviators (pilots)- M1000.3
Enlisted aircrew- M1000.2
Flight surgeons-M6410.3

COMDTINST

7-1

159
Q

Coast guard aviator and aircrew insignia shall be rescinded IAW what

A

COMDTINST M1200.1

7-2

160
Q

Who approves the flight syllabi for pilots and aircrew

A

CG-711

7-2

161
Q

What training is required before beginning flight instruction

A

*Initial Crew Resource Management (CRM) training

*Low Pressure/Dynamic Hypoxia Training–pressurized aircraft crews
only

*Underwater Egress Training (Dunker)– helicopter crews only

*Aviation Water Survival Training (WetDrill)– not required for Air Station Washington

*Emergency Breathing Device/Shallow Water Egress Training
(EBD/SWET)– helicopter crews only

*Swimtest–not required for Air Station Washington

*Emergency Ground Egress Training–required for each aircraft type
and model in which designation is sought

*Training in installed survival gear

*Training in use of ICS and terminology

7-2

162
Q

What training is required within 60 days of initial designation

A

Local initial COMSEC/OPSEC
operational hazard awareness
land survival
training in survival equipment and pyrotechnics
designation stan check flight

7-3

163
Q

Dunker/underwater egress training is a _____ month requirement

A

75

7-3

164
Q

What training has a 12 month requirement

A

designation stan check
CRM refresher

may be extended to 15 months with CO approval

7-3

165
Q

What training is due once per calendar year

A

Wet drills
emergency breathing device shallow water egress training
swim test
survival equipment and pyrotechnics land survival
emergency ground egress training
OPSEC/COMSEC
OPHAZ training

laser hazard and employment training (only for aircrew and maintenance personnel of platforms employing class 3b and 4 lasers Physiological training

7-3, 7-4

166
Q

Any pilot deployed aboard a ship who has not flown in his or her primary crew position (in flight or in an approved simulator) during the previous ______ days will be required to fly a warm-up prior to flying in that crew position on an operational mission.

A

21 days

7-4

167
Q

Warm up flights are required when any member hasn’t flown in ____ days(exception is AMS or FS designation)

A

30 days

7-4

168
Q

Each crew member shall have performed the duties of his or her designated crew position in flight at least once within the preceding _______ months

A

at least once in the preceding 6 months

7-4

169
Q

Pilots stationed at the ALC or APO that have not flown in the preceding _____ days shall not be assigned as Pilot-in-Command

A

45 days

7-4

170
Q

If a flight crew member does not complete periodic training
requirements, fails an evaluated event, or has a designation removed for cause by the Commanding Officer, who has approval to re-designate the member

A

CO

7-4

171
Q

If a member has no flights in the aircraft type and model in which he or she is designated within the preceding ____ calendar months, the individual must complete a Commandant(CG-711) approved designation or redesignation syllabus.

A

12 calendar months

7-4

172
Q

If a member has no flights within the previous ____ calendar months, a designation standardization check flight is required for redesignation.

A

6 calendar months

7-4

173
Q

For crew members designated in more than one model of the same type of aircraft, a Commandant (CG-711) approved _______ syllabus may be substituted for a designation standardization check flight for one of the lapsed designations.

A

ground

7-5

174
Q

How long are qualifications good for

A

12 months but may be extended to 15 with CO approval

7-5

175
Q

Who approves entry into the qualification syllabus for all qualifications

A

Operations Officer

7-6

176
Q

If a member has not performed the mission or periodic training requirements associated with a qualification within the preceding 6 months and 12 months what must be done

A

6 months- qualification stan check
12 months- qualification syllabus must be completed

7-6

177
Q

A ________ certifies that a member has gained advanced knowledge, skills and abilities necessary to perform specific missions in a type and model of Coast Guard aircraft.

A

qualification

7-5

178
Q

Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 14-45 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements

A

1 month

7-7

179
Q

Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 46-75 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements

A

2 months

7-7

180
Q

Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 106-135 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements

A

4 months

7-7

181
Q

Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 76-105 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements

A

3 months

7-7

182
Q

Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 136-165 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements

A

5 months

7-7

183
Q

How often must pilots of pressurized aircraft complete low pressure chamber training

A

12 years

7-9

184
Q

What is the Maritime Law Enforcement Manual

A

M16247.1

7-15

185
Q

What is the Air Interdiction Procedures manual

A

M3710.3

7-18

186
Q

Who approves aircraft syllabus for designation

A

CG-711

7-19 and multiple other pages

187
Q

How long must a C-130H BA be qualified in that position before becoming a flight engineer

A

1 year

7-19

188
Q

Each HC-130H Flight Engineer shall have completed a proficiency simulator course within the preceding _____calendar months.

A

12

7-19

189
Q

What is the minimum flight hours requirement for flight surgeons

A

24 hours per semi annual period
4 hour of night to include 2 hours NVG aided

7-20

190
Q

Prior to beginning the Navigator syllabus(to become a Flight Navigator) the member must be a qualified Radio Operator with at least _____ flight hours in aircraft type

A

50 hours

7-19

191
Q

How often shall a FM and RS complete asset familiarization training

A

Biennially, and within 3 months of reporting to new duty station

7-21

192
Q

What are the requirements to maintain a basic hoist qualification

A

Stan check within the last 12 months(may be extended to 15 with CO approval) and at least 1 hoist within the preceding semi annual period

7-20

193
Q

A RS must complete at least 1 deployment in the last ____ days

A

90 days

7-22

194
Q

A RS can fly as mission essential personnel, not an air crew member for how long after completing the RS abbreviated qualification syllabus

A

90 days

7-22

195
Q

Who must an E-7-E-9 notify if intentions are to allow RS qual to lapse and not stand duty

A

Chief Office of aviation Forces (CG-711)

7-23

196
Q

How many harness/sling deployments shall include the static discharge cable

A

Minimum of 1

7-23

197
Q

How many direct deploymentsper semi-annual shall employ the double lift

A

Minimum of 1

7-23

198
Q

How often must an aircraft vector be completed

A

180 days

7-23

199
Q

A minimum of ___ sling/harness deployment or direct deployment must be completed at night

A

1

7-23

200
Q

What are the yearly requirements for a RS to attend AHRS

A

3 years within initial certification and recurrent is every 6 years

7-23

201
Q

How often must a RS complete a vertical surface deployment to maintain qualification

A

12 months, 15 months with CO approval

7-23

202
Q

How often is stan check due for a fast rope qualified FM

A

12 months, 15 months with CO approval

7-24

203
Q

Who authorizes pilot and aircrew instructors in writing

A

CO

7-29

204
Q

Who recommends a member to receive instructor designation

A

Unit operations officer

7-29

205
Q

How often is an instructor qualification stan check required

A

12 months

7-29

206
Q

How many syllabus instruction flights are required per semi annual period for an instructor to maintain qualification

Or ground training sessions

A

3 flights

7-30

207
Q

Who shall authorize all unit
Pilot or Aircrew Flight Examiners in writing

A

Commanding Officers

7-30

208
Q

For wet drills, how long shall the air crew member enter and remain in the water wearing a flight suit or dry suit and survival vest

A

At least 10 minutes

7-32

209
Q

What is the preferred site for wet drills (over a swimming pool or lake or sheltered harbor)

A

Offshore site where moderate sea conditions exist

7-32

210
Q

What shall the trainee do while in the water for wet drills

A

Inflate the survival vest orally, locate and deploy the survival items, note effort required to swim, and remain in a stable floatation posture, enter a one or multi person raft

7-32

211
Q

Who approves under water egress training (dunker) facility

A

CG-711

7-32

212
Q

What training provides helicopter air crew members with skills and confidence required to increase the probability of a successful egress under disorienting conditions after the aircraft enters the water and becomes inverted

A

Emergency breathing device/shallow water egress training

7-33

213
Q

If not current with the emergency breathing device when reporting aboard a new unit, training must be completed within how many days

A

60 days

7-33

214
Q

What does the swim test evaluate

A

The members ability to swim a short distance in order to reach a life raft after a water landing

Comfort not form

7-33

215
Q

How long is the air crew member swim test

A

75 yards

7-33

216
Q

What stroke is used for the air crew swim test

A

Crawl, breast, back,side, or combination thereof

7-33

217
Q

What is to be worn while performing the air crew 75 yard swim test

A

Flight suit, boots, uninflated vest with normal gear or 2 lb weights in pockets, not an adc

7-33

218
Q

What type of vest shall be used for air crew swim test

A

Normally equipped vest or training vest with pocket survival items replaced with 2 pound weights

7-33

219
Q

How long is the water tread for air crew members

A

2 minutes

7-33

220
Q

How often shall a risk mitigation meeting occur between rotary wing stations and each of their supporting AOR boat stations

A

Annually

7-33

221
Q

Night adaptation *Visual and vestibular illusions *Potential negative impact of smoking, caffeine, and alcohol *Benefits of physical fitness *Physiological changes that can be anticipated as the body ages are examples of what

A

Physiological responses to flight environment

7-34

222
Q

What is the risk management manual

A

Risk Management Instruction 3500.3

7-34

223
Q

Each member shall satisfactorily complete a standardization check flight and a closed-book and open-book (if given) examination within how days of the Stan check flight on critical aircraft systems, emergency procedures and limitations

A

30 days

80% passing

7-35

224
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining log books and training records to include ALMIS data entries of pilots and air crew members

A

CO

7-37

225
Q

What are the training record cover sheet forms

A

Pilot: CG-3700
Air crew member: CG-3701

7-37

226
Q

Upon PCS how is the training record transferred

A

Sealed and hand carried by member

7-37

227
Q

Who shall maintain records of all check flights administered and qualifications issued or renewed

A

Unit Flight Examining Boards

7-38

228
Q

Who shall submit a letter report to the CO together with a statement from the flight crew member concerned, whenever a flight crew member fails an evaluated event, fails a written examination, or fails to maintain a qualification or designation

A

Unit training officer

submitted within 30 days following
the end of the period

7-39

229
Q

Who designates FSB and FEB members in writing

A

CO

7-39

230
Q

How often shall FEB meet

A

Quarterly and submit a written report of meeting to unit operations officer

7-40

231
Q

What is the safety and environmental health manual

A

5100.47

8-1

232
Q

How often does the FSB meet

A

Quarterly and submit a written report of meeting to unit CO

7-39

233
Q

How many processes does coast guard aviation have for mishaps response

A

3

a mishap analysis board, administrative major incident investigation, aviator evaluation board

8-1

234
Q

Who manages the mishap analysis process, including participation with investigations between USCG and other agencies

A

CG-1131

8-2

235
Q

What class mishaps require temporary grounding

A

Class A and B

8-2

236
Q

What class mishap requires an aviator evaluation board (AEB)

A

Class A

8-2

237
Q

Temporary grounding after Class C and D mishaps are at the discretion of whom

A

CO

8-2

238
Q

After a mishap, Aircrew personnel must be evaluated by a flight surgeon and be found physically qualified and aeronautically adaptable for aviation duties prior to resuming flight status. Waiver of this requirement may only be obtained from whom

A

Commandant (CG-711).

8-2

239
Q

The aircrew members involved in Class A mishaps will remain grounded until the AEB process is complete. Waiver of this requirement may be obtained
from whom

A

Commandant (CG-711)

8-2

240
Q

Who manages Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)

A

Office of Work-Life

8-2

241
Q

How can you access the Employee Assistance Program (for confidential stress or other related issues to a crises

A

855-CGSUPRT or linking to the website www.cgsuprt.com

8-3

242
Q

Where can you find CISM guidance

A

Critical Incident Stress Management Instruction COMDTINST 1754.3

8-2

243
Q

Custody and handling of a VFDR
following a mishap shall be in accordance with what

A

Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47(series) and Commandant (CG-1131) guidance

8-3

244
Q

The recovery and salvage of a mishap aircraft and the assignment of a salvage officer is the responsibility of the reporting custodian, normally who

A

Commanding Officer of a Coast Guard aviation unit or Coast Guard cutter with a deployed aircraft

8-3

245
Q

What is the primary directive for aircraft salvage and recovery

A

M13020.1

8-3

246
Q

Who can approve flight without a VFDR

A

CO

8-4

247
Q

Report all serious near midair collisions without damage to who and how quickly

Damage during evasive maneuvering shall be reported

A

Commandant (CG-1131) within 24 hours as Aviation Flight-Related mishaps

within 24 hours as an
Aviation Flight mishap

8-4

248
Q

Serious near midair collisions with injuries or aircraft damage shall be classified in accordance with what

A

Safety and Environmental
Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47

8-4

249
Q

Serious near midair collisions without injuries or aircraft damage shall normally be reported as what

A

Class D mishaps

8-4

250
Q

A near midair collision is an incident where a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than ____ feet to another aircraft

A

500 ft

8-4

251
Q

Who can authorize temporary deviations from the provisions
of this Section (FLIGHT SAFETY FOR NON-AIRCREW MISSION ESSENTIAL PERSONNEL) for mission essential personnel when necessary to respond to urgent incidents requiring unusual levels of flight activity

A

Commanding Officers

8-5

252
Q

Who shall ensure flight equipment is maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s standards or guidance of the Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1

A

Unit commanding officers

8-5

253
Q

What are the flight requirements for non-aircrew mission essential personnel

A

*Planned flight every 90-days or less required by a policy to maintain a current qualification or competency

*Planned flight every 30-days or less for longer than six consecutive months to execute approved missions

*Planned flight every 7-days or less during surge operations lasting longer than one month

8-5

254
Q

How often shall non-aircrew mission essential personnel complete underwater egress training

A

75 months calendar months

8-6

255
Q

Non-aircrew mission essential personnel shall have successfully completed aviation water survival training, and a swim test within the preceding ____ calendar months

A

24

8-6

256
Q

Non-aircrew mission essential personnel with periodic flight requirements shall review in flight emergency procedures, ditching procedures, use of aircraft safety equipment, use of personal protective equipment, and emergency egress procedures related to the type and model aircraft authorized to fly aboard as well as complete land survival training how often

A

Annually (each calendar year)

8-6

257
Q

Training records shall be maintained IAW

A

Information and Life Cycle Management Manual COMDTINST 5212.12

8-6

258
Q

A deployment entry is required whenever an aircraft is away from home station for any period of time greater than how many hours

A

11.9 hours

9-1

259
Q

How do you calculate flight hours for the fractional minute portion

A

Calculate the whole hour first. Take the remaining minutes and add 3, then divide that number by 6. Round the result down to the nearest whole digit and divide by 10. This will give the decimal (fractioned) portion of flight hours.

Ex. 128 minutes = 2.1 hours: 120 minutes= 2 hours, 8 minutes=0.1: 8+3=11, 11 divided by 6 =1(1.8333 rounded down) 1 divided by 10=0.1

9-2

260
Q

In the first hour flight of 2 minutes or less are logged as what

A

0.1 flight time

9-2

261
Q

What are the 4 event statuses assigned to an event at the end of each 24 hour period

A
  1. success
  2. delay- delayed more than 15 min.
  3. abort- canceled after PIC signed
  4. cancel-canceled before PIC signed

9-3

262
Q

How often does the CO review and approve flight records

A

monthly

9-4

263
Q

When can a flight crew member be placed on flight orders

A

At least when the initial ground portion of flight syllabus is complete

9-5

264
Q

SDAP shall be managed IAW

A

Special Duty Assignment Pay COMDTINST 1430.1

9-5

265
Q

All COMDTINST M3710 series manuals will be updated by the OPD and distributed electronically by whom

A

Commandant (CG-6)

9-6

266
Q

Who promulgates flight manuals and sub manuals (Coast Guard Operational Publications

A

CG-711

9-6

267
Q

The Recommendation for Change of Publication (CGTO), ______ will be used to correct errors or voids

A

CG-847 (approved by command before being forwarded)

9-7

268
Q

All air stations will be provided how many copies of checklists per aircraft

A

04

9-7

269
Q

Who manages changes and updates to CGTOs and operational publications (flight manuals)

A

OPD

9-6, 9-7

270
Q

Who designates department and assistant department heads in writing

A

CO

App A-2

271
Q

Who designates the Master at Arms

A

XO

App. A-2

272
Q

Who acts as senior member of unit safety and health committee

A

XO

App A-2

273
Q

Who acts as president of unit permanent mishap board

A

XO

App A-2

274
Q

Who Coordinates and controls movements of aircraft and boats (and vehicles, when operationally employed); establish fuel loadings for aircraft and boats

A

operations officer

App A-4

275
Q

Who Manages and directs training of pilots and aircrew-men; coordinates training syllabi, both flight and ground, in accordance with pertinent Commandant’s Directive

A

operations officer

App A-4

276
Q

Who Supervises Flight Examining Board and Flight Standards Board

A

Operations officer

App A-4

277
Q

Who Oversees flight orders, AvIP, SDAP, and operational/technical qualification programs for assigned enlisted personnel

A

LCPO

App A-11

278
Q

Who shall Establish programs for fuel and oil contamination prevention, foreign object damage prevention, and corrosion control

A

EO

App A-7

279
Q

Changes in ready crew assignments shall be made only with
approval of the ________ or a designated representative

A

Commanding Officer

App A-13

280
Q

What adverse physiological or psychological factors can be
responsible for causing mishaps

A

fatigue, improper diet, poor physical condition, improper or excessive use of tobacco, alcohol or drugs, minor illness, mental or emotional stresses, and insufficient or irregular sleep

App B-1

281
Q

What is the normal standard amount of sleep for flying personnel

A

8 continuous hours in a 24 hour period

App B-3,4

282
Q

What is the risk management instruction

A

M3500.3

App B-1

283
Q

What is considered a redzone mission

A

0300-sunrise

App B-4

284
Q

What is the most effective time to shift routines to balance daylight for aircraft/cutter maintenance and training and desired night time operations

A

1400 to 1500 Reveille and 0400 Taps

App B-4

285
Q

For night adaptation for reverse cycle operations, seek sunlight exposure after awakening from sleep at what time

A

1500

App B-4

286
Q

Define short term reverse cycle operations

A

less than 2 weeks of continuous operations between 0000-sunrise

App B-6

287
Q

Define long term reverse cycle operations

A

more than 2 weeks of continuous operations between 0000-sunrise

App B-6

288
Q

Short term reverse cycle adaptation guidelines

A

night 1- red zone launch 10 hours crew rest after mission completion

night 2-0000-sunrise launch: limited to 4.0 hours of cutter-based flight operations (including training flights)

night 3-no launch between 0000-sunrise with 24 hours crew rest before assuming alert duty from 0000-sunrise

App B-6, 7

redzone: 0300-sunrise

289
Q

Long term reverse cycle adaptation guidelines

A

requires a minimum of four nights to potentially shift the body’s clock from 0000 to 0600 bedtime

sleep sunrise to 1500

after night 4: ramp down- 24 hours of day operations only

App B-7, 8

290
Q

Light exposure

A

The light source should be approximately 20 to 30 inches away
from your eyes such that it bathes your face from the side

App B-8

291
Q

The amount of caffeine contained in just _____ cups of coffee appreciably affects the rates of blood flow and respiration

A

2

App B-10

292
Q

Someone experiencing simulator sickness should not fly for how long after simulator exposure

A

24 hours

App B-11

Manuals (30 decks)

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