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PMLS 2 > (M) Lesson 4: Special Procedures and POCT > Flashcards

(M) Lesson 4: Special Procedures and POCT Flashcards

1
Q

Is non-routine, requires additional prep, and requires other specimen (urine & feces)

A

Special Collection Procedures

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2
Q

Refers to blood typing and crossmatching for blood transfusions

A

Screening

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3
Q

What are the two types of blood classifications?

A

ABO and Rh

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4
Q

T or F: You can rely on verbal blood type declaration by the patient

A

False

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5
Q

T or F: In screening for infectious diseases, notify the donor if results come back negative

A

False (positive)

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6
Q

Refers to non-infectious blood that is stored prior to crossmatching

A

Cleared blood

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7
Q

What is the standard blood donation volume?

A

450mL

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8
Q

What specimen is donated for transfusions?

A

Whole Blood

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9
Q

What is the month interval for donating whole blood?

A

Every 3 months

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10
Q

What is the age range for blood donors?

A

18-65 years old

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11
Q

What is the minimum weight requirement for donating blood?

A

110 pounds/50 kg

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12
Q

T or F: If the blood volume of an underweght donor is less than the prescribed 450mL, the blood-anticoagulant ratio in the blood bag will not be satisfied

A

True

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13
Q

Refers to blood donation for yourself in future procedures

A

Autologous Donation

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14
Q

Refers to developing antibodies to blood you receive due to frequent donations

A

Alloimmunization

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15
Q

T or F: Autologous donation increases disease transmission risk

A

False

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16
Q

T or F: Autologous donations can be used for those with rare blood types and multiple antibodies

A

True

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17
Q

Type of autologous donation done 5-6 weeks before a procedure

A

Preoperative

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18
Q

Type of autologous donation that allows shedded blood to be used as long as it is washed with saline

A

Intraoperative

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19
Q

Type of autologous donation used for emergency cases wherein shedded blood can be washed or not

A

Postoperative

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20
Q

T or F: Intra and post autologous collection is done outside the surgical room

A

False (inside)

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21
Q

This test checks for blood pathogens

A

Blood culture

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22
Q

Process that refers to screening for bacteria

A

Bacteremia

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23
Q

Process that refers to screening for microorganisms and toxins

A

Septicemia

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24
Q

T or F: Bacteremia is more severe than septicemia

A

False

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25
Q

T or F: Bacteremia can develop into septicemia

A

True

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26
Q

How many blood culture sets are prepared for aerobic and anaerobic testing?

A

2-4

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27
Q

T or F: Blood cultures use opposite sites of collection for uniformity (left and right side)

A

True

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28
Q

What is the order of substances in skin antisepsis for blood cultures?

A

Alcohol -> Iodine -> Alcohol (again)

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29
Q

Refers to the introduction of a specimen with a culture medium (agar plate) for incubation

A

Inoculation

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30
Q

How many days should cultures be checked daily?

A

5 days

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31
Q

T or F: Culture growth beyond the 5th day is considered to be a contaminant and is rejected

A

True

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32
Q

When inoculating the medium directly into the bottle, this is done ______ collection

A

During

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33
Q

When inoculating the medium collected in a syringe, this is done ______ collection

A

After

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34
Q

When inoculating the medium through intermediate collection tubes, this is done where?

A

In the lab

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35
Q

This specimen assesses blood clotting functions especially if patient has unexplained bleeding

A

Coagulation specimen

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36
Q

What tube is used to collect coagulation specimen?

A

Blue (sodium citrate)

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37
Q

What is the blood to anticoagulant ratio in sodium citrate?

A

9:1

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38
Q

Refers to deficiencies in fibrinogen, prothrombin, and factors: 5, 7, 8, 9, and 10

A

Prothrombin Time (PT)

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39
Q

Refers to deficiencies in Pre-K, HMWK, prothrombin, fibrinogen, and factors: 12, 11, 9, 8, and 10

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

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40
Q

Refers to the clotting time

A

Thrombin Time (TT)

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41
Q

This test screens and monitors for diabetes, metabolic problems, and insulin therapy as it is supplemental to FBS testing

A

2-Hours Postprandial Glucose

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42
Q

In 2-Hours Postprandial Glucose, how many days prior to testing is a high-carb diet introduced?

A

2-3 days

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43
Q

How many hours should a patient fast for the 2-hours postprandial glucose test?

A

8-10 hours

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44
Q

T or F: Fasting glucose specimen can be collected after the 2-hours postprandial glucose procedure

A

False (before)

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45
Q

How many grams of the glucose load will be given on testing day?

A

100g

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46
Q

How many hours after intake of the glucose load is the blood glucose specimen collected?

A

2 hours

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47
Q

This test observes carbohydrate metabolism and is also called oral glucose tolerance testing (OGTT)

A

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)

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48
Q

What is the GTT procedure interval for gestational diabetes mellitus patients?

A

1 hour

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49
Q

Gestational diabetes mellitus patients are usually pregnant women in what trimester?

A

3rd

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50
Q

T or F: Collection method for GTT must be consistent (same time interval and same collected volume)

A

True

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51
Q

How much of a carb diet should a GTT patient undergo for 3 days prior to testing?

A

150g

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52
Q

How many hours should a patient fast for GTT?

A

8-10 hours

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53
Q

T or F: In GTT, you must advise the patient that intaking only juice will be allowed during the testing period

A

False (water)

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54
Q

When glucose is checked, it should have a value of how many mg/dL to proceed?

A

200

55
Q

T or F: Fasting urine can be collected in GTT if needed

A

True

56
Q

How much is the glucose load in GTT for adults?

A

75 grams

57
Q

How much is the glucose load in GTT for children?

A

1 gram per kg weight of the child

58
Q

How much is the glucose load in GTT for GDM patients?

A

50-75 grams

59
Q

T or F: Diabetes is not normal in pregnant women

A

False (heightened diabetes caused by pregnancy hormones)

60
Q

Within how many minutes should the glucose beverage be ingested in GTT?

A

5 minutes

61
Q

How many hours is the interval of specimen collection for GTT?

A

1 hour

62
Q

What is the maximum amount of collections done for GTT?

A

3 times

63
Q

How many specimen are collected in GTT?

A

4 (fasting specimen, hour 1, hour 2, and hour 3)

64
Q

GTT sample is to be transported immediately or within how many hours to the lab?

A

2 hours

65
Q

This test measures the body’s ability to process lactose and determines if a patient lacks lactase

A

Lactose Tolerance Test

66
Q

What converts lactose into glucose or galactose?

A

Lactase

67
Q

T or F: if lactase is not converted, it can results to gastrointestinal distress and diarrhea as there is intolerance

A

False (lactose)

68
Q

T or F: A 2-hour GTT should be administered a day before the lactose test for comparison purposes

A

True

69
Q

T or F: Amount of glucose given in GTT < amount of lactose given for LTT

A

False (equal amounts)

70
Q

T or F: The GTT curve and lactose curve will be similar if the patient has mucosal lactase

A

True

71
Q

These curves are for those detected with lactose intolerance since no glucose was metabolized therefore there is no change in the graph

A

Flat curves

72
Q

Slow gastric emptying, Crohn’s diseases, and cystic fibrosis can all show what type of results in LTT?

A

False-positives

73
Q

The specimen collected for this test are blood, hair, urine, and nails

A

Drug Testing

74
Q

This type of toxicology examines toxins and prescribes treatment

A

Clinical toxicology

75
Q

This type of toxicology deals with legal consequences of toxin exposure

A

Forensic toxicology

76
Q

T or F: In forensic toxicology, specimens are ordered by law enforcement

A

True

77
Q

What are the 2 most common specimens for alcohol testing?

A

Breath and blood

78
Q

T or F: Urine is used for drugs and DNA testing while blood is used for drug screening

A

False (urine for drug screening; blood for drugs and DNA analysis)

79
Q

This form tracks the specimen upon collection up to release of results and is required when performing drug tests

A

Chain of custody

80
Q

This test is done by companies, institutions, and groups who are allowed to hold random screening tests without prior notice

A

Drug Screening

81
Q

What is the most preferred specimen type of drug screening?

A

Urine (drug metabolites are detected longer within the urinary tract as byproducts compared to the blood which metabolizes quicker)

82
Q

T or F: A chain of custody is not implemented in drug screening

A

False

83
Q

What do you call the individual undergoing the drug screening?

A

Donor

84
Q

T or F: A witness should be present when the drug screening form is signed

A

True

85
Q

Refers to waterless urinals that prevent contamination of urine sample

A

Special Area

86
Q

T or F: A special bottle is used instead of the usual plastic cup for urine collection in drug screening

A

True

87
Q

T or F: Witness should be present to ensure that the specimen belongs to the donor

A

False (proctor)

88
Q

T or F: Split samples in drug screening can be used for parallel testing

A

True

89
Q

If sample A comes back positive for drug screening, what must be done for sample B?

A

Test as well and confirm the donor

90
Q

Where can drug test analyst (DTA) training be done?

A

Reference laboratory for drugs of abuse (East Avenue Medical Center)

91
Q

This test measures drug levels at designated time intervals for appropriate dosage

A

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

92
Q

T or F: In therapeutic drug monitoring, amount in the bloodstream is expected to drop to reach a trough (minimum) which screens drug toxicity

A

False (expected to RISE)

93
Q

T or F: In therapeutic drug testing, a gradual fall to a trough (minimum) ensures that the levels are within therapeutic range

A

True

94
Q

Refers to drawing large volumes of blood (500mL) from a patient as part of their treatment plan

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

95
Q

This condition is characterized by the following:
- RBC overproduction
- hematocrit test checks RBC level
- removal of blood is done if value exceeds a certain level

A

Polycythemia

96
Q

This condition is characterized by the following:
- excess iron deposits in the tissues
- problems with iron metabolism
- result of multiple transfusions or excessive iron intake

A

Hemochromatosis

97
Q

Law enforcement orders this test for individuals involved in traffic accidents (driving under the influence)

A

Blood Alcohol Concentration Tests (BAC)

98
Q

T or F: ETOH requires a chain of custody while BAC does not

A

False (ETOH test DOES NOT require a chain of custody while a BAC should follow a chain of custody protocol)

99
Q

ETOH uses what aqueous antiseptics?

A

Povidone-Iodine and Benzalkonium Chloride

100
Q

T or F: Do not use alcohol/tincture of iodine as an antiseptic for ETOH since the sample to be collected is already an alcohol

A

True

101
Q

T or F: An ETS is used for ETOH because alcohol evaporates faster when exposed to air—the vacuum method preserves the integrity of the sample

A

True

102
Q

What tube is used for blood alcohol specimen?

A

Gray (fluoride)

103
Q

Refers to the presence of aluminum, copper, lead, iron, and zinc

A

Trace elements

104
Q

T or F: Trace elements are to be collected in small amounts and must use special element-free tubes (light blue)

A

False (royal blue)

105
Q

This is performed to exclude the possibility of paternity for a particular child

A

Paternity/Parentage

106
Q

T or F: Paternity tests can exclude some alleged parents

A

False

107
Q

What 2 testing methods are used in paternity tests?

A

PCR and RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism)

108
Q

What type of sample is collected for paternity testing?

A

Buccal sample (inside of the cheek acquires loose cheek cells)

109
Q

How many hours can paternity tests be available?

A

48 hours

110
Q

This test:
→ is done outside the centralized lab and near the site where the patient receives treatment (bedside manner)
→ shortens turn around times
→ states that not all physicians accept verbal results (print if needed)
→ is aka alternate site testing (AST), near-patient testing, remote testing, satellite testing, and rapid diagnostics

A

Point of Care Testing (POCT)

111
Q

This test:
→ uses warfarin and heparin which can be evaluated using this POCT analyzer
→ common tests done are PT, international normalized ratio (INR), aPTT, activated clotting time (ACT), and platelet function

A

Coagulation Monitoring

112
Q

This test:
→ evaluates capillaries for platelet plug formation
→ is indicative of a disorder in the platelet function or capillary integrity
→ serves as a pre-surgical screening and detection of problems involving hemostasis—done in pre-op

A

Bleeding Time

113
Q

This test:
→ is used for emergency, pulmonary, and neonatal intensive care units
→ greatly improved turnaround time for patients in emergency situations

A

Arterial Blood Gases and Electrolytes

114
Q

This specimen:
→ measures the status of lungs, heart, and kidney function
→ measures pH, partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), partial pressure of oxygen (PO2), and oxygen saturation (SO2)
→ checks the acid-base balance which shows metabolic (kidney) and respiratory (lungs) status

A

Arterial Blood Gas

115
Q

Metabolic problems can be traced back to what organ?

A

Kidney

116
Q

Respiratory problems can be traced back to what organ?

A

Lungs

117
Q

What is the normal pH range of the human body?

A

7.35-7.45

118
Q

Refers to the body having a pH lower than 7.35

A

Acidosis

119
Q

Refers to the body having a pH higher than 7.45

A

Alkalosis

120
Q

This is a good indicator of how well air is exchanged between the blood and lungs

A

PCO2

121
Q

Condition wherein PCO2 increases abnormally

A

Hypoventilation

122
Q

Condition wherein PCO2 decreases abnormally

A

Hyperventilation

123
Q

This substance is representative of the pressure exerted by dissolved O2

A

PO2

124
Q

Normal, healthy individuals exhibit what percent of oxygen saturation?

A

98%

125
Q

This substance aids in moving nutrients in the body and in waste removal; it uses electrolytic panels to determine blood levels of Na, K, Cl, and iodized Ca

A

Electrolytes

126
Q

Refers to high Na levels

A

Hypernatremia

127
Q

Refers to low Na levels

A

Hyponatremia

128
Q

Refers to high Cl levels

A

Hyperchloremia

129
Q

Refers to low Cl levels

A

Hypochloremia

130
Q

Refers to high K levels

A

Hyperkalemia

131
Q

Refers to low K levels

A

Hypokalemia

132
Q

Refers to high Ca levels

A

Hypercalcemia

133
Q

Refers to low Ca levels

A

Hypocalcemia

PMLS 2 (16 decks)

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