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PMLS 2 > (F) Lesson 1: Non-Blood Specimen Handling and Processing > Flashcards

(F) Lesson 1: Non-Blood Specimen Handling and Processing Flashcards

1
Q

Liquid or semi-liquid substances produced by the body and are found within various organs and body spaces

A

Non-blood specimens

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2
Q

T or F: Most non-blood specimens can be collected by a phlebotomist

A

False (most are only for physicians)

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3
Q

When a phlebotomist gives instructions regarding specimen collection, what 2 types of instruction should be given?

A

Oral and written (with illustrations)

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4
Q

T or F: You may verify proper labelling after accepting a specimen for transport

A

False (before accepting)

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5
Q

T or F: Initials of the phlebotomist are needed when labelling non-blood specimens

A

False

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6
Q

Where should the label be pasted on the container?

A

Body; not the lid (risk for interchanging samples as lids are removed during testing)

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7
Q

T or F: Phlebotomists must treat all body substances as potentially infectious

A

True

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8
Q

What is the most frequently analyzed non-blood body fluid?

A

Urine

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9
Q

How many hours before a urine sample deteriorates?

A

2 hours

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10
Q

This is the most commonly requested urine test

A

Routine urinalysis

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11
Q

T or F: Routine urinalysis is not part of a physical exam

A

False

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12
Q

This type of analysis for urine samples utilizes observation with the naked eye

A

Physical or macroscopic observation

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13
Q

This macroscopic observation tells us about the degree of hydration

A

Color

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14
Q

A darker urine color indicates what?

A

Concentrated sample due to dehydration

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15
Q

This macroscopic observation is aka transparency

A

Clarity

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16
Q

A turbid urine sample indicates the presence of what?

A

Bacteria, WBCs, etc.

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17
Q

What 2 methods measure specific gravity?

A

Urinometry and Refractory

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18
Q

What 2 macroscopic parameters measure urine concentration

A

Specific gravity and osmolality

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19
Q

High specific gravity means what in terms of concentration?

A

Concentrated

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20
Q

T or F: Odor, volume, and osmolality are considered routine urinalysis procedures

A

False

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21
Q

This macroscopic parameter is only measured if the tests are for quantitative analysis

A

Volume

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22
Q

This macroscopic parameter can also measure the degree of hydration (other than color) of the specimen as it is more preferred yet more expensive

A

Osmolality

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23
Q

T or F: Urine should be transported at room temperature

A

False (with ice)

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24
Q

T or F: Outpatient urine samples are handled by nurses

A

False (nurses handle inpatient samples while technicians handle the outpatient samples)

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25
Q

T or F: Urinalysis can be ordered during hospitalization

A

True

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26
Q

Physical or macroscopic observation is also known as?

A

Gross analysis

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27
Q

A plastic reagent strip is also known as?

A

Dipstick

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28
Q

This type of urine analysis method utilizes reagent strips to look for substances such as bacteria, bilirubin, blood glucose, ketones, leukocytes, nitrite, protein, and urobilinogen

A

Chemical analysis

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29
Q

This urine analyte is used to detect the presence of WBCs

A

Leukocytes

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30
Q

This urine analyte is used to test for bacteria

A

Nitrite

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31
Q

This analysis method in urinalysis looks for cells, crystals, and microorganisms

A

Microscopic analysis

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32
Q

T or F: Urine is centrifuged for use in microscopic analysis

A

True

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33
Q

For how long is urine centrifuged?

A

5 minutes

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34
Q

T or F: In microscopic analysis for urine, the supernatant is used while the sediments are discarded

A

False (supernatant is discarded while sediments are used)

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35
Q

WBCs in urine indicate what disorder?

A

Pyuria

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36
Q

RBCs in urine indicate what disorder?

A

Hematuria

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37
Q

WBCs and bacteria in urine indicate what condition?

A

UTI

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38
Q

How many mL of urine is centrifuged for microscopic analysis?

A

10-15mL

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39
Q

T or F: Microscopic urinalysis examines specimen under a microscope from HPO to LPO

A

False (from low power objective to high power objective)

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40
Q

T or F: Urine containers for culture and sensitivity testing should be sterile

A

True

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41
Q

T or F: Urine in containers should be kept at room temperature

A

True

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42
Q

Urine must be protected from light for up to how many hours?

A

2 hours

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43
Q

T or F: Specimens held for longer should be refrigerated as part of a preservation protocol

A

True

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44
Q

What tube must urine be collected in for bilirubin testing?

A

Amber tube

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45
Q

This urine test confirms UTIs and checks for bacterial growth

A

Urine culture and sensitivity (CS)

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46
Q

T or F: A bacterial count of over 10,000 cfu/mL means that there is significant urinary tract infection

A

False (> 100,000 cfu/mL)

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47
Q

CFU stands for?

A

Colony forming units

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48
Q

Urine for CS is measured using what nutrient medium tool?

A

A loop

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49
Q

What is the incubation period of urine swabs for CS?

A

18-24 hours

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50
Q

What is the optimal temperature for bacterial growth in urine CS?

A

35°-37°C

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51
Q

If a microorganism is identified, this test is performed to determine which antibiotics will be effective against it

A

Sensitivity or antibiotic susceptibility test

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52
Q

T or F: Culture and sensitivity utilizes a swab instead of a loop

A

False (a loop is used for CS while a swab is used for sensitivity testing)

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53
Q

T or F: The larger the zone of inhibition, the less effective the antibiotic

A

False (larger ZOI = more effective)

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54
Q

This test detects cancer, cytomegaloviruses, and other viral and inflammatory diseases of the urinary tract

A

Urine cytology studies

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55
Q

T or F: Urine cytology studies use smears not containing cell sediments from the urinary tract

A

False (cell-containing)

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56
Q

This urine stain checks for the presence of abnormal cells under a microscope

A

Papanicolaou (PAP) stain

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57
Q

How much percent of an equal volume of alcohol should be used when preserving pap smears?

A

50%

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58
Q

These are used by athletes to enhance performance as these are also detected under urine drug screening

A

Anabolic steroids

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59
Q

T or F: Urine drug screening procedures are not random

A

False (are random)

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60
Q

These documents are needed when performing urine drug screening

A

Chain of custody and control forms

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61
Q

T or F: If the SG of urine is less than 1.003, ask for another sample

A

False (more than)

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62
Q

T or F: The urinals in drug screening are waterless and the sinks are separated from the toilet area

A

True

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63
Q

What temperatures indicate that the urine is freshly collected?

A

32.5°-37°C

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64
Q

T or F: Concentrated urine can give false negative results

A

False (diluted)

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65
Q

T or F: Dilute urine specimen has increased creatinine

A

False (decreased creatinine)

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66
Q

These 2 chemicals are ALWAYS paired together when testing urine

A

Glucose and Ketone

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67
Q

High glucose in BOTH blood and urine indicate what condition?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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68
Q

Normal blood glucose but high glucose levels in urine indicate what condition?

A

Renal disease

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69
Q

T or F: Traces of glucose can be found in urine once glucose levels lie within the renal threshold which is 140-160mg/dL

A

False (must exceed the renal threshold in order to detect glucose in urine; passing the threshold means the kidneys can no longer absorb glucose and therefore expel it in the urine)

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70
Q

Ketones found in urine indicate what condition?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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71
Q

T or F: Ketones are created when the body breaks down fat for energy because one’s diet is sufficient in carbohydrates

A

False (deficient)

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72
Q

T or F: Ketones are created when the body breaks down fat for energy because it does not metabolize glucose properly

A

True

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73
Q

During ketoacidosis, what chemical is absent which triggers the blockage of glucose?

A

Insulin (therefore glucose is not metabolized properly)

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74
Q

A pregnancy test is able to detect what hormone

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

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75
Q

HCG is produced commonly in what part of a pregnant woman’s body?

A

Developing placenta

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76
Q

How many days after conception is HCG detectable in serum and urine?

A

8-10 days

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77
Q

What urine specimen is preferred for taking a pregnancy test to avoid false negatives?

A

First morning specimen

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78
Q

T or F: HCG only appears in pregnant women as this can only be found in a placenta

A

False (can also appear in the urine of male patients with certain types of cancer and trophoblastic diseases)

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79
Q

This urine specimen is collected at any time and is most commonly analyzed

A

Random

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80
Q

This urine sample is collected in the morning after 8 hours of sleep and is the most concentrated sample

A

First morning/8-hour specimen

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81
Q

This urine specimen is the most recommended for routine urinalysis and pregnancy tests due to its high specific gravity

A

First morning/8-hour specimen

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82
Q

T or F: In a first morning urine specimen, you void the first sample in the toilet

A

False (you keep the first void)

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83
Q

This urine specimen involves voiding the second specimen after fasting to be used for glucose monitoring and glucose testing

A

Fasting (fasting second morning)

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84
Q

T or F: You void the first sample in the toilet for a fasting urine sample because it has remnants of the food taken from the last meal

A

True

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85
Q

This urine specimen is collected at specific times or collected and pooled throughout a specific time period

A

Timed

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86
Q

This subtype of timed urine specimen is collected serially at specific times that correspond with the timing of blood collection

A

Tolerance test specimen

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87
Q

T or F: The interval for tolerance test specimen collection is: fasting, 1 hour, and 2 hours

A

False (fasting, 1/2 hour, 1 hour, 2 hours)

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88
Q

T or F: Glucose levels before a meal should be higher than 100mg/dL as urine is more concentrated

A

False (lower than 100mg/dL)

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89
Q

How many mg/dL of glucose is expected after 2 hours of collecting a tolerance test specimen?

A

140

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90
Q

This subtype of timed urine specimen is collected 2 hours after a meal and tested for glucose to monitor insulin therapy of patients with diabetes mellitus

A

2-hours postprandial

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91
Q

T or F: When conducting a 2-hour postprandial urine test, the patient must start with an empty bladder after consuming a meal

A

False (void shortly BEFORE consuming a meal then collect 2 hours later)

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92
Q

T or F: You are to compare glucose results on fasting urine and fasting blood specimen

A

True

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93
Q

This subtype of timed urine specimen is used for quantitative analysis (volume) and collected and pooled for an entire day

A

24-hour specimen

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94
Q

T or F: 24-hour specimen can only be collected in a wide-mouthed container provided by the hospital

A

False (patients may use large clean soda bottles as an alternative)

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95
Q

T or F: There are no preservatives present in the wide-mouthed containers prior to 24-hour urine specimen collection

A

False (preservatives are added prior to collection)

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96
Q

T or F: 24-hour urine specimens are not to be refrigerated throughout collection period

A

False (refrigerate)

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97
Q

T or F: You void the first sample into a container for a 24-hour urine specimen

A

False (void in a toilet as this will not be counted within the 24 hours due to it being the urine that was building up in the body the night before)

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98
Q

T or F: Collect urine before anticipated bowel movement

A

True

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99
Q

T or F: A patient must drink excessive amounts of fluid when testing for 24-hour specimen

A

False (drink normal amount of fluid unless instructed otherwise)

100
Q

T or F: The last specimen you void after 24 hours should be voided in the toilet

A

False (keep it)

101
Q

T or F: 24-hour specimen should be transported to the laboratory ASAP

A

True

102
Q

This subtype of urine specimen requires emptying the bladder and then waiting for a specific amount of time before collecting the specimen

A

Double-voided specimen

103
Q

How many minutes should you wait before voiding another specimen for use in a double-voided specimen?

A

Around 30 minutes

104
Q

T or F: A 24-hour specimen measures exact amounts of analytes such as cortisol

A

True

105
Q

This urine collection method involves the patient voiding or urinating into a clean container

A

Regular void (from senior transes)

106
Q

This urine collection method involves the patient voiding both initial and final urine flow into the toilet

A

Midstream

107
Q

Why is initial urine flow not collected?

A

May be contaminated with cells and bacteria

108
Q

How many mL should be collected for a midstream method?

A

10-15

109
Q

This method uses a sterile container for microbial analysis or CS testing and where special genital cleaning is required

A

Midstream clean catch specimen

110
Q

T or F: In midstream collection, make sure that the labia is separated for females

A

True

111
Q

This urine collection method is collected from a sterile tube inserted through the urethra into the bladder and is used for patients having trouble urinating or those who already have a tube attached to them

A

Catheterization

112
Q

This urine collection method aspirates urine directly from the bladder using a needle and is guided by an ultrasound; usually done for infants and young children

A

Suprapubic collection

113
Q

What testing areas in the laboratory are suprapubic specimens used for?

A

Microbial analysis or cytology studies

114
Q

What tests are catheterization samples usually used for?

A

Urine cultures

115
Q

This urine collection method uses a plastic collection bag with hypoallergenic skin adhesive

A

Pediatric urine collection

116
Q

T or F: An adult patient’s genital area is cleaned and dried before taping the collection bag to the skin

A

False (infants/neonates)

117
Q

A special collection bag with a tube attached that allows the bag to be emptied periodically is used for what urine specimen?

A

24-hour specimen

118
Q

The urine collection bag for pediatric urine collection is also called as?

A

Wee bag

119
Q

A clear, colorless to pale-yellow fluid that surrounds and cushions a fetus in the uterus

A

Amniotic fluid

120
Q

Amniotic fluid is collected using what tool aided with an ultrasound?

A

Transabdominal amniocentesis (needle and syringe)

121
Q

After how many weeks of gestation is amniotic fluid usually collected?

A

15 weeks

122
Q

T or F: Amniotic fluid can be collected by both a physician and medical technologist

A

False (only a physician)

123
Q

How many mL of amniotic fluid is usually collected?

A

10mL

124
Q

Testing amniotic fluid for use in chromosome studies is able to detect what?

A

Genetic disorders/screening abnormalities

125
Q

Testing amniotic fluid for bilirubin levels is able to detect what?

A

Hemolytic diseases

126
Q

Hemolytic diseases occur between babies and their mothers during pregnancy if the baby develops what?

A

A different blood type than that of the parents making the mother’s body attack the baby’s immune system

127
Q

Amniotic fluid creatinine levels indicate what?

A

Gestational age

128
Q

T or F: Testing amniotic fluid is more accurate than ultrasounds in determining how far along a pregnancy is

A

False (ultrasounds are more reliable for OB-GYNEs)

129
Q

This protein is observed during fetal development

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

130
Q

High AFP indicates what developmental defect to the baby?

A

Neural tube defects

131
Q

Low AFP indicates what developmental defect to the baby?

A

Down’s syndrome

132
Q

In this amniotic fluid test, phospholipids act as surfactants to keep the alveoli inflated

A

Fetal lung maturity (FLM)

133
Q

What substance act as surfactants (decreases surface tension) in FLM?

A

Phospholipids

134
Q

T or F: High phospholipids mean immature lungs

A

False (mature lungs)

135
Q

When handling amniotic fluid specimen for bilirubin testing, this must be handled with what specific procedure?

A

Protection from light

136
Q

When handling amniotic fluid specimen for chromosome analysis, this must be handled with what specific procedure?

A

Keep at room temperature

137
Q

When handling amniotic fluid specimen for FLM testing, this must be handled with what specific procedure?

A

Keep on ice/refrigerate

138
Q

How long should amniotic fluid be delivered to the laboratory?

A

Within 1 hour

139
Q

This clear, colorless fluid surrounds the brain and spinal cord

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

140
Q

A yellowish CSF is not considered normal, it is also called as what?

A

Xanthochromic CSF

141
Q

T or F: Only physicians are allowed to collect CSF

A

True

142
Q

CSF is collected using what procedure?

A

Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)

143
Q

For adults, between what lumbar vertebrae can a spinal tap be done?

A

L3 and L4

144
Q

For babies, between what lumbar vertebrae can a spinal tap be done?

A

L4 and L5

145
Q

CSF should be analyzed within how much time?

A

Within 1 hour

146
Q

T or F: Routine tests for CSF include cell counts, chloride, glucose, and total protein

A

True (Additional note: cell counts are for determining bacterial infections)

147
Q

What position should the patients be in when performing a spinal tap?

A

Fetal position

148
Q

Tube 1 for CSF is used for what sections in the laboratory?

A

Chemistry and Serology

149
Q

Tube 1 for CSF is preserved how?

A

By freezing

150
Q

Tube 2 for CSF is used for what section in the laboratory?

A

Microbiology

151
Q

Tube 2 for CSF is preserved how?

A

By keeping at room temperature

152
Q

Tube 3 for CSF is used for what section in the laboratory?

A

Hematology (cell count)

153
Q

Tube 3 for CSF is preserved how?

A

By refrigerating

154
Q

This is what you call when you perform a spinal tap and there is presence of blood

A

Traumatic tap

155
Q

T or F: All laboratories have a 4th tube for CSF

A

False (not all)

156
Q

Tube 4 for CSF is used for what tests in the laboratory?

A
  • Microbiologic tests
  • Cytologic studies
  • Additional tests
157
Q

T or F: In CSF sample collection, perform microbiologic tests first to avoid contamination

A

True (then hematology and lastly is chemistry)

158
Q

T or F: If you are using only 1 tube to collect CSF and pressure drops, you may still continue with the procedure

A

False (stop immediately if the pressure drops)

159
Q

This specimen uses an evacuated tube inserted through the nose or mouth to measure the degree of acid in the stomach

A

Gastric fluid/stomach fluid

160
Q

This process has replaced gastric fluid analysis, it visually examines the upper GI tract with a tiny camera on the end of the long flexible tube

A

Endoscopy

161
Q

This analysis examines stomach contents for abnormal substances and evaluates stomach acid production

A

Gastric analysis

162
Q

This sample is obtained by aspirating gastric fluid by means of a tube passed through the nose or mouth after fasting

A

Basal sample

163
Q

What region of the pharynx are we referring to when we talk about the mouth and throat?

A

Oropharynx

164
Q

What region of the pharynx are we referring to when we talk about the nose and throat?

A

Nasopharynx

165
Q

What 2 chemicals during gastric fluid stimulation allows patients to produce more acid?

A

Histamine or pentagastrin (intravenously)

166
Q

This swab test collects samples from the nasal cavity and pharynx

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

167
Q

What is a safe stopping point when performing NP swab?

A

When resistance is felt

168
Q

How many degrees back is recommended for a patient to tilt their head when performing a swab test?

A

70 degrees

169
Q

T or F: You use calcium aglinate swabs or swabs with wooden shafts in NP swabbing

A

False (may contain substances that inactivate viruses and may inhibit molecular tests)

170
Q

T or F: The collection of gastric samples is only done prior to stimulation of stomach acid

A

False (before and after)

171
Q

T or F: CDC recommends only using the OP specimen when swabbing

A

False (NP swab)

172
Q

T or F: If both NP and OP specimen are collected, separate them in specific tubes

A

False (combine them in a single tube to maximize test sensitivity and limit the use of testing resources)

173
Q

This swab collects samples from the throat and diagnoses streptococcal (strep) infections

A

Oropharyngeal Swab

174
Q

T or F: You may depress the tongue of the patient undergoing an OP swab using fingers of a gloved hand

A

False (use a tongue depressor)

175
Q

T or F: Streptococcus is a virus

A

False (bacteria)

176
Q

What happens when the patient makes an “ahh” sound during OP swab?

A

Raises the uvula

177
Q

T or F: During OP swab, avoid touching the lips, tongue, and uvula

A

True

178
Q

How many mL of viral transport media is contained in OP and NP vials?

A

2mL

179
Q

T or F: You may cut or break applicator sticks off near the swab tip to permit tightening of the cap

A

True

180
Q

If swab samples can be transported within 72 hours, at what temperature must they be kept in?

A

4 degrees Celsius (ship on wet ice or refrigerant gel-packs)

181
Q

If swab samples will be transported beyond 72 hours, at what temperature must they be kept in?

A

-70 degrees Celsius (ship on dry ice)

182
Q

This refers to fluid secreted by the glands inside the mouth

A

Saliva

183
Q

T or F: Drugs in saliva indicate chronic drug use

A

False (only recent drug use)

184
Q

T or F: Aaliva for hormone tests are typically warmed to ensure stability

A

False (frozen)

185
Q

This is a sperm-containing thick, yellowish-fluid

A

Semen

186
Q

T or F: A yellowish color of semen indicates no prolonged abstinence of sexual activity

A

False (there is prolonged abstinence)

187
Q

T or F: A pearly white color of semen indicates prolonged abstinence of sexual activity

A

False (no prolonged abstinence)

188
Q

What is the preferred collection method of semen?

A

Masturbation

189
Q

How long must semen samples be brought to the lab?

A

30 minutes

190
Q

T or F: Semen samples must be kept warm at body temperature

A

True (do not expose to extreme temperatures)

191
Q

T or F: Semen can be exposed to light, it will not affect the test results

A

False (must be protected from light)

192
Q

Sperm concentration is also known as?

A

Sperm count

193
Q

Refers to sperm movement and what percentages are swimming

A

Motility

194
Q

Refers to the physical appearance of the sperm (e.g. head size and shape)

A

Morphology

195
Q

A pale-yellow, watery, serum-like fluid found between the visceral and parietal membranes enclosing some cavities

A

Serous fluid

196
Q

Pleural refers to what body part?

A

Lungs

197
Q

Pericardial refers to what body part?

A

Heart

198
Q

Peritoneal refers to what body part?

A

Abdomen

199
Q

Serous fluid is normally present in small amounts, but volume increases whenever there is what?

A

Inflammation or infection

200
Q

This term refers to fluid buildup

A

Effusion

201
Q

T or F: The main function of plasma is to allow the membranes to pass through each other with minimal friction

A

False (serous fluid)

202
Q

Serous fluids in EDTA tubes are used for what?

A

Cell counts and smears

203
Q

Serous fluids in Heparin or Sodium Fluoride tubes are used for what?

A

Chemistry tests

204
Q

Serous fluids in non-anticoagulated tubes are used for what?

A

Biochemical tests

205
Q

Serous fluids in sterile heparinized tubes are used for what?

A

Culture

206
Q

This refers to mucus and phlegm ejected from the trachea, bronchi, and lungs via deep coughing

A

Sputum

207
Q

What type of specimen is used to collect sputum?

A

First morning

208
Q

How many slow and deep breaths must the patient perform before coughing up the sputum?

A

3-4

209
Q

How many mL of sputum is required for transport at room temperature?

A

3-5

210
Q

This analyte contains chloride and is expelled through the skin

A

Sweat

211
Q

Collection of sweat involved a drug that stimulates sweating called?

A

Pilocarpine

212
Q

What do you call the process of sticking electrodes on the skin of the forearm or thigh during sweat collection?

A

Iontophoresis

213
Q

T or F: Serous fluid collection can be done by phlebotomists

A

False (physician only)

214
Q

High levels of chlorine are seen in patients suffering with this illness

A

Cystic fibrosis (a problem in the chlorine channels which affects the lungs in the form of excessive mucus production)

215
Q

It is an exocrine gland disorder commonly tested using sweat

A

Cystic fibrosis

216
Q

How many times higher are chloride levels in CF patients compares to normal humans?

A

2-5x higher

217
Q

This is aka joint fluid which is a clear, pale-yellow, viscous fluid that lubricates and decreases friction in movable joints which normally occurs in small amounts

A

Synovial fluid

218
Q

Synovial fluid increases in the presence of what?

A

Inflammation

219
Q

What is the difference between serous fluid and synovial fluid?

A

Serous fluid is watery while synovial fluid is viscous

220
Q

Synovial fluid for cell counts, crystal analysis, and smear preparation is placed in what tubes?

A

EDTA and Heparin

221
Q

Synovial fluid for culture and sensitivity is placed in what tube?

A

Sterile

222
Q

Synovial fluid for macroscopic appearance, chemistry, and immunology tests (to observe clot formation) are placed in what tubes?

A

Non-additive

223
Q

The process wherein synovial fluid can identify and differentiate arthritis, gout, and other inflammatory conditions

A

Arthrocentesis

224
Q

A less invasive, painless alternative to blood collection for obtaining cells for DNA analysis wherein you massage the mouth on the inside of the cheek with a special swab

A

Buccal sample

225
Q

This substance is found on the site of blood cell production; used to detect and identify blood and blood production diseases

A

Bone marrow aspirate

226
Q

During bone marrow aspiration, physicians insert a special large-gauge needle into the bone marrow in what 2 areas?

A

Iliac crest (hip) and sternum (breast)

227
Q

T or F: During bone marrow aspiration, hematology technologists make special slides while EDTA tubes are for other laboratory studies

A

True

228
Q

T or F: The remaining excess bone marrow aspirate is thrown out

A

False (it is allowed to clot and is placed in formalin for histology examination)

229
Q

Biopsy specimen and several slides are sent to what department?

A

Histopathology department

230
Q

This is a a rapid, non-invasive technique to detect Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori bacteria)

A

Urea breath test

231
Q

What is the invasive option for a urea breath test?

A

Endoscopy

232
Q

What isotope does the patient ingest in a urea breath test?

A

Nonradioactive Carbon 13

233
Q

How many mL of bone marrow aspirate is required for testing?

A

1-1.5

234
Q

What chemical does H. pylori release that hydrolyzes urea into ammonia and CO2?

A

Urease

235
Q

What is an indicator for a positive presence of H. pylori in a patient via a urea breath test?

A

CO2 labeled with Carbon 13

236
Q

This is the most accurate lactose tolerance test
as it diagnoses problems with digestion of lactose and fructose; it detects bacterial overgrowth in the small intestine

A

Hydrogen breath test

237
Q

T or F: The only samples collected for a hydrogen breath test are those after the introduction of a special drink

A

False (collect baseline breath sample before the special drink)

238
Q

Additional samples of the hydrogen breath test are taken at what time interval?

A

Every 30 minutes for 3 hours

239
Q

This specimen can be used to evaluate lower GI disorders

A

Feces or Stool

240
Q

T or F: Lactose is called fruit sugar while fructose is called milk sugar

A

False (reverse)

241
Q

Occult or hidden blood in stool is an indicator of a GI bleed which could screen for?

A

Colorectal cancer

242
Q

How many grams of feces specimen are needed for testing?

A

5g (routinely it could be pea sized)

243
Q

T or F: Feces samples should not be contaminated with urine

A

True

244
Q

This is used for trace and heavy metal analysis as it can show evidence of chronic drug use rather than recent use

A

Hair

245
Q

How many days can traces of drugs be detected in hair?

A

90 days

246
Q

These are collected from biopsies and preserved in formalin or other suitable solutions

A

Tissue specimens

247
Q

T or F: You may use formalin on tissues for genetic analysis

A

False (this could deteriorate the sample)

PMLS 2 (16 decks)

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