Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Semester 2 > LP2 final > Flashcards

LP2 final Flashcards

1
Q

Which category of tests do POL perform most frequently??

A

waived testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which laboratory department performs the analysis of tumor biopsies?

A

histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to CLIA, what level of testing is assigned to the performance of tumor markers?

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which specimen is used during streaking for “colony count”?

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes Strep Throat?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which motile organism causes an STD that is diagnosed by Wet Prep?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which blood cell is responsible for carrying oxygen?

A

Erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which statement describes proper procedure to read the results of HCT?

A

Line up the bottom of the RBCs with 0%
Line up the top of the plasma with 100%
Read the % at the top of the packed RBCs not including the buffy coat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which specimen type is most compatible with chemistry tests?

A

Serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do the results of electrolytes tests tell a physician?

A

Water and acid base balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which organ system do Creatinine and BUN assess?

A

Renal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease condition does the RF test help diagnose?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which common serology test are heterophil antibodies used?

A

rapid slide tests for infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which choice lists the correct information for the NPFA symbol?

A

red- flammability
blue- health
yellow- reactivity
white-other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do the letters in CLIA stand for?

A

Clinical laboratory improvement amendment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do the combination of positive results for nitrite and leukocytes on the urine dipstick imply?

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For what specific purpose do we “streak a lawn” using a swab?

A

antibiotic susceptibility testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which lab test measures the “packed cell volume”?

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which cells produce antibodies?

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Identify the virus that causes Infectious mononucleosis

A

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the disease category when the body produces antibodies against itself.

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is “RAST”?

A

radioallergosorbent test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does “in vivo” mean?

A

within a host or living organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where are the blood grouping antigens located?

A

FIND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In which patient population is it normal to see a “reverse” diff?

A

pediatric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This white blood cell has a light purple, lacey, variable shaped nucleus and gray-blue, ground-glass appearing cytoplasm.

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name of the stain used in hematology for blood smears?

A

wright’s stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What 2 dyes make up the stain used in hematology for blood smears?

A

methylene blue eosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the word used to describe blood that has visible fat present?

A

lipemia or lipemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the name of the graph used to document control runs?

A

levey jennings graphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the name of a set of rules that can be applied to QC?

A

westgard rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What hormone does the pregnancy test detect the presence or absence of?

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the name of the blood cell that might be seen on a blood smear from a patient with infectious mononucleosis?

A

reactive lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

An example of a “qualitative” test is:

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

“Reproducibility” relates to:

A

precision

36
Q

Which of the following is not important in standardizing urinalysis?

A

age of the patient

37
Q

Which lab tests help with anemia diagnosis?

A

RBC and WBC

38
Q

Gram stain results of E. coli is stated as:

A

FIND

39
Q

Which test is a screen for colon cancer?

A

occult blood

40
Q

Which formed element in the blood is part of coagulation?

A

thrombocytes

41
Q

Elevated ESR results means:

A

inflammation/infection

42
Q

Which test monitors oral anticoagulant therapy?

A

FIND

43
Q

Instructions for fasting lab tests include:

A

you can have water, and your medications

44
Q

The blood tube used for coagulation testing is:

A

light blue

45
Q

what does POL stand for?

A

physician office laboratory

46
Q

calibrator

A

has known value and is used to verify calibration of an instrument

47
Q

control

A

has known value and is used to verify the performance of the procedure

48
Q

ALT

A

liver

49
Q

AST

A

heart and liver

50
Q

ALK

A

liver and bone

51
Q

BUN

A

kidneys

52
Q

TNT

A

heart

53
Q

what 2 components make up the study of immunology

A

antigens and antibodies

54
Q

radiation safety

A

time
distance
shielding

55
Q

upon which ag ab reaction principle is blood typing based?

A

hemagglutination

56
Q

agglutination

A

clumping of blood

57
Q

antibodies

A

destroy foreign invaders

58
Q

antigens

A

perceived as foreign to the body

59
Q

cell mediated immunity

A

t lymphocytic cell response to antigens

60
Q

helper t cells

A

stimulate other t cells and help b cells produce their antibodies

61
Q

heterophile antibody

A

appears during mono

62
Q

in vitro

A

within a lab apparatus

63
Q

killer t tells

A

attack foreign antigens directly and destroy cells that bear the antigens

64
Q

memory b cells

A

B remember an identified antigen for future encounters

65
Q

memory t cells

A

T remember an antigen for future encounters

66
Q

natural killer cells

A

attacks and destroys infected cells and cancer cells in a nonspecific way

67
Q

normal flora

A

nonpathogenic

68
Q

suppressor t cells

A

inhibit t and b cells after a sufficient number of cells have been activated

69
Q

titer

A

quantitative test that measures the amount of antibody that reacts with a specific antigen

70
Q

what is the most common specimen received in the microbiology and urinalysis departments

A

midstream clean catch urine

71
Q

what does RhoGam do to protect an Rh positive fetus of an Rh negative mother

A

prevent the mother from making her own anti D against a rh positive infant

72
Q

a type of blood cell not usually found on a normal blood smear

A

reactive lymphocyte
blast
myelocyte

73
Q

cell counts included in a CBC

A

WBC
platelet
RBC

74
Q

what level of testing is assigned to the performance of PSA?

A

highly complex

75
Q

what is highly complex testing?

A

high level of risk for the patient if incorrect results or interpretation occurs

76
Q

2 basis parts of each urinalysis

A

physical and chemical or macroscopic and microscopic

77
Q

most used media plate in microbiology

A

blood agar plate

78
Q

SXT

A

throat culture or strep throat

79
Q

tests in a lipid panel

A

total cholesterol
HDL
triglycerides

80
Q

most common reason to obtain a negative result in the presence of symptoms

A

performing the test early in the infection

81
Q

erythroblastosis fetalis

A

hemolytic anemia in new borns resulting from maternal fetal blood group incompatibility

82
Q

histamine

A

compound released by injured cells that causes the dilation of blood vessels

83
Q

humoral immunity

A

b lymphocytic cell response to antigens resulting in the production of specific antibodies to destroy a foreign invader

84
Q

IFOB

A

testing fecal occult blood

85
Q

serology

A

study of serums and their reactions

86
Q

immunology

A

study of components of the immune system and their functions

Semester 2 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions