Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spring 2022 classes > Lower extremities exam 2 > Flashcards

Lower extremities exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

genu varum aka

A

bowed legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is genu varum caused by

A

increased stretching force on lateral joint structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

genu valgum aka

A

knock knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

genu valgum caused by

A

increased stretching force on medial joint structures which can cause degeneration of lateral meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

genu recurvatum aka

A

hyperextended knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

genu recurvatum is often seen in which athletes

A

swimmers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

genu recurvatum is at risk for what

A

ACL and PCL injury b/c contact b/w patella and femur can cause hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does normal patellar alignment look like

A

the patella is aligned within the trochlea with the center of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

patella alta def

A

high riding patella, aka long patella tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

patella baja

A

low riding patella, short patella tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

squinting patella

A

medially positioned patella, creates problems with tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

squinting patella caused by what

A

femoral anteversion and tibial internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what can be used to treat squinting patella

A

j-brace or patella tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

frog eyed patella def

A

lateral and high riding, creates tracking problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

frog eyed patella may be caused by

A

femoral retroeversion and tibial external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the largest seasmoid bone

A

patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what 3 purposes of patella

A

increased mechanical efficiency for quads, protect anterior portion of knee, absorb and transmit joint’s reaction forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 4 main anterior muscles acting on the knee

A

vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis, rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where does sartorius cross

A

at the hip to the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where does the IT band cross

A

at the lateral part of the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which hamstring muscle inserts at the fibula

A

biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 hamstring (posterior) muscle groups

A

semiteninosis: medial, semimembranosus, bicep femoris: lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the 3 medial adductors acting on the knee

A

adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what makes up the pes anserine muscle group

A

gracilis, sartorius, semitendinosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are 6 functions of the meniscus

A

deepen articulation and fill gaps when increase in load, improve lubrication for surfaces, provide shock absorption, increase passive joint stability, limit extremes of flexion and extension, serve as proprioceptive organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what shape is the medial meniscus

A

c shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what shape is lateral meniscus

A

o shape more round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

if there is a tear in the red zone is the tissue more or less likely to heal on its own

A

more likely to heal on its own b/c more vascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MCL anatomy

A

medial epicondyle of femur connects to medial condyle of the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

LCL anatomy

A

lateral epicondyle of femur connects to head of fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

posterolateral corner palpation

A

yes, you can find it; important for providing stability against forces throughout the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is included in the posterolateral corner

A

popliofibular ligament, popliteus complex, arcuate ligament, fabella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where is suprapatella bursa located

A

b/w quad tendon and femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where is prepatella bursa located

A

b/w patella and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the most commonly injured bursa of knee

A

prepatella bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

deep infrapatella bursa

A

b/w patella tendon and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

superficial/subcutaneus intrapatella bursa

A

b/w patella tendon and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pes anserine bursa

A

b/w pes anserine group tendons and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

medial plica def

A

fold in synovial membrane, feels like a ridge, found medially kn knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is
ideal ROM of knee extension

A

0 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is ideal ROM of hip flexion

A

135 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is ideal ROM hip extension

A

30 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is ideal ROM knee flexion

A

135 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what muscles are involved in knee flexion

A

quads, sartorius, gracilis, plantaris, popliteus, grastroc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what muscles are involved in knee extension

A

rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus intermedialis, vastus lateralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

4 pulses of lower leg

A

popliteal, posterior tibial, dorsal pedal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DTR of knee

A

L4= patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

where does LCL insert

A

fibular head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when doing girth measurements where does the 0 deg mark go

A

right on the joint line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what measurements should be done above joint line

A

5, 10, 15 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is Q angle

A

b/w ASIS, midpoint of patella, tibial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is Q angle used for

A

quantify line of pull of quads and patellar tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

normal Q angle for men and women

A

13 men, 18 women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does a high Q angle create a risk factor for

A

ACL injury, especially in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

2 tests used for swelling of knee

A

sweep and ballotable patella test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

sweep test+ test

A

reformation of edema on MEDIAL side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

sweep test perform

A

apply pressure to knee on one side to get the fluid to move and bulge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does sweep test indicate

A

swelling of knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ballottable patella perform

A

one hand pushes fluid inferiorly towards the patella and the other hand pushes fluid superiorly towards the patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

+ test ballottable patella

A

bouncing, bobbing, floating of patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does ballottable patella test indicate

A

joint effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

4 tests for patellofemoral dysfunction

A

clark’s sign, patella apprehesion, patellar tilt, medial and lateral patella glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

clark sign aka

A

c-sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

clark’s sign perform

A

one hand cups patella and other hand applies gentle downward pressure while patient is contracting quads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

+ clark’s sign

A

pain and inability to hold quad contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does clark’s sign indicate

A

patella femoral dysfunction or chondromalacia patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

is clark’s test usually reliable

A

sort of, can produce false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

patellar apprehension test which direction does patella slide

A

laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

+ patellar apprehension test

A

guarding of quads during contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

patellar apprehension test indicates

A

laxity of medial retinaculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

+ patellar apprehension test may indicate

A

predisposition to subluxation/dislocation of patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

patellar tilt test description

A

grasp patella w/ index finger and thumb elevating lateral border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

+ patellar tilt test

A

more than 15 deg = hypermobile and less than 0 deg hypomobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what does 0 deg patellar tilt indicate

A

tightness of lateral restraints, more than 15 deg may predispose to anterior knee pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

medial and lateral patellar guide test description

A

supine with bolster under the knee and flexed 30 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

how to perform medial and lateral patellar glide

A

move patella medial and laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

+ medial and lateral glide test

A

medial: movement of 1-2 quadrants
lateral: movement of 0.5-2 quadrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

medial hypo and hypermobile of knee means

A

tightness of lateral retinaculum, laxity of lateral restriants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

lateral hypo and hypermobile of knee means

A

tightness of medial restraints and patellofemoral ligaments, laxity of medial restraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

plica tests

A

medial plica test and stutter test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

medial plica test description

A

flex knee 90 deg, internal rotate tibia, move patella medially and palpate capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

+ medial plica test

A

reproduction of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

when may clinican feel plica during medial plica test

A

around 45-60 deg flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

stutter test description

A

cup hand over patella and patient extend knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

+ stutter test

A

irregular motion b/w 40-60 deg as plica passes medial condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what does stutter test look for symptoms of

A

irregular motion/stutter NOT pain increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

collateral ligament tests

A

valgus and varus stress tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

valgus stress test description

A

one hand supports medial tibia and then other grasps the knee laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

+ valgus stress test

A

laxity, increase quality at end point, pain compared w/ uninvolved limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the best position for testing valgus test

A

flex knee 25 deg to isolate MCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

varus stress test description

A

one hand on lateral portion of tibia and other hand grasps knee and applies varus force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

varus stress test +

A

laxity, decrease quality of endpoint, pain increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what ligament does varus stress test

A

LCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is best position for varus stress test

A

25 deg flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

3 ACL tests

A

Lachman’s, modified lachman’s, anterior drawer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

2 rotary ACL tests

A

slocum, pivot shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what is best test for ACL

A

Lachman’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what is position for knee to be in for Lachman’s

A

20-25 deg flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

how is lachman’s test performed

A

draw tibia anteriorly while posterior pressure is applied to stabilize femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

+ Lachman’s test

A

increase amount of anterior tibial translation compared w/ opposite limb or lack of firm endpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

lachman’s test indicative of

A

ACL sprain/tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

modified lachman’s test description

A

place bolster like towel under knee to assist in stabilizing femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

anterior drawer test description

A

hip flex 45 deg, knee extend 90 deg, tests ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

anterior drawer test perform

A

draw tibia anteriorly, index finger used to palpate hamstring tendons and ensure they’re relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

+ anterior drawer test

A

increased amt anterior tibial translation compared w/ opposite limb or lack of firm endpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

compare lachman’s and anterior drawer test

A

both for ACL. Lachman’s better clinical values. Anterior drawer= easier to perfrom

107
Q

slocum test set up

A

knee flexed 90 deg, tibia internally rotated 25 deg to test lateral capsule and tibia externally rotated to test medial capsule

108
Q

slocum test +

A

increased anterior translation or lack of firm endpoint

109
Q

anteriolateral instability= damage to

A

ACL, LCL, IT band, politeus, lateral meniscus

110
Q

anteriomedial instability=damage to

A

MCL

111
Q

pivot shift test description

A

patient supine w/ hip passively flexed to 30 deg, maintain 20 deg internal tibial rotation, increases force of internal rotation when knee is flexed

112
Q

pivot shift test +

A

tibia reduces or subluxes as the leg is flexed in 30-40 deg

113
Q

what does pivot shift test indicate

A

anterolateral rotary instability or ACL tear

114
Q

what are 2 PCL tests

A

posterior drawer and godfrey’s/posterior sag test

115
Q

+ posterior drawer test mean

A

increased posterior tibial translation and lack of firm endpoint

116
Q

posterior drawer test indicates

A

PCL sprain

117
Q

how to perform posterior drawer test

A

grasp tibia and put thumbs on both sides of patellar tendon, palpate hamstring tendons to make sure they are relaxed, push tibia posteriorly

118
Q

what will posterior drawer test feel like if PCL is sprained

A

it will feel empty

119
Q

posterior sag test/ godfrey’s test + test

A

unilateral displacement of tibial tuberosity

120
Q

posterior sag test perform

A

lift lower legs and hold them parallel to the table so the knees are flexed at 90 deg, observe tibial tuberosities

121
Q

what does posterior sag test indicate

A

PCL sprain

122
Q

external rotation/dial test positioning of pateint

A

patient should be prone

123
Q

dial test set up

A

knee flexed 30 deg then 90 deg and externally rotate the lower leg

124
Q

+ dial test

A

increase in external rotation greater than 10 deg compared w/ opposite side

125
Q

what does a difference of knee flexionat 30 deg but not at 90 deg for dial test indicate

A

injury of posterolateral corner of knee

126
Q

what does a difference of knee flexion at 30 and 90 deg for dial test indicate

A

trauma to PCL and related structures

127
Q

what does a difference in knee flexion at 90 deg but not 30 deg indicate for dial test

A

PCL sprain

128
Q

3 miniscal tests

A

McMurray’s, Apley’s compression/distraction, Thessaly test

129
Q

which meniscal test has the best clinical values

A

thessaly

130
Q

positioning of patient for McMurray’s test

A

patient supine

131
Q

set up for McMurray’s test

A

one hand supports lower leg, thumb and index finger are posteromedial and posterolateral on joint line, valgus stress applied when knee is flexed its available ROM

132
Q

+ McMuray’s test

A

pop, click, lock knee

133
Q

McMurray’s test indicates

A

meniscal tear

134
Q

apley’s compression/distraction test positioning

A

patient prone w/ knee flexed at 90 deg

135
Q

how is apley’s compression/distraction test performed

A

apply axial load to tibia w/ IR and ER of tibia, distract tibia away from femur while rotation is happening

136
Q

+ apley’s compression/distraction test

A

pain during compression that is eliminated during distraction

137
Q

what does apley’s test for

A

meniscal tear

138
Q

thessaly test set up

A

patient stand on one leg at a time, flex knee to 5 deg and rotate body to internally and externally rotate femur on the tibia, repeat at 20 deg

139
Q

+ thessaly test

A

joint line pain, clicking or locking

140
Q

2 IT band tests

A

noble’s compression and ober;s

141
Q

noble’s compression test set up

A

patient laying on side, 90 deg flexion, 45 deg hip flexion, knee supported and pressure applied while flexing and extending knee

142
Q

+ noble’s compression test

A

pain under thumb, common at 30 deg

143
Q

what does + noble’s compression test indicate

A

IT band friction syndrome

144
Q

ober’s test set up

A

patient side lying w/ knee flexed to 90 deg, one hand stabilizes pelvis and other supports lower leg, abduct and extend hip

145
Q

+ ober’s test

A

thighs remain abducted

146
Q

ober’s test indicates

A

IT band tightness: predisposing patient to IT band friction syndrome and/or lateral patellar malalignment

147
Q

wilson test set up

A

patient seated w/ knee flexed 90, actively extends knee w/ tibial IR for a few seconds, do ER of tibia after pain is felt

148
Q

wilson test + test

A

pain during extension w/ IR that is relived by ER

149
Q

what does wilson test indicate

A

osteochondral defect or osteochondritis dissecans on medial femoral condyle

150
Q

myositis ossificans def

A

calcification of bone deposits in muscle

151
Q

what causes myositis ossificans

A

inflammatory response to quad contusion

152
Q

tx myositis ossificans

A

ROM exercises, NSAIDs, refer for imaging

153
Q

s/s myositis ossificans

A

decreased ROM, pain, swelling, tender

154
Q

quad strain most common muscle

A

rectus femoris

155
Q

MOI quad strain

A

muscle overload, sprinting, kicking, improper warm up

156
Q

s/s quad strain

A

immediate pain, discoloration, pain w/ extension, pain w/ flexion, swelling

157
Q

tx quad strain

A

avoid stretching in early stages especially for 48 hours post-injury

158
Q

hamstring strain MOI

A

usually rounding curve or muscle overload

159
Q

s/s hamstring strain

A

immediate pain, grabbing back of leg, swelling, pain w/ extension

160
Q

tx hamstring strain

A

avoid stretching in early stages, RICE, NSAID

161
Q

popliteal strain MOI

A

hyperextension

162
Q

popliteal strain s/s

A

pain w/ hyperextension, pain w/ initiation of knee flexion, IR, behind knee

163
Q

popliteal strain tx

A

modify activity, RICE, NSAID

164
Q

hamstring tendonitis location on leg

A

can be proximal or distal

165
Q

MOI hamstring tendonitis

A

insidious, overuse, repetitive activity

166
Q

s/s hamstring tendonitis proximal

A

pain in gluteal fold, tender, pain w/ long strides

167
Q

s/s hamstring tendonitis distal

A

clicking behind knee, pain w/ knee flexion

168
Q

popliteus teninitis MOI

A

insidious onset, overuse

169
Q

risk factors politeus tendinitis

A

excessive pronation, posterior knee instability

170
Q

s/s popliteus tendinitis

A

pain in fossa radiating to LCL, pain when running downhill, swelling, crepitus, pain w/ knee flexion

171
Q

tx popliteus tendinitis

A

strengthening hip musculature, RICE, NSAID

172
Q

pes anserine tendinitis MOI

A

run, cycling, insidious, overuse, knee flexion

173
Q

s/s pes anserine tendinitis

A

pain at medial tibial plateau, anterior inferior medial knee pain, crepitus, swelling, pain w/ knee flexion

174
Q

pes anserine tendinitis tx

A

ratio of stretching and strengthening, RICE, NSAIDS

175
Q

def fat pad contusion/impingement

A

pad is impinged b/w femur and tibia

176
Q

MOI fat pad contusion

A

hyperextension, direct blow

177
Q

s/s fat pad contusion

A

pain on side of patella tendon, swelling

178
Q

most commonly injured bursa

A

prepatella bursa= housmaid’s knee

179
Q

MOI bursitis

A

direct contact, falling on knee, kneeling for increased duration

180
Q

s/s bursitis

A

pain, swelling, redness

181
Q

medial plica syndrome def

A

inflammation of medial plica, friction caused by rubbing medial femoral condyle

182
Q

MOI medial plica

A

trauma to knee, overuse, insidious

183
Q

s/s medial plica

A

anteromedial knee pain, click, pop, lock

184
Q

+ test medial plica

A

medial synovial plica, stutter

185
Q

what does medial plica sometimes look like

A

meniscal tear

186
Q

tx medial plica syndrome

A

ultrasound, laser, injection

187
Q

popliteal/baker’s cyst description

A

fluid filled cyst behind knee

188
Q

MOI popliteal/baker’s cyst

A

meniscal tear, arthritis, accumulation of fluid

189
Q

s/s popliteal cyst

A

bulge behind knee, tightness, inability to fully flex

190
Q

IT band friction syndrome def

A

friction b/w IT band and lateral femoral condyle

191
Q

MOI IT band

A

insidious, overuse, downhill running

192
Q

risk factors IT band syndrome

A

IT band tightness, genu varum, excessive pronation

193
Q

s/s IT band syndrome

A

pain lateral femoral condyle, pain w/ stairs, radiate to IT band

194
Q

+ tests for IT band

A

noble compression, ober

195
Q

who is IT band friction syndrome most common in

A

runners, cyclists

196
Q

patella tendonitis MOI

A

insidious, overuse, excessive jump/run

197
Q

risk factors patella tendonitis

A

patellar maltracking

198
Q

s/s patella tendonitis

A

pain inferior of patella w/ knee extension, tight quad, tight IT band

199
Q

tx patella tendonitis

A

improvement of jump/landing, good ratio of stretching and strengthening

200
Q

patella tendon rupture

A

overload of extensor mechanism, rapid quad contractions

201
Q

risk factors for patella tendon rupture

A

previous tendonitis, tendon degeneration, steroid injections

202
Q

s/s patella tendon rupture

A

immediate pain, displacement of patella, swelling, pop

203
Q

treatment patella tendon rupture

A

immobilize, reffer

204
Q

which knee condition should you use diagnosis of exclusion

A

patellofemoral pain syndrome

205
Q

MOI patellafemoral pain syndrome

A

change in surface, activity level or intensity

206
Q

risk factors patellafemoral pain syndrome

A

increased Q angle, patella alta or baja, female

207
Q

s/s patellafemoral pain syndrome

A

anterior pain, clicking, giving out, pain w/ glide

208
Q

+ patellafemoral pain syndrome tests

A

clarke’s sign, ober’s, patellar tilt

209
Q

tx patellfemoral pain syndrome

A

strengthening hip and knee muscles

210
Q

chondramalacia patella condition def

A

softening, roughening, degeneration of articular surface of patella

211
Q

MOI chondramalacia patella

A

patellar misalignment, direct or repetitive trauma

212
Q

s/s chondramalacia patella

A

anterior knee pain, crepitus

213
Q

+ chondramalacia patella test

A

clarke’s

214
Q

tx chondramalacia patella test

A

modify activity, strengthen hip and knee muscles

215
Q

patellofemoral instability/subluxation MOI

A

direct trauma, knee extension

216
Q

risk factors patellofemoral instability

A

shallow groove, excessive Q angle, hypermobile patella, female

217
Q

s/s patellofemoral instability

A

sharp pain, knee gives out, deformity, swelling

218
Q

+ test patellofemoral instability

A

patella tilt test, patellar apprehension

219
Q

tx patellofemoral insability

A

reduce, immobilize, refer, brace

220
Q

patellar dislocation MOI

A

lateral blow, rapid change of direction w/ foot

221
Q

risk factors patellar dislocation

A

patella alta, history of previous problems

222
Q

s/s patellar dislocation

A

immediate and sharp pain, deformity, swelling, pain

223
Q

tx patellar dislocation

A

immobilize, reduce, refer

224
Q

patellar fracture MOI

A

direct blow, hyperflexion

225
Q

s/s patellar fracture

A

immediate pain, unable to bear weight, deformity, swelling

226
Q

+ test patellar fracture

A

tap test

227
Q

tx patellar fracture

A

immediate referral, x-ray

228
Q

osgood-schlatter disease description

A

apophysitis at tibial tuberosity, usually adolescents

229
Q

MOI osgood-schlatter

A

stress on growth plate

230
Q

MCL sprain MOI

A

valgus force, ER of tibia

231
Q

MCL s/s

A

pain, decreased flexion/extension

232
Q

tx MCL sprain

A

brace, RICE, NSAID

233
Q

LCL sprain MOI

A

varus force

234
Q

LCL sprain s/s

A

pain, swelling, decreased flexion/extension

235
Q

tx LCL sprain

A

refer, RICE

236
Q

ACL sprain MOI

A

rotation of knee, valgus force, hyperextension

237
Q

risk factors ACL sprain

A

female, menstral cycle, increased Q angle

238
Q

s/s ACL sprain

A

feeling pop, buckling, pain w/ joint, ACL clutch

239
Q

allograft vs autograft ACL repair

A

donor ACL (less common), use piece of body for repair

240
Q

PCL sprain MOI

A

direct blow to anterior tibia that drives tibia posteriorly, hyperflexion, hyperextension

241
Q

PCL sprain usually happens

A

car accident or falling on knee

242
Q

s/s PCL sprain

A

pain w/i knee joint, may not pop

243
Q

is PCL usually surgical

A

no, usually not surgical

244
Q

rotary insability

A

multiple major structures involved

245
Q

straight insability

A

one major structure involved

246
Q

what test is used to differentiate b/w rotary and straight instability

A

slocum test

247
Q

knee dislocation def

A

rupture of at least 3 of major ligaments: ACL, PCL and at least one more

248
Q

MOI knee dislocation

A

hyperextension, rotation, varus force

249
Q

s/s knee dislocation

A

pain, deformity, popping, non-weight bearing, swelling

250
Q

tx knee dislocation

A

immobilize and immediate transportation to hospital

251
Q

risk of knee dislocation

A

neurovascular injury

252
Q

meniscus tears MOI

A

tibial rotation, hyperflexion, degeneration

253
Q

s/s meniscus tear

A

pain along medial or lateral joint, click, lock, pop, pain w/ flexion/extension

254
Q

OCD description

A

fracture of articular cartilage and underlying bone

255
Q

MOI OCD

A

repetitive trauma, compressive force, rotational force

256
Q

s/s OCD

A

increased pain w/ weight bearing, pain decreased w/ rest, joint line tenderness

257
Q

tx OCD

A

modify activity, unload brace, surgery

258
Q

osteoarthritis MOI

A

repetitive stress, poor mechanics, injury history, gradual onset

259
Q

osteoarthritis risk factors

A

female, obesity, FH

260
Q

s/s osteoarthritis

A

pain in morning, baker’s cyst, compensatory gait

261
Q

tx osteoarthritis

A

injection for lubrication, knee replacement surgery

262
Q

femur fracture MOI

A

direct blow

263
Q

femur fracture s/s

A

immediate and severe pain, muscle spasm, deformity

264
Q

tx femur fracture

A

immobilize and transport to hospital

Spring 2022 classes (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions