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Spring 2022 classes > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

how long do olfactory receptors last

A

30-60 days

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2
Q

supporting cells vs receptor cells of olfactory epithelium

A

supporting cells are made of columnar cells and surround olfactory cells, receptor cells are bowling pin shaped

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3
Q

where is the olfactory epithelium located?

A

the roof of the nasal cavity so mucus allows chemicals to dissolve

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4
Q

how many layers of cells does olfactory epithelium have

A

1 b/c pseudostratified epithelium

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5
Q

what is the function of the olfactory epithelium

A

the organ for smell to occur

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6
Q

where is sweet detected on the tongue

A

tip of the tongue

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7
Q

where is umami detected

A

the pharynx

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8
Q

where are sour and salty detected on the tongue

A

sides

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9
Q

where is bitter detected on the tongue

A

back of mouth

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10
Q

fungiform papillae def

A

found on the entire tongue, 1-5 taste buds each

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11
Q

foliate papillae def

A

found on the sides of tongue, decrease in number with age

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12
Q

circumvallate papillae def

A

found on back of tongue, form upside V shape, largest in size, smallest in number

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13
Q

filiform papillae

A

not used for taste, used for texture; covers most of the tongue, largest in number, cone shaped

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14
Q

how often are gustatory epithelium cells regenerated

A

7-10 days

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15
Q

what type of receptors are taste buds

A

chemoreceptors

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16
Q

what are the main types of taste buds

A

fungiform, foliate, circumvallate, filiform pillae

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17
Q

what sense is processed b/c glutamate

A

hearing, equilibrium, vision

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18
Q

features of olfactory transduction

A

G receptor protein receives message, Camp opens plasma membrane to allow for influx of Na and Ca cations, creates depolarization

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19
Q

where does olfactory transduction take place

A

nasal epithelium in the nasal cavity

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20
Q

depolarization of taste

A

signals reach gustatory hairs and saliva, depolarization causes NT release from synapse which triggers graded potential; receptors adapt partially and then fully

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21
Q

inner ear main purpose

A

balance, homeostasis, fluid filled, determine if sounds did/didn’t reach threshold; YES hearing

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22
Q

middle ear purpose

A

where vibrations that turn into sounds take place, location of eardrum

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23
Q

external ear purpose

A

secrete ear wax, protection, transfer sound to middle and inner ear

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24
Q

parts of inner ear

A

cochlea (organ of corti), vestibule (utricle and saccule)

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25
Q

parts of outer ear

A

auricle, helix, lobule, aaccoustic meatus

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26
Q

parts of middle ear

A

tympanic membrane (malleus, incus, stapes), oval window, round window, pharyngotympanic tube (tensor tympani and stapedius)

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27
Q

frequency range of normal human hearing

A

0-120 dB

1500-4000 Hz

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28
Q

how do sound vibrations move through the ear and perceived by the brain

A
  1. sound waves pass through tympanic membrane
  2. ossicles vibrate amplifying the pressure
  3. pass through oval window through scali vestibule
    4- either sound is amplified enough and will be processed by the brain or will not and won’t be processed by the brain
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29
Q

pathway of ossicles passing sound through

A

ear drum vibrates, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window

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30
Q

how many Hz is sound stimulated and will be processed

A

> 20

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31
Q

purpose of oval window

A

it’s narrow so sound vibrates more intensely when it passes through

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32
Q

def bony ossicles

A

where vibration of sound occurs

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33
Q

order of body ossicles in sound pathway

A
  1. maleus, 2. incus, 3. strap
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34
Q

what makes up cochlea

A

organ of corti: receptor organ for hearing
scala vestibuli: filled w/ perilymph, near oval window
scala media: cochlear duct, filled with endolymph
scala tympani: rounded window, filled with perilymph

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35
Q

what chamber is the oval window near

A

cochlea; sends sound through cochlea after passes through oval window

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36
Q

basilar membrane vs helicotrema membrane

A

basilar membrane: path of higher frequency, transmitted through cochlear duct
helicotrema membrane: frequency is too low, is not processed by the brain

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37
Q

what does transduction mean of the cochlea

A

a stimulus bends microvilli towards the kinociliium

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38
Q

kinocilium and stereocilium

A

both are microvilli in cochlea, kinocilium is the longest strand

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39
Q

depolarization of hair cells in the ear

A

ion channels open allowing Ca and Na to enter, depolarization takes place, glutamate is released which allows signals to be sent to the brain

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40
Q

hearing vs sound

A

reception of sound wave; pressure disturbance in a medium (air)

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41
Q

structures of brain associated with hearing

A

thalamus, medulla, midbrain, temporal lobe
more specifically: spiral ganglion, cochlear nuclei, superior olivary nucleus, lateral lemniscus, inferior collisculus, medial geniculate nucleus, primary auditory cortex

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42
Q

location of receptors related to equilibrium

A

maculae in vestibule that contains saccule and utricle

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43
Q

receptors associated w/ dynamic (rotational) equilibrium

A

crista amullares- part of sensory canal

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44
Q

receptors associated with both static and dynamic equilibrium= linear

A

maculae

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45
Q

what makes up macula

A

hair cells w/ supporting cells that have both stereocilia and kinocilium, as well as jelly-like stones called otoliths

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46
Q

3 parts of macula that contribute to sense of equilibrium

A

utricle: horizontal movement
saccule: vertical movements
otoliths: calcium carbon crystals

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47
Q

how are maculae activated

A

hairs are bent which leads to creation of AP

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48
Q

purpose of maculae

A

monitors position of head in space, plays role in control posture, respond to linear acceleration

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49
Q

disorders of seeing include

A

tinnitus, conjunctivitis, keratitis, strabismus, nystagmus

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50
Q

def conduction deafness

A

due to problems with internal ear fluid like wax, otitis media

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51
Q

def sensorineural deafness

A

results from neural damage, due to loss of hair cells

52
Q

tinnitus def

A

ringing, buzzing, clicking due to destruction of neurons

53
Q

keratitis

A

inflammation of corna

54
Q

strabismus def

A

weak muscle in one eye causing the other to deviate

55
Q

nystagmus def

A

involuntary movement of eyes

56
Q

conjunctivitis def

A

pink eye, inflammation of conjunctiva

57
Q

meniere’s syndrome

A

labyrinth disorder affecting entire internal ear which leads to nausea, dizzy, etc

58
Q

layers of eye

A

firbous layer, (outer) vascular layer (middle), inner (neural) layer

59
Q

what makes up the fibrous layer of the eye

A

sclera: posterior part, cornea: anterior part

60
Q

what part of the eye is most susceptible to damage

A

cornea

61
Q

what part of the eye has pain receptors

A

cornea

62
Q

parts of vascular layer of eye

A

choroid, ciliary body, iris

63
Q

choroid part of vascular layer

A

posterior part, has blood vessels and is dark brown

64
Q

ciliary body of vascular layer

A

ring covering the lense that controls shape of lens and has capillaries that allow fluid to go into eye

65
Q

what part of the eye is colored and visible

A

iris

66
Q

part of neural layer of eye

A

retina

67
Q

parasympathetic and sympathetic action of eye muscles

A

PNS: bright, close vision, use sphincter pupillae
SNS: distant, dim vision, use dilator pupillae

68
Q

pathway of tears when blink

A 
lacrimal puncta: out of eye
lacrimal canaliculi
lacrimal sac
lacrimal duct
nasal cavity
inferior meatus
69
Q

extrinsic eye muscles

A

lateral rectus, medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique

70
Q

what eye muscles does VI (abducens) control

A

lateral rectus: laterally

71
Q

what muscles do cranial nerve 8 oculomotor control

A

medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique

72
Q

what cranial nerve does 4: trochlear control

A

superior oblique

73
Q

where are rectus muscles of eye found

A

superior, inferior, lateral on the eye

74
Q

far point vision def

A

no adjustment needed to the lens to focus (20/20)

75
Q

during distance vision are muscles relaxed or constricted

A

relaxed

76
Q

events associated w/ distant vision

A

lens flattens, SNS relaxes ciliary muscle and lens flattens
greater distance away= flatter the lens= increase SNS = decrease PNS
*least amount of refraction, rays are parallel

77
Q

adjustment of close vision

A

<6 m away
accommodation of lens (increase refractory power), constriction of pupil (enhance lens accommodation), convergence of eyeball (rotation to keep focus)
lense bulges, PNS contracts ciliary muscles which allow lens to bulge

78
Q

wavelength of light energy levels

A 
red= longest= lowest energy
violet= shortest= most energy
79
Q

why do we see colors

A

object reflects wavelengths and absorbs all others

80
Q

what does white do for wavelengths

A

reflects every wavelength

81
Q

what does black do for wavelengths

A

absorbs all wavelengths

82
Q

def refraction

A

change in speed of light

83
Q

phototransduction

A

light energy converted to graded receptor potential of 2 layers

84
Q

wavelength of visible light

A

400-700 mm

85
Q

photoreceptor types and properties

A

def: modified neurons w/ tips activated when light hits retina
* outer: increases SA, made of longer rods
* inner: articulates to cell body, thinner and connects to outer fibers

86
Q

how often to photoreceptors regenerate

A

daily b/c destroyed by intense light, vision is maintained b/c outer segment is renewed every 24 hours

87
Q

rod vs cone

A 
rod= noncolor, very sensitive, yes dim light, more in #, in peripheral retina
cone= color vision, not sensitive, less in #, mostly in central retina
88
Q

glaucoma def

A

damage to optic nerve, usually happens when age, result of pressure in eye

89
Q

retinal detachment def

A

part of retina pulls away from other tissue, may see flashing light or have trouble viewing full images

91
Q

photoreceptors signal transduction pathway in dark

A

g-protein not activated, cGMP levels high, cGMP gated channels open, neurotransmitter activates bipolar cell which doesn’t cause NT release and no AP

92
Q

photoreceptors signal transduction pathway in light

A
  • g protein activated by rhodopsin, transfucin activates PDE to break down cGMP, cGMP gated ion channels close= no depolarization
  • repolarization of photoreceptors inhibits bipolar cells, causes default activation of ganglion cells, causes AP
93
Q

types of color blindness

A

red-green: most common, only males, photopigment loss
blue-yellow: males and females equally: photopigments missing or limited
complete color blindness: no color vision at all, rare

94
Q

disorders of eye

A

color blindness: inherited, alter sensitivity, can be total loss, due to problem with seeing cones

95
Q

neurotransmitters for gustation

A

serotonin and ATP

96
Q

neurotransmitters for olfaction

A

GABA

97
Q

neurotransmitters for hearing

A

AcH, glutamate

98
Q

neurotransmitters for equilirbium

A

glutamate

99
Q

neurotransmitter for vision

A

glutamate

100
Q

stretch reflex def

A

muscle spindle stretched, reflex arc activated to resist stretch

101
Q

golgi tendon reflex

A

relaxes muscle under high tension

102
Q

crossed extensor reflex

A

reflex initiated to maintain balance

103
Q

flexor reflex

A

withdrawal reflex: removed away from painful stimuli

104
Q

superficial reflexes

A

reflexes activated by gentle cutaneous stimulation

105
Q

plasma composition

A

mostly water (90%) and protein (albumin, fibrinogen, globulins, electrolytes, nutrients, gases, hormones, waste products)

106
Q

serum composition

A

same as plasma but fibrinogen is missing (used for blood clotting)

107
Q

% different blood cells in whole blood

A

plasma: 55% blood
erythrocytes: 45%
buffy coat: platelets and leukocytes (<1%)

108
Q

who are hematocrit levels highest in

A

newborns> adult men > adult women

109
Q

thalassemia

A

inherited blood disorder that results in making less than necessary amount of hemoglobin

110
Q

steps of hemostatis

A
  1. vascular spasm
  2. platelet plug formation
  3. coagulation
111
Q

what is vascular spasm/vasoconstriction

A

slows blood flow substaintially for 20-30 min by activated of SNS

112
Q

platelet plug formation def

A

damaged endothelium exposes collagen fibers, cell sticks and releases ADP, serotonin, etc= positive feedback mechanism

113
Q

what can prevent platelet aggregation

A

intact endothelial cells release nitric oxide which causes blood vessel vasodilation and prevents platelets from aggregating

114
Q

what triggers RBC production

A

hypoxia, low RBC count, decreased amt hemoglobin… stimulate kidneys to produce erythropoietin

115
Q

features of hemoglobin

A

4 globin chains that bind to O2, oxyhemoglobin is O2 attached at high O2 concentration and deoxyhemoglobin is oxygen detached at low oxygen concentration

116
Q

hemolytic anemia

A

breakdown of RBC from infection or improper immune functioning

117
Q

aplastic anemia

A

form bone marrow failure b/c damage to stem cells that produce new cells

118
Q

hemorrhagic anemia

A

blood loss from hemorrhage

119
Q

pernicious anemia

A

b/c B12 malabsorption that leads to deficiency, low hemoglobin levels

120
Q

polycythemia

A

abnormal excessive # RBC

121
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

platelet deficiency

122
Q

hemophilia

A

hereditary bleeding disorder

123
Q

agglutinin or anti-AB bodies

A

cause blood cells to clump together depending on their composition of A or B

124
Q

how much of the pop has Rh+ antigens compared to ABO

A

85% pop has Rh

125
Q

what problems can Rh differences of mom and baby cause

A

hemolytic anemia in newborns that can lead to premature death of fetus or infant after birth

126
Q

blood clot in vascular system

A

embolus: freely circulating blood clot
thrombus: blood vessel stationary and forms in vasculature system

Spring 2022 classes (21 decks)

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