Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Physiology II > Lesson 12a - Lymphoid and Immune System > Flashcards

Lesson 12a - Lymphoid and Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

pathogens

A

agents capable of producing disease, including viruses, bacteria, fungi, and other microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

three lines of defenses: first line of defense

A

skin and mucous membranes, which serve as barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

three lines of defenses: second line of defense

A

protects against pathogens that break the skin and mucous membrane barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the second line of defense includes (7)

A
  • leukocytes
  • macrophages
  • antimicrobial proteins
  • natural killer cells
  • fever
  • inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

three lines of defenses: third line of defense

A

adaptive immunity, mechanisms that defeat a specific pathogen and leave the body with a memory of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

immune system

A

widely distributed population of cells, diverse chemicals, physical barriers, and physiological responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

two broad forms of defense

A
  1. innate immunity
  2. adaptive immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

innate immunity

A

defenses we are born with that protect us from broad spectrum of disease agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

innate immunity has…(3)

A
  • local effect
  • non-specific
  • lacks memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

innate immunity: local effect

A

defends at point of invasion, but there are exceptions like fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

innate immunity: non-specific

A

defenses are against a broad spectrum of disease agents, rather than on particular pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

innate immunity: lacks memory

A

does not ‘remember’ exposure to a specific pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

adaptive immunity

A

defenses against specific pathogens, developed only upon exposure (adaptive) and maintains immune memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

peptides in the skin that kill microbes (3)

A
  • dermcidin
  • defensins
  • cathelicidins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

protective features of skin (4)

A
  • toughness of keratin, difficult to penetrate
  • too dry/nutrient-poor to support microbial growth
  • skin is continually shed so microbes ‘don’t stick’
  • presence of an acid mantle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acid mantle

A

thin film of lactic and fatty acids from sweat and sebum that inhibits bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts are open to the exterior and protected by _____ _____

A

mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

protective features of mucous membranes (2)

A
  • sticky mucous physically traps microbes
  • presence of lysozyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

lysozyme

A

enzyme that destroys bacterial cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

protective features of subepithelial areolar tissue of skin and mucous membranes

A

contain a viscous barrier of hyaluronic acid in ground substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

pathogens can release _____

A

hyaluronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hyaluronidase

A

an enzyme to make hyaluronic acid less viscous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

phagocytes

A

cells that engulf foreign matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

five types of leukocytes

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. eosinophils
  3. basophils
  4. monocytes
  5. lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where are neutrophils found?

A

wander in connective tissue and functions to kill bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

neutrophils can ensnare bacteria by releasing…

A

a neutrophil extracellular trap (NET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

neutrophil extracellular trap

A

web of nuclear chromatin and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

neutrophils can kill by… (2)

A
  • phagocytizing and digesting microbe
  • releasing bacterial chemicals to create a killing zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where are eosinophils found?

A

especially in mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what do eosinophils guard against?

A

large parasites like tapeworms, and roundworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

eosinophils also participate in…(2)

A
  • participate in inflammation
  • react to allergens and participate in allergic reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

basophils

A

secrete chemicals that aid mobility and action of other leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

leukotrienes

A

activate and attract neutrophils and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

histamine

A

a vasodilator; increases blood flow and speeds delivery of leukocytes to the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

heprin

A

inhibits clot formation that would impede leukocyte mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

mast cells

A

also secrete these substances; similar to basophils but found in connective tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

lymphocytes include…

A

T and B cells, and also Natural Killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T and B cells are part of innate/adaptive immunity?

A

adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells are part of the innate/adaptive immunity?

A

innate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

monocytes

A

emigrate from the blood into connective tissues and transform into macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

macrophage system

A

all the body’s avidly phagocytic cells, expect leukocytes
- includes monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

specialized macrophages in the CNS, lungs, and liver

A
  • microglia: CNS
  • alveolar macrophages: lungs
  • stellate macrophages: liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

interferons

A

proteins secreted by virally infected cells and immune cells to serve as an alarm to nearby cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what do interferons do? (2)

A
  • bind to receptors on nearby cells, stimulating their synthesis of defensive antiviral proteins to prevent their infection
  • activate NK cells and macrophages to better destroy infected cells/cancer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

complement system

A

group of 30 or more globular proteins that contribute to both innate and adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what synthesizes most of the complement system?

A

the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F the complement system circulated in the blood in an inactive form

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what complement contributes to inflammation

A

C3a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what complement contributes to immune clearance, phagocytosis, and cytolysis?

A

C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

three complement pathways

A
  1. classical
  2. alternative
  3. lectin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

classical pathway

A

requires antibody binding to microbe, which changes the antibody’s shape and exposes complement-binding sites on the antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

complement fixation

A

binding of the complement C1 to the antibody sets of a reaction cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

alternative pathway

A

complement Cb3 binds to microbe surface, activating reaction cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

lectin pathway

A

use lectins to trigger the pathwaysl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

lectins

A

plasma proteins that bind to carbohydrates on the pathogen’s surface, activating reaction cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

four outcomes of complement activation

A
  1. inflammation
  2. immune clearance
  3. phagocytosis
  4. cytolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

outcomes of complement activation: phagocytosis

A

C3b coats microbial cells and serves as binding sites for phagocyte attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

opsonization

A

proteins coat microbial cells that serve as binding sites for phagocyte attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

outcomes of complement activation: inflammation

A

C3a stimulates mast cells and basophils to secrete histamine and other inflammatory chemicals which activates and attracts neutrophils and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

outcomes of complement activation: immune clearance

A

C3b binds the antigen-antibody complexes to red blood cells that then circulate to the liver and spleen where macrophages strip off and destroy the Ag-Ab complexes leaving the RBCs unharmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

outcomes of complement activation: cytolysis

A
  • complement C3b initiated formation of C5b
  • C5b aggregates with other complement proteins within plasma membrane of microbe which forms the membrane attack complex (MAC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

forms a hole in the target cell membrane, made of complement proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

process of a MAC on its target cell

A

electrolytes leak out, water flows rapidly in, and the target cell ruptures (cytolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

immunological surveillance

A

natural killer (NK) cells continually patrol the body looking for pathogens and diseased host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

NK cells attack and destroy…(4)

A
  • microbes
  • transplanted cells
  • cells infected with viruses
  • cancer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

NK cells recognize an infected cell and bind to it, releasing proteins called _____

A

perforins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

perforins

A

polymerize to form a ring to create a hole in the target’s plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

granzymes

A

a group of protein-degrading enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

process of granzymes

A

enzymes enter through the pore created by perforins and degrade intracellular enzymes and induce apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

cancer cells may exhibit _____-_____ antigens

A

tumor-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

where are tumor specific antigens found?

A

cell’s plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

T/F tumor-specific antigens are identified as abnormal by NK cells

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

immunological escape

A

some cancer cells avoid NK cells
- either destroy NK cells that detect them or avoid detection by not displaying tumor specific antigens or masking them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

cells infected with viruses present…

A

abnormal proteins on their plasma membranes, allowing NK cells to identify and destroy them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

fever (pyrexia)

A

an abnormal elevation of body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

fever results from…(5)

A
  • trauma
  • infections
  • drug reactions
  • brain tumors
  • other causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

a fever is a defense mechanism that, in moderation, does more good than harm by…(3)

promotes…elevates…inhibits…

A
  • promotes interferon activity
  • elevates metabolic rate and accelerates tissue repair
  • inhibits reproduction of bacteria viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

antipyretics

A

fever-reducing medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

stages of fever (3)

A

onset, stadium, defervescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

the body’s thermostat is located in the _____

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Reye syndrome

A

serious disorder in children younger than 15 following an acute viral infection like chickenpox or influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what can Reye syndrome be triggered by?

A

the use of aspirin, so do not give to children with chickenpox or flu-like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Reye syndrome symptoms (3)

A
  • swelling of the brain neurons
  • pressure of the swelling leads to nausea, vomiting, disorientation, seizures, and coma
  • fatty infiltration of liver and other viscera

TLDR; swelling of the liver and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

inflammation

A

local defensive response to tissue injury, including trauma and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

general purposes of inflammation (2)

A
  • limit spread of pathogens and destroys them
  • remove debris from damaged tissue and initiate tissue repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

four cardinal signs/symptoms

A

redness, swelling, heat, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

cytokines

A

small proteins that function in chemical communication between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what do cytokines do?

A

alter physiology of receiving cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

cytokines include…(4)

A
  • interferon
  • interleukins
  • tumor necrosis factor
  • chemotactic factors
    etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the most immediate requirement after tissue injury?

A

to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

getting leukocytes to tissue injury sites is achieved by…

A

local hyperemia (increasing blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what does hyperemia wash away from injury sites faster? (2)

A

toxins and metabolic wastes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

vasoactive chemicals (2)

A
  • histamine
  • leukotrienes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

vasoactive chemicals stimulate…(2)

A

(1) endothelial cells to contract, (2) widening the gaps between them to increase capillary permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

cell-adhesion molecules aid in..

A

recruitment of leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

margination

A

cell-adhesion molecules make membranes sticky, so leukocytes adhere to the vessel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

diapedesis

A

emigration
- leukocytes crawl through gasps in the endothelial cells and enter tissue fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

extravasated

A

term for cells and chemicals that have left the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

four cardinal signs of inflammation: heat results from…

A

hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

four cardinal signs of inflammation: redness results from (2)

A

hyperemia and extravasated RBCs in tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

four cardinal signs of inflammation: swelling results from

A

an increased fluid filtration from the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

four cardinal signs of inflammation: pain results from…(5)

A
  • direct injury to the nerves
  • pressure on nerves from edema
  • stimulation of pain receptors by prostaglandins
  • bacterial toxins
  • bradykinin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

another priority of inflammation is to prevent _____ from spreading throughout the body

A

pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

_____ filters into tissue fluid and clots to form a sticky mesh that walls off microbes

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

_____ prevents clotting at the site of injury

A

heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

after leaving the bloodstream, neutrophils exhibit chemotaxis, meaning…

A

they exhibit attraction to chemicals that guide them to the injury site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

respiratory burst

A

neutrophils absorb O2 to form H2O and release hypochlorite - al highly toxic and creates a killing zone around the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

neutrophils secrete cytokines for recruitment of _____ and additional _____

A

macrophages, neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

macrophages and T cells secrete _____-_____ factor to stimulate _____

A

colony-stimulation, leukopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

neutrophilia

A

5,000cells/uL to 25,000 cells/uL in bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

eosinophilia

A

elevated eosinophil count in allergy or parasitic infection

112
Q

tissue cleanup and repair primarily involves _____

A

monocytes

113
Q

when do monocytes arrive to tissue injurys?

A

8-12 hours

114
Q

how does edema contribute to tissue cleanup? (2)

A
  • swelling compresses veins and reduces venous drainage
  • forces open valves of lymphatic capillaries, promoting lymphatic drainage of bacteria, dead cells, and debris
115
Q

pus

A

yellow accumulation of dead neutrophils, bacteria, cellular debris, and tissue fluid

116
Q

abscess

A

accumulation of pus in a tissue cavity

117
Q

platelet-derived growth factor

A

stimulates fibroblasts to multiply and synthesize collagen

118
Q

this is secreted by blood platelets and endothelial cells in injured areas

A

platelet-derived growth factor

119
Q

_____ clot forms a scaffold for tissue reconstruction

A

firbrin

120
Q

what does pain cause us to do with injuries?

A

makes us limit the use of a body part so it has a chance to rest and heal

121
Q

increased heart rate increases…(2)

A
  • metabolic rate
  • speeds up mitosis and tissue repair
122
Q

third line of defense is…

A

adaptive immunity

123
Q

three characteristics of adaptive immunity

A
  1. it has a systemic effect
  2. it exhibits specificity
  3. it has memory
124
Q

three characteristics of adaptive immunity: systemic effect

A

act throughout the whole body

125
Q

three characteristics of adaptive immunity: specificity

A

generates protection and immunity to specific pathogens on an individual basis

126
Q

three characteristics of adaptive immunity: memory

A

when re-exposed to the same pathogen, the body reacts so quickly that there is no noticeable illness

127
Q

two types of adaptive immunity

A
  1. cellular (cell-mediated)
  2. humoral (antibody-mediated)
128
Q

cellular (cell-mediated) immunity (2)

A
  • T cells directly attack and destroy foreign cells or diseased cells
  • rids body of pathogens that reside inside human cells where they are inaccessible to antibodies
129
Q

humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity

A
  • B cells become plasma cells that release antibodies that do not directly destroy a pathogen but tag it for destruction
130
Q

humoral immunity is effective against…(5)

A
  • viruses
  • bacteria
  • yeasts
  • protozoans
  • molecular disease agents like toxins, venoms, allergens
131
Q

natural active immunity

A

production of one’s own antibodies or T cells as a result of infection or natural exposure to antigen

132
Q

artificial active immunity

A

production of one’s own antibodies or T cells as a result of vaccination against disease

133
Q

vaccine

A

consists of dead or attenuated (weakened) pathogens that stimulate the immune response without causing the disease

134
Q

_____ _____ may be given to re-stimulate immune memory to maintain a high level of protection

A

booster shots

135
Q

natural passive immunity

A

temporary immunity that results from antibodies produced by another person (mother to fetus)

136
Q

how to a fetus and a baby acquire antibodies from their mother? (2)

A
  • fetus is through the placenta
  • baby is through breast-feeding
137
Q

artificial passive immunity

A

temporary immunity that results from the injection of immune serum (antibodies) from another person or animal

138
Q

what is the emergency treatment for things like snake bites, botulism, tetanus, and rabies?

A

artificial passive immunity- injection of immune serum (antibodies) from another person or animal

139
Q

antigen (Ag)

A

any molecule that can bind an antibody

140
Q

most antigens have _____ molecular weight

A

large, over 10,000 amu

141
Q

antigens include…(4)

A

proteins, polysaccharides, glycoproteins, glycolipids

142
Q

characteristics of antigens (Ag) enable the body to do what?

A

distinguish self from non-self

143
Q

epitopes (antigenic determinants)

A

certain regions of an antigen molecule that stimulate immune responses

144
Q

haptens (incomplete antigens)

A

too small to be antigenic in themselves

145
Q

how may haptens trigger an immune response?

A

combining with a host molecule creating a complex that the body recognizes as foreign

146
Q

examples of epitopes (6)

A
  • cosmetics
  • detergents
  • industrial chemicals
  • poison ivy
  • animal dander
  • penicillin
147
Q

antibodies (Abs)/immunoglobulins (Igs)

A

defensive proteins that play a variety of defensive roles

148
Q

about how many antibodies is the human immune system capable of creating?

A

roughly 1 trillion different antibodies

149
Q

where are some antibodies/immunoglobulins found?

A

membranes of immune cells

150
Q

soluble antibodes

A

antibodies dissolved in blood plasma, tissue fluids, lymph, mucus, saliva, intestinal secretions, tears, and breast milk

151
Q

antibody monomer

A

basic structural unit of an antibody

152
Q

antibody structure

A

four polypeptide chains linked by disulfide bonds

153
Q

all four chains of an antibody have a _____ region that gives the antibody its uniqueness

A

variable (V)

154
Q

antibodies have two larger _____ chains and two _____ chains about half as long

A

heavy, light

155
Q

antigen-binding site (2)

A

(1) formed from the V regions of the heavy and light chains of each arm, (2) attaches to the epitope of an antigen molecule

156
Q

constant (C) region

A

has the same amino acid sequence within a given antibody and determines mechanism of antibody action

157
Q

five antibody classes

A
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
  5. IgM
158
Q

which Ig forms a dimer in places like mucus, saliva, tears, breast milk, and intestinal secretions?

A

IgA

159
Q

which Ig is found as a pentamer in plasma and lymph?

A

IgM

160
Q

which Ig is a B cell transmembrane anitgen receptor?

A

IgD

161
Q

which Ig is bound to receptors on basophils and mast cells?

A

IgE

162
Q

which Ig constitutes 80% of circulating antibodies?

A

IgG

163
Q

IgA (2)

A
  • prevents pathogen adherence to epithelia and penetrating underlying tissue
  • provides passive immunity to newborns
164
Q

IgD

A

functions in B cell activation by antigens

165
Q

IgE (2)

A
  • stimulates release of histamine and other chemical mediators of inflammation and allergy
  • stimulates eosinophil defensive actions against parasites
166
Q

IgG (2)

A
  • predominant antibody in secondary immune response
  • capable of complement fixation, can cross placenta to fetus
167
Q

IgM (2)

A
  • predominant antibody in primary immune response
  • strong agglutinating and complement-fixing abilities
168
Q

what are the lymphocytes of the innate immune system?

A

natural killer cells (NK)

169
Q

what are the lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system?

A

T and B cells

170
Q

where are T cells produced? where do they migrate?

A

bone marrow and migrate to the thymus to mature

171
Q

what happens to T cells in the thymus?

A

they are tested

172
Q

positive selection

A

cortical epithelial cells test developing T cells to ensure they have the proper receptors (no self antigens)

173
Q

what happens to T cells if they do not have the proper receptors? (aka they react to a self antigen)

A

they DIE

174
Q

the immune system is self-tolerant, meaning…

A

it will not attack one’s own tissue

175
Q

anergy

A

self-reactive T cells remain but are unresponsive

176
Q

with proper receptors, T cell are now _____

A

immunocompetent

177
Q

immunocompetent

A

capable of recognizing antigens presented to them

178
Q

immunocompetent, unactivated T cells are part of the….

A

naive lymphocyte pool

179
Q

where do B cells develop?

A

bone marrow

180
Q

B cells that react to self-antigens under either _____ or _____ _____, same as T cell selection

A

anergy, clonal deletion (death)

181
Q

when B cells leave the bone marrow, what do they do?

A

they colonize the same lymphoid tissues and organs as T cells

182
Q

Self-tolerant B cells do what? (2)

A
  • synthesize antigen surface receptors
  • divide rapidly to produce immunocompetent clones
183
Q

T cells can only recognize antigens presented by…

A

antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

184
Q

APCs include (3)

A

dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells

185
Q

the function of APCs depends on…(2)

A

(1) MHC proteins (2) encoded by major histocompatibility (MHC) complex genes

186
Q

MHC molecules act as..

A

identification tags that label every cell of your body as belonging to you

187
Q

MHC molecules are unique for each individual except for…

A

identical twins

188
Q

where are MHC molecules displayed? and with what?

A

surface of APCs along with a fragment of presented antigen

189
Q

antigen processing (5)

A

(1) APC encounters antigen, (2) internalizes it by endocytosis, (3) digests it into fragments, (4) and attaches it to the MHC protein (5) and display it on the plasma membrane

190
Q

what happens if a T cell encounters an APC with self antigens presented?

A

it ignores it

191
Q

what happens when a T cell encounters an APC with a non-self antigen presented?

A

the appropriate T cell will initiate an immune response against the source of that antigen

192
Q

APCs and lymphocytes communicate with cytokines called…

A

interleukins

193
Q

three classes of T cells

A
  1. cytotoxic
  2. helper
  3. memory
194
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

carry out attack

195
Q

helper T cells

A

promote activities of other immune cells

196
Q

memory T cells

A

responsible for memory in cellular immunity

197
Q

what happens after an APC encounters an antigen? (3)

A

it (1) processes it, (2) migrates to the nearest lymph node, (3) and displays it to the T cells

198
Q

T cells respond to two classes of MHC proteins

A

MHC-I and MHC-II

199
Q

where do MHC-I proteins occur?

A

on all nucleated cells

200
Q

what kind of peptides do MHC-I molecules present?

A

internal peptides including virus infected cells, and cancer cells

201
Q

where do MHC-II proteins occur?

A

only on antigen-presenting cells

202
Q

what kind of peptides do MHC-II molecules present?

A

external (phagocytosed, foreign) antigens

203
Q

MHC restriction (2)

A

(1) cytotoxic T cells respond only to MHC-I proteins and (2) helper T cells only respond to MHC-II proteins

204
Q

when does Tc and Th cell activation begin?

A

when they bind an MHC protein displaying an epitope that the cell is programmed to recognize

205
Q

costimulation

A

additional signaling process required for T cell activation

206
Q

in addition to MHC and antigen binding, T cells must also bind..

A

signaling proteins on surface of APCs in damaged, infected tissues

207
Q

what does costimulation help ensure?

A

the immune system does not launch an attack in the absence of an enemy or else it would turn against one’s own body and injure our tissues (autoimmune disorders)

208
Q

successful costimulation will trigger _____ _____

A

clonal selection

209
Q

clonal selection (3)

A

(1) activated T cells undergo repeated mitosis to (2) produce identical clones programmed against the same epitope that (3) become either cytotoxic, memory, or helper T cells

210
Q

Immune memory follows the _____ response in cellular immunity

A

primary

211
Q

T cell recall response

A

since memory cells are long-lived, more numerous than naive T cells, and have fewer steps to be activated, so they respond more rapidly

212
Q

helper T cells play a central role in coordinating…(2)

A

both cellular and humoral immunity

213
Q

when helper T cells recognize the Ag-MHC (MHC-II) complex, what happens?

A

it secretes interleukins that exert effects

214
Q

three effects of the interleukins secreted by activated helper T cells (4)

A
  • attract neutrophils, NK cells, and macrophages
  • stimulate their phagocytic activity
  • inhibit them from leaving the area
  • stimulate T and B cell mitosis and maturation
215
Q

what are the only cells that directly attack other cells?

A

cytotoxic T cells

216
Q

when a Tc cell recognizes a complex of Ag-MHC protein on a diseased or foreign cell, it ___ on that cell

A

docks

217
Q

what happens after a Tc cell docks onto a diseased cell?

A

it delivers a lethal hit of chemicals

218
Q

the cytotoxic T cell lethal hit includes…(4)

A

perforins, granzymes, interferons, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

219
Q

lethal hit: perforin and granzymes

A

kills cells in the same manner as NK cells

220
Q

lethal hit: interferons (2)

A

inhibit viral replication, recruit and activate macrophages

221
Q

lethal hit: tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

A

aids macrophage activation and kills cancer cells

222
Q

after the lethal hit, what do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

goes off in search of another enemy cell while the chemicals do their work

223
Q

immunocompetent B cells have _____ of surface receptors for _____ antigen

A

thousands, one

224
Q

what happens when antigens bind to B cell receptors?

A

(1) it binds several of these receptors, (2) links them together, and (3) then the B cell takes it into itself by receptor-mediated endocytosis

225
Q

after a B cell endocytosis an antigen, what happens?

A

processes the antigen and displays fragments onto MHC-II on its surface

226
Q

helper T cells bind to displayed _____ on B cells and secretes _____ that activate the B cell

A

antigen-MHC, interleukins

227
Q

B cell clonal selection gives rise to…

A

clones of identical B cells programmed against the same antigen

228
Q

most B cells differentiate into…

A

plasma cells

229
Q

some B cells become…

A

memory B cells (they remember the antigen)

230
Q

antibodies travel through the body in…(2)

A

(1) blood and (2) other body fluids

231
Q

first exposure to an antigen triggers production of what Igs? and how?

A

(1) IgM and a (2) slower production of IgG

232
Q

later exposure to an already known antigen produces what Ig?

A

IgG much more rapidly than the first exposure

233
Q

antibodies assist in the immune response in four ways

A
  1. neutralization
  2. complement fixation
  3. agglutination
  4. precipitation
234
Q

antibodies: neutralization

A

masking active regions of an antigen (toxin, virus, microbial cells)

235
Q

antibodies: complement fixation

A

activating complement by the classical pathway

236
Q

antibodies: agglutinaiton

A

clumping of enemy cells, immobilizing them; having the clump cleared by phagocytosis

237
Q

antibodies: precipitation

A

antigen molecules (no whole cells) are clumped by antibodies; clumps cleared by phagocytes

238
Q

primary response

A

immune reaction brought about by the first exposure to an antigen

239
Q

why is the appearance of protective antibodies delayed for 3-6 days?

A

naive B cells multiple and differentiate into plasma cells

240
Q

as plasma cells produce antibodies, the _____ _____ rises

A

antibody titer

241
Q

antibody titer

A

level of antibodies in blood plasma

242
Q

when do IgM levels peak in a primary response?

A

10 days, soon decline

243
Q

when does the IgG titer drop to low levels from a primary response?

A

within a month

244
Q

secondary (anamnestic) response

A

immune response when re-exposed to the same antigen

245
Q

during an anamnestic response, how quickly do memory B cells become plasma cells?

A

within hours of re-exposure

246
Q

describe the IgG titer during a secondary response

A

rises sharply and peaks in a few days

247
Q

during an anamnestic response, low levels of Ig__ are also secreted and then quickly decline

A

M

248
Q

after a secondary response, IgG levels remain elevated for…?

A

weeks to years; conferring long lasting protection

249
Q

memory does not last as long in ____ immunity as in _____ immunity

A

humoral, cellular

250
Q

autoimmune diseases

A

failures of self-tolerance; immune system does not correctly distinguish self-antigens from foreign ones and produces auto- antibodies that attack body’s own tissue

251
Q

auto-antibodies

A

attack one’s own body tissues

252
Q

three reasons for failure of self-tolerance

A
  1. cross-reactivity
  2. abnormal exposure of self-antigens in the blood
  3. changes in structure of self-antigens
253
Q

failures of self-tolerance: cross-reactivity

A

some antibodies against foreign antigens react to similar self-antigens

254
Q

example of cross-reactivity

A

Rheumatic fever - streptococcus antibodies also attack heart valves

255
Q

failures of self-tolerance: abnormal exposure of self-antigens to the blood

A

some of our native antigens are not normally exposed to blood

256
Q

failures of self-tolerance: changes in structure of self-antigens

A

viruses and drugs may change the structure of self-antigens or cause the immune system to perceive them as foreign

257
Q

severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

A

hereditary lack of T and B cells; vulnerability to opportunistic infection and must live in protective enclosures

258
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

non-hereditary diseases contracted after birth

259
Q

AIDS is caused by

A

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

260
Q

HIV invades…(3)

A

helper T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

261
Q

how does HIV invade cells?

A

‘tricking’ them to internalize viruses by receptor-mediated endocytosis

262
Q

HIV is a retrovirus, meaning…

A

it sues the viral enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert its viral RNA genome into DNA which can be inserted into the host genome

263
Q

how does HIV cripple the entire immune response? (2)

A

by (1) taking out helper T cells and (2) causing them to be vulnerable to opportunistic infections

264
Q

early signs of AIDS

A

flu-like symptoms of chills and fever

265
Q

progressive symptoms of AIDS (4)

A

night sweats, fatigue, headache, extreme weight loss, lymphadenitis

266
Q

AIDS helper T cell count

A

200 cells/uL compared to 600-1200 cells/uL

267
Q

opportunistic infections include (5)

A
  • toxoplasma
  • pneumocystis
  • herpes simplex virus
  • cytomegalovirus
  • tuberculosis
268
Q

how is HIV transmitted? (5)

A
  • blood
  • semen
  • vaginal secretions
  • breast milk
  • across the placenta
269
Q

therapy for aids

A

antiretroviral therapy (ART) maintains near-normal life expectancy

270
Q

COVID-19 (coronavirus disease of 2019)

A

global pandemic of 2020-2021

271
Q

COVID-19 is caused by…

A

SARS-CoV-2

272
Q

viral structure of SARS-CoV-2 (4)

A

(1) single strand RNA stabilized by (2) RNA-binding nucleocapsid (N) protein and surrounded by (3) outer lipid envelope studded with (4) projecting spike proteins

273
Q

SARS-CoV-2 infection cycle (2)

A
  • virus in inhaled and invades great (type II) alveolar cells by binding to ACE2 receptors
  • virus replicated in host cells, and new ones are releases to infect new cells
274
Q

mechanisms of disease - SARS-CoV-2 (3)

A
  • body cells with ACE2 receptors are infected (heart, kidneys, digestive tract, blood vessels, brain)
  • cytokines released by immune cells activate inflammation
  • potential cytokine storm produces hyperinflammatory response
275
Q

COVID-19 symptoms (4)

A
  • flu-like symptoms
  • loss of taste and smell
  • possible breathing difficulty
  • low blood oxygen
276
Q

what is the most effective way to prevent critical illness and halt the spread of COVID-19?

A

VACCINATION

Anatomy and Physiology II (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions