Lecture Test 3 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the thoracic duct?

A

larger duct that drains lymph from the left side of the head, left chest, left upper arm, and the entire body below the diaphragm.

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2
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain into?

A

left subclavian vein

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3
Q

Unlike the cardiovascular system, the lymphatic system is

A

pumpless

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4
Q

What helps lymph flow in lymphatic vessels?

A

valves
milking by skeletal muscles
breathing

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5
Q

How does lymph flow differ from blood flow?

A

lymph flow is slower and spoadic

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6
Q

How much lymph enters the lymphatic vessels per day?

A

3L

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7
Q

What is the effect of blocking the drainage of interstitial fluid in the lymphatic system?

A

lymphedema (swelling)

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8
Q

What is lymphoid tissue?

A

houses lymphocytes

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9
Q

What type of tissue is lymphoid tissue?

A

reticular connective tissue made of reticular fibers

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10
Q

what are reticular fibers?

A

very fine collagen fibers

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11
Q

What are lymphoid organs?

A
red bone marrow
nodes
spleen
thymus
tonsils
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12
Q

what are the smaller lymphoid structures?

A

appendix

peyer’s patch

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13
Q

what is red bone marrow?

A

responsible for production of lymphocytes and macrophages

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14
Q

where is red bone marrow found?

A

inside SOME bones

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15
Q

what occurs in red bone marrow?

A

hemapoiesis

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16
Q

what is the lymph node?

A

encapsulated oval structures located alond lymphatic vessels

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17
Q

Where can large congregations of lymph nodes be found?

A

inguinal, cervical and axillary regions

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18
Q

What are the 2 major functions of lymph nodes?

A

filtration

activating the immune system

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19
Q

How do the lymph nodes filter lymph?

A

macrophages and lymphocytes destroy microorganisms that enter from the lymph and prevent them from entering blood and spreading to the rest of the body.

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20
Q

What are the lymph nodes role in activating the immune system?

A

they contain germination centers for lymphocytes and monocytes

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21
Q

Lymph nodes are the only organ that

A

filters lymph

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22
Q

what is a lymphadenopathy?

A

enlargement of the lymph nodes with no pain. Usually implies cancer

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23
Q

What is a lymphadenitis?

A

enlargement of the lymph nodes with pain usually due to infection

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24
Q

What is the anatomy of the spleen?

A

size of a fist
soft and rich in blood
under the diaphragm, on the left side

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25
Q

The spleen provides a site for

A

immune functions

blood production in the fetus

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26
Q

what is the spleen’s main function?

A

to remove old and dying RBCs and be a blood reservoir

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27
Q

The spleen’s capsule is

A

thin and can easily rupture due to trauma

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28
Q

When a spleen’s capsule ruptures….

A

the spleen must quickly be removed and the splenic artery must be tied off to prevent hemorrhaging

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29
Q

What is the removal of the spleen called?

A

spleenectomy

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30
Q

After a spleenectomy has occurred, who takes over the function of the spleen?

A

liver and red bone marrow

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31
Q

what is the location of the thymus?

A

anterior and superior to the heart

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32
Q

what hormone does the thymus secrete?

A

thymosin

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33
Q

what is the function of thymosin?

A

matures t cells

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34
Q

How big is the thymus?

A

increases in size until the first birthday then stays the same size until age 60

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35
Q

What happens to the thymus at age 60?

A

it becomes smaller and much of its functional tissue is replaced by fibrous connective tissue

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36
Q

what are the tonsils?

A

MALT

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37
Q

what is MALT?

A

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

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38
Q

what are the three groups of tonsils?

A

palatine tonsils
lingual tonsils
pharangeal tonsils

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39
Q

what are palatine tonsils?

A

largest of the tonsils and most easily infected

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40
Q

where are the palatine tonsils located?

A

either side of the posterior cavity

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41
Q

what happens to palatine tonsils in adults?

A

they decrease in size

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42
Q

what are lingual tonsils?

A

found at the base of the tongue

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43
Q

what are pharyngeal tonsils?

A

posterior wall of the nasopharynx

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44
Q

pharyngeal tonsils are also called

A

adenoids

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45
Q

what is the peyers patch?

A

clusters of lymphoid tissue containing lymphoid cells that offer immune protection to the ileum

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46
Q

what is the appendix?

A

tubular offshoot of the cecum composed of lymphatic tissue and cells

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47
Q

what is Hodgkin’s disease?

A

form of cancer that arises in the lymph nodes

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48
Q

what are the symptoms of Hodgkin’s?

A
painless swelling of the lymph nodes (usually in the neck)
night sweats
fever
fatigue
weight loss
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49
Q

what is the treatment for Hodgkin’s?

A

radiation
chemotherapy
bone marrow transplants

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50
Q

Hodgkin’s disease is considered

A

curable

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51
Q

What are the two defense systems?

A
innate immunity (nonspecific defense)
adaptive immunity (specific defense)
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52
Q

what is innate immunity (nonspecific)?

A

group of protective mechanisms that respond immediately to protect the body from ALL foreign invaders.

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53
Q

What is adaptive immunity (specific)?

A

group of protective mechanisms that mounts its attack against a specific invader.

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54
Q

The cells that attack during an adaptive immunity attack are

A

are specific for that foreign substance and have memory

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55
Q

Innate and adaptive immunity occur

A

at the same time and work together to protect the body

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56
Q

what are pathogens?

A

harmful or disease causing organisms

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57
Q

what are the seven tools of the innate immunity system?

A
species resistance
mechanical barriers
chemical mediators
natural killer cells
phagocytes
inflammation
fever
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58
Q

what is species resistance?

A

a given species is susceptible to diseases that may be unique to that species and to no other.

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59
Q

what types of infections can cross species?

A

zoonotic infection

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60
Q

what is a type of zoonotic infection?

A

rabies

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61
Q

what are mechanical barriers?

A

the body’s first line of defense

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62
Q

what are some examples of mechanical barriers?

A

skin that is unbroken
tears
saliva

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63
Q

Mucous membranes are a type of mechanical barrier because

A

they secrete substances that can kill invaders

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64
Q

what is a lysozyme?

A

an enzyme that destroys bacteria

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65
Q

what is an example of a lysozyme?

A

tears
saliva
HCL

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66
Q

what are two types of chemical mediators?

A

interferon

complement

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67
Q

what is interferon?

A

substance produced by cells toxic to viruses

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68
Q

interferon is

A

nonspecific so it protects against a number of viruses

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69
Q

How does interferon work?

A

protects neighboring cells

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70
Q

what is complement?

A

group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in the blood in an inactive state. When stimulated they complement the functioning of innate and adaptive immune systems

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71
Q

what are some examples of complement?

A

membrane attack complex
chemotaxic agents
histamines
opsonization

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72
Q

what is membrane attack complex?

A

punches holes in cell walls

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73
Q

what are chemotaxic agents?

A

attract WBCs to the area

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74
Q

How are histamines a complement activity?

A

complement stimulates the release of histamines from basophils and platelets as a result of trauma. This increases the permeability of blood vessels in the injured area

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75
Q

what is opsonization?

A

improving phagocytes ability to adhere to the pathogen

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76
Q

what are natural killer cells?

A

unique white blood cells that “police” the body in the blood and the lymph

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77
Q

natural killer cells have the ability to

A

find and lyse some cancer and virus affected cells before the immune system is activated

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78
Q

How do natural killer cells work?

A

not by phagocytosis but by attaching themselves to their target and destroying its cell membrane

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79
Q

what do natural killer cells secrete?

A

perforins

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80
Q

what are phagocytes?

A

cells that eat organisms

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81
Q

what are the chief phagocytes?

A

macrophages

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82
Q

where do macrophages derive from?

A

circulating monocytes that leave the blood stream and enter through the tissues and enlarge

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83
Q

what are wondering macrophages?

A

macrophages that constantly wander through the interstitial spaces looking for invaders

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84
Q

what are fixed macrophages?

A

macrophages that remain within certain organs

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85
Q

what is an example of a fixed macrophage?

A

kupffer cells in the liver

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86
Q

what is another type of phagocyte?

A

neutrophils

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87
Q

eosinophils are

A

slightly phagocytic

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88
Q

what sometimes prevents phagocytes from being successful?

A

inability to adhere to the invader

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89
Q

how is inflammation a part of innate immunity?

A

prevents the spread of damaging agents
disposes of debris and pathogens
sets the stage for repair

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90
Q

what are the four signs of inflammation?

A
redness
heat
swelling
pain
(sometimes a loss of function in serious injury)
91
Q

_________ leads to a release of various chemicals

A

tissue injury

92
Q

the release of certain chemicals after inflammation causes

A
dilation of blood vessels
increase permability of blood vessels
swelling
pain
chemotaxis of WBCs
93
Q

the dilation of blood vessels causes

A

more blood to go to the area of the injury causing redness and heat

94
Q

increased permeability of the capillaries causes

A

emigration

95
Q

swelling is

A

increased amount of blood in the vessels leads to an increase in pressure within the capillaries resulting in more fluid escaping into the interstitial spaces

96
Q

pain is caused when

A

swelling puts an increase of pressure on the nerves

97
Q

chemotaxis of WBCs is due to

A

leukocytosis

98
Q

what is leukocytosis?

A

injured cells stimulate rapid release of neutrophils

99
Q

Within one hour after inflammation, neutrophils

A

have collected at the site of injury and are eating the invader

100
Q

Following neutrophils, ________ are second responders

A

monocytes

101
Q

monocytes swell and

A

increase the number of lysosomesin the cytoplasm to become macrophages.

102
Q

Macrophages are responsible for

A

the final clean up of the infected area and the dead neutrophils

103
Q

What happens to severe infections?

A

pus accumulates

104
Q

what is pus?

A

a mixture of dead neutrophils, broken down tissue cells, pathogens and macrophages

105
Q

What is an absess?

A

When pus accumulates under the skin.

106
Q

Fever is a

A

systemic protective mechanism against a pathogen

107
Q

Body temperature is regulated by

A

the hypothalamus

108
Q

Normal body temperature is

A

99.7 degrees

109
Q

What are pyrogens?

A

a secretion of lymphocytes, neutrophils and macrophages as they attack pathogens

110
Q

Pyrogens stimulate the release of

A

prostaglandins which raises the set thermostat

111
Q

When a person has chills during a fever it indicates

A

that the fever is rising.

112
Q

Why do you have chills during a fever?

A

the muscles are contracting to produce more heat in order to reach the new temperature setting in the hypothalamus.

113
Q

When a person sweats during a fever

A

it indicates that the fever is dropping

114
Q

Mild fevers are beneficial because

A

there is an increase in metabolic rate of tissue cells speeding up defensive actions and repair processes

115
Q

High fevers can be dangerous because

A

they can inactivate enzymes leading to tissue damage and death

116
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

prevents temperature from rising.

117
Q

Aspirin is an

A

antiprostaglandin that makes you feel better

118
Q

What are antigens?

A

substances that stimulate an adaptive immunity

119
Q

Antigens can be classified as

A

foreign antigens or self antigens

120
Q

What are foreign antigens?

A

antigens not produced by the body but introduced from the outside

121
Q

What are some examples of foreign antigens?

A

bacteria
viruses
parasites
transplanted tissue

122
Q

what are self antigens?

A

molecules produced by the body that stimulate an adaptive immune response

123
Q

What are some examples of self antigens?

A

autoimmune diseases

124
Q

Adaptive immunity results from the activities of

A

T cells and B cells ( a type of lymphocyte)

125
Q

T cells and B cells have been programmed at birth to

A

respond to specific antigens

126
Q

In a lifetime, T and B cells

A

will never be challenged

127
Q

In order for an adaptive immunity response to occur

A

lymphocytes must recognize the specific antigen and after recognition, the lymphocytes must increase in number to effectively destroy the antigen

128
Q

As T and B cells are produced, they develop

A

receptors that are programmed to recognize different epitopes that they may come in contact with during the person’s life time

129
Q

What is an epitope?

A

specific regions of a given antigen that will be recognized by specific populations of T and B cells

130
Q

Some antigens bind to

A

their receptors and directly activate B and T cells

131
Q

Most lymphocyte recognition involves

A

major histocompatibility complexes

132
Q

what are major histocompatibility complexes?

A

glycoproteins that are unique to an individual (except identical twins) that are found on all cell membranes except red blood cells

133
Q

Once recognition occurs, the specific lymphocyte

A

goes through cell division increasing the number of cells equipped to destroy the antigen.

134
Q

Where does cell division occur?

A

lymphatic tissue

135
Q

Many times ____________ are necessary in recognition between antigen and its specific cells.

A

antigen presenting cells

136
Q

What is an example of an antigen presenting cell?

A

macrophages

137
Q

How do macrophages function?

A

They first phagocytize the antigen. The partially digested antigen is then displayed on the surface of the macrophage and then presented to the T and B cells for recognition.

138
Q

Recognition between the specific antigen and its T and B lymphocytes also needs ____________ with cytokines and other cells called helper T cells

A

costimulation

139
Q

what are helper T cells?

A

cells that proliferate first when meeting an antigen through the secretion of interleukin 2. The specific T/B cells increase and will directly be responsible for destroying the antigen by proliferation of these specific lymphocytes into identical cells called a clone

140
Q

what is a clone?

A

a population of identical cells

141
Q

T cells develop from

A

hemocytoblasts in the red bone marrow

142
Q

T cells then migrate to the ________ to mature

A

thymus gland

143
Q

In the thymus T cells develop

A

immunocompetence

144
Q

Immunocompetence:

A

the ability to carry out immune responses if properly stimulated

145
Q

Most T cells arise before

A

puberty but some continue to develop throughout its life

146
Q

T cells develop ________ on the cell membrane that can recognize specific antigens that the body may be challenged with in life

A

antigen receptors

147
Q

T cells are very effective against

A
fungi
parasites
viruses
cancer cells
foreign tissue transplants
148
Q

Mature T cells will leave the thymus gland and

A

become embedded in lymphoid tissue or will freely circulate

149
Q

What are the different subpopulations of T cells that are vital in response

A

helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Memory T cells
suppressor t cells

150
Q

what are helper t cells?

A

cells that do not directly attack the antigen but produce cytokines mainly interleukin 2

151
Q

what are cytokines

A

small hormones that are involved with cell functions

152
Q

interleukin 2 is needed for

A

all adaptive immune responses.

153
Q

Without helper t cells

A

the adaptive immune system is nonfunctional

154
Q

what are cytotoxic t cells

A

cells that are directly responsible for destroying the invader always requiring costimulation by helper T cells.

155
Q

After being activated and proliferating in the lymphoid tissues, cytotoxic t cells

A

migrate to the site of invasion and produce perforins and lymphotoxins that will destroy the specific invader

156
Q

what are memory t cells?

A

cells that are programmed to destroy a recurring invader (chicken pox)

157
Q

The secondary reaction of memory t cells will be

A

much faster and the person may not ever know that they’ve come in contact with the antigen again.

158
Q

What are suppressor t cells?

A

poorly understood, probably associated with tolerance/autoimmune disease

159
Q

When B cells are activated they will produce

A

antibodies that kill the specific antigen

160
Q

B cells are formed from

A

hemocytoblasts in red bone marrow

161
Q

b cells mature in

A

red bone marrow and gain immunocomptency

162
Q

After b cells gain immunocompetency,

A

they leave the RBM and establish residency within a lymphoid tissue or circulate

163
Q

After recognition of specific antigens occurs

A

proliferation follows

164
Q

During proliferation

A

B cells enlarge, divide and differentiate into plasma cells

165
Q

Plasma cells produce

A

antibodies

166
Q

The B cells that don’t become plasma cells

A

form memory cells

167
Q

Plasma cells produce

A

2,000 molecules of antibodies per second for 4-5 days

168
Q

What is an antibody?

A

protein produced in response to an antigen

169
Q

The antibodies produced by the clone of plasma cells

A

enter circulation and form Antigen-antibody complexes with the specific antigen.

170
Q

What are the different ways an antibodies destroy antigens?

A

immobilization
agglutination and precipitation of antigen
activation of complement
initiation of inflammatory response

171
Q

What is immobilization:

A

antibodies form against the cilia or flagella of some bacteria and these bacteria lose their mobility

172
Q

what is agglutination and precipitation of antigen?

A

the antibodies may cause the antigens to clump together. Phagocytosis is easier

173
Q

What is activation of complement?

A

antigen-antibody complexes initiate complement activation

174
Q

What are the 5 different classes of antibodies that plasma cells produce?

A
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE
175
Q

IgG is

A

most abundant 80% of all antibodies in the body

176
Q

IgA:

A

15% of antibodies

177
Q

IgM:

A

5-10% of antibodies

178
Q

IgD:

A

Less than 1% of antibodies

179
Q

IgE:

A

less than 1% of antibodies. Involved with allergic reactions

180
Q

What are B memory cells?

A

cells that quickly recognize the antigen during a later exposure and kill it before the body reacts to it.

181
Q

The secondary respose of B cells:

A

is much quicker and stronger than the primary response

182
Q

What is lag time?

A

time between the invasion of antigen into body and the appearance of antibodies

183
Q

Why is there a lag time?

A

due to the time needed for the specific B cells to divide and differentiate into plasma cells

184
Q

what are autoimmune diseases?

A

the immune system fails to recognize itself and lanches an immune attack against its own system

185
Q

What are some examples of autoimmune disease?

A

rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes mellitus, multiple sclerosis and lupus

186
Q

What causes autoimmune inflammatory disease of connective tissue?

A

unknown but occurs in families

187
Q

who is mostly affected by autoimmune disease of connective tissue?

A

women

188
Q

what are the symptoms of autoimmune disease of connective tissue?

A

pain in joints
photosensitivity
rash across the eyes and nose
inflammation of kidneys, liver, spleen, heart and central nervous system

189
Q

what is an allergic reaction?

A

an over reaction to an antigen that is tolerated by most others

190
Q

the antigen that causes an allergic reaction is called an

A

allergen

191
Q

what are some common allergens?

A
milk
nuts 
some drugs
vaccines
some plants
venoms
192
Q

what is the outcome of allergic reactions?

A

varies from a congested nose to anaphylaxis

193
Q

what is anaphylaxis?

A

severe reaction with an allergen that results in mass vasodilation, increased permeability (leading to swelling), increased smooth muscle contraction the airways of the lungs and increased mucus production

194
Q

what is tissue rejection?

A

When the body recognizes transplant tissues as nonself and mounts an immune response.

195
Q

The more similar the surface proteins are between donor and recipient,

A

the weaker the rejection response.

196
Q

What is the drug used in transplants to decrease tissue rejection?

A

cyclosporine

197
Q

What is cancer?

A

when a normal cell transfers into a cancer cell it displays tumor antigens.

198
Q

If the immune system can detect cancer cells as nonself,

A

they can be destroyed.

199
Q

What is immunological surveillance?

A

there are cells that are constantly circulating and guarding against the appearance of cancer cells.

200
Q

What happens to immunological surveillance as we age?

A

it decreases and cancer risk increases.

201
Q

What is AIDS?

A

an immunological disease identified in the 1980s cause by human immunodeficiency virus

202
Q

How was AIDS first identified?

A

CDC in Atlanta had high rates of pneumocytosis pnemonia

203
Q

what causes pnemocytosis pneumonia?

A

a protozoan and a Kaposi’s sarcoma.

204
Q

What is a Karposi’s sarcoma?

A

cancer of the blood vessels seen as purple lesions on the skin

205
Q

Who is mostly affected by Karposi’s sarcoma?

A

elderly homosexual men

206
Q

HIV cannot

A

live long outside its host

207
Q

HIV is transmitted by

A

body secretions such as blood, semen, vaginal secretions, tears and saliva

208
Q

What types of cells can HIV enter?

A

helper t cells
macrophages
brain cells

209
Q

When helper T cells are invaded by HIV

A

the population is decreased and the immune system colapses

210
Q

How do patients usually die from AIDS?

A

opportunistic diseases such as cancer, pneumonia, or a raging infection

211
Q

When do symptoms of HIV occur

A

a few months to ten years after diagnosis

212
Q

What are nonprogresssors?

A

people who have been infected by HIV but after 10-15 years show no symptoms of it

213
Q

HIV is a

A

retrovirus

214
Q

what is a retrovirus?>

A

its genetic code is found on RNA not DNA

215
Q

The core of HIV contains

A

RNA and reverse transciptase

216
Q

What surrounds the core of a HIV cell?

A

protein coat or capsid

217
Q

The enter HIV cell is surrounded by

A

a lipid bilayer with glycoproteins

218
Q

what is the function of the glycoproteins

A

help the HIV to bind and enter target cells

219
Q

How does the virus enter the host cell?

A

reverse transcriptase produces viral DNA from RNA. THe DNA inserts itself into the hosts DNA and directs it to produce new viruses.

220
Q

HIV has a high

A

mutation rate changing its coat rapidly and making the development of a vaccine hard

221
Q

What is the treatment for HIV/AIDS?

A

combination therapy of AZT and protease

222
Q

What does AZT do?

A

it is a reverse transciptinase inhibitor

223
Q

what does protease do?

A

prohibits the manufacturing of the protein coat on new viruses