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A&P2 > FINAL!!!!!!!!! > Flashcards

FINAL!!!!!!!!! Flashcards

1
Q

What is genetics?

A

study of the passage of traits from one generation to the next

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2
Q

what are genes?

A

structure of the DNA which holds the information for genetic traits

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3
Q

Where are chromosomes found?

A

nuclei of cells

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4
Q

Nuclei of somatic cells contain

A

46 chromosomes in humans

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5
Q

When is the amount of chromosomes determined?

A

fertilization

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6
Q

The 46 chromosomes are arranged in

A

homologous pairs

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7
Q

What are autosomal chromosomes?

A

chromosomal pairs 1-22

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8
Q

Chromosome pair 23 is

A

the sex chromosomes

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9
Q

what are sex chromosomes?

A

chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual

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10
Q

In humans, the mother will donate

A

the X chromosome

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11
Q

In humans, the father will donate

A

an X or Y chromosome

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12
Q

What determines the sex of an offspring?

A

the sperm

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13
Q

XX=

A

female

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14
Q

XY=

A

male

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15
Q

Since X and Y are not homologous,

A

there will be different information on these two chromosomes

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16
Q

The Y chromosome gives the information for

A

maleness

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17
Q

Male and female embryos develop identically until

A

7 weeks after fertilization

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18
Q

What happens at 7 weeks of fertilization?

A

the Y gene will become male. If there is no Y gene a female is the result

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19
Q

what is the SRY gene?

A

sex determining region of the Y chromosome

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20
Q

How does the SRY function?

A

it inserts into a genetically female fetus and develops it into a male

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21
Q

When fertilization occurs, the genes inherited from the father

A

and combined with the genes inherited from the mother

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22
Q

What are alleles?

A

variations of a gene

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23
Q

An example of an allele is

A

hair color

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24
Q

Where is the gene for hair color found>

A

one of the autosomes

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25
Q

If the mother and father contribute the same alleles (both have brown hair)

A

the person is said to be homozygous

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26
Q

If the alleles are different they are said to be

A

heterozygous

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27
Q

Dominant alleles control

A

a particular trait

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28
Q

In order for a recessive trait to be expressed,

A

the individual needs to have a double dose. I.E. homozygous

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29
Q

what is a genotype?

A

genetic makeup of an organism

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30
Q

the trait expressed is called the

A

phenotype

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31
Q

Type A and B blood are

A

codominant

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32
Q

Type O blood is

A

recessive

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33
Q

In order for a person to have type O blood,

A

both parents must be type O

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34
Q

Most genetic disorders are due to

A

the presence of the recessive gene

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35
Q

In order for a genetic disorder to occur,

A

the individual must be homozygous recessive

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36
Q

What happens to a heterozygous recessive individual?

A

they are not affected but can pass the gene off onto their offspring

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37
Q

what are carriers?

A

heterozygous recessive

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38
Q

what is the most common lethal genetic disease?

A

cystic fibrosis

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39
Q

what is PKU?

A

phenylketonuria

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40
Q

what is phenylketonuria?

A

recessive disease where the individual lacks the enzyme that breaks down phenylalanine (an amino acid)

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41
Q

what does phenylketonuria cause?

A

brain damage and mental retardation due to the build up of phenylalanine

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42
Q

In most states, there is

A

mandatory testing of newborns for PKU

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43
Q

In a dominant genetic disorder,

A

both homozygous and heterozygous are affected

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44
Q

what is huntingtons disease?

A

degenerative disease of the nervous system

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45
Q

huntingtons disease has no

A

phenotypic expression until 35-45 years of age

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46
Q

what is a punnett square?

A

process to determine what % of children will be affected by genetic disorders

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47
Q

What is DNA?

A

a sequence of nucleotides strung together

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48
Q

DNA is broken down into

A

chromosomes

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49
Q

chromosomes are broken down into

A

individual genes

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50
Q

Each gene is coded for

A

one trait

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51
Q

A human has about how many genes?

A

35,000

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52
Q

how many genes are on each chromosome?

A

750

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53
Q

If you are a female you will have

A

23 paired chromosome

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54
Q

If you are a male, you will have

A

22 paired chromosomes and one pair that doesn’t match

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55
Q

Y chromosomes have genes for

A

sex characteristics only

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56
Q

X chromosomes have genes dfor

A

characteristics and other traits

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57
Q

what is a genotype?

A

listing of the alleles present

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58
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

what is visually seen.

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59
Q

What does cystic fibrosis lead to?

A

increased thickness of mucus

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60
Q

If N is no cystic fibrosis and n is cystic fibrosis:

A

Nn=carrier
NN=normal
nn=cystic fibrosis

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61
Q

It is important in cell division that

A

chromosomal pairs divide equally

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62
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

unequal distribution of chromosomes in the gametes and problems in the offspring

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63
Q

what is down’s syndrome?

A

occurs during meiosis and results in an individual with 47 chromosomes instead of 46

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64
Q

What is the extra chromosome in down’s syndrome called?

A

tripsomy 21 because it is found in the chromosomal pair 21

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65
Q

What does down’s syndrome cause?

A

mental retardation and some physical problems

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66
Q

what makes down’s syndrome more common?

A

A mother high in age

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67
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome?

A

XO. Female because there is no SRY gene. Nonreproductive

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68
Q

what is meta female syndrome?

A

XXX. True female. Overproduction of estrogen causes health concerns

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69
Q

what is klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

XXY. Male but will have female characteristics.

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70
Q

klinefelters syndrome will result in

A

breasts, poor beard growth, wide hips and reduced fertility

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71
Q

what is Jacob’s syndrome?

A

XYY. nondisjunction. Overproduction of testosterone causes health concerns

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72
Q

What is YO?

A

will not survive because there is no X chromosome

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73
Q

There are some traits that will be passed on to males but rarely to females, in these cases

A

the mother is the carrier

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74
Q

what are some problems due to the X chromosome?

A

color blindness

hemophilia

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75
Q

Only on the X chromosome will there be information for

A

the development of cones of the eyes

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76
Q

what are the cones of the eyes?

A

color receptors

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77
Q

the ability to see color is dependant on

A

the X chromosome

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78
Q

Colorblindness is

A

recessive

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79
Q

In a female, one X may have the gene for colorblindness but

A

it will usually be masked by a normal gene on the other X chromosome.

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80
Q

In a male, if the X mom carries the gene for colorblindness,

A

the Y from dad will not mask it.

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81
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

a sex-linked condition that results in the inability of the blood to clot

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82
Q

In hemophilia, the X chromosome

A

contains coding for some essential clotting factors

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83
Q

Hemophilia is rarer in

A

females

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84
Q

What is hemopoiesis?

A

the process by which blood cells are formed

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85
Q

what is a hemocytoblasts?

A

the stem cell that gives rise to RBCs, WBCs and platelets

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86
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

4 polypeptide chains with a HEME structure

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87
Q

what is erythropoiesis?

A

the process of RBC production

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88
Q

what is a reticulocyte?

A

cell that will mature into a erythrocyte that has a biconcave shape

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89
Q

what is hypoxia?

A

lack of adequate oxygen in the tissues

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90
Q

what is anemia?

A

condition of reduced oxygen-carrying ability in the blood

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91
Q

what causes anemia?

A

reduced levels of hemoglobin

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92
Q

what is polycethemia?

A

abnormal increase of RBCs that causes the blood to become thicker and less oxygen getting to the tissues

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93
Q

what is a granulocyte?

A

cells that have 1 lobed nucleus and granules in the cytoplasm

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94
Q

what are some examples of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

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95
Q

what is an agranulocyte?

A

cells with no granules in the cytoplasm

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96
Q

what are some examples of agranulocytes?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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97
Q

what is chemotaxis?

A

attraction of phagocytes to microbes by chemical stimulus

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98
Q

what is diapedisis?

A

process by which WBCs leave the blood

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99
Q

what is a thrombocyte?

A

platelet

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100
Q

what is a megakaryote?

A

forms after a hemocytoblasts and will become a thrombocyte

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101
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

stoppage of bleeding

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102
Q

what is coagulation?

A

when a clot is formed in the injured area

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103
Q

what is fibrinolysis?

A

removes the unneeded clot when healing occurs

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104
Q

what is t-pa?

A

substance that converts plasminogen into plasmin

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105
Q

what is the function of tpa?

A

removal of the clot

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106
Q

what is plasminogen?

A

an inactive blood protein

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107
Q

what is a thrombus?

A

a clot

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108
Q

what is an embolus?

A

a clot that flows freely in the blood

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109
Q

what is an antigen?

A

glycolipids on the surface of RBCs that are genetically determined

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110
Q

what are antibodies?

A

substance found in the plasma that reacts with the antigens of other blood types

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111
Q

what is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

when the mother is RH- and the fetus is Rh +

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112
Q

what are the main components of whole blood?

A

plasma and formed elements

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113
Q

what are formed elements?

A

RBC, WBC and platelet

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114
Q

Most of whole blood is

A

plasma

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115
Q

Most of the formed elements are

A

RBCs

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116
Q

the absence of a nucleus in a erythrocyte causes

A

more room for hemoglobin

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117
Q

the biconcave shape of an RBC will result in

A

increased surface area for gas diffusion and gives the cells flexibility to fit through small vessels/

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118
Q

What is the process of erythropoiesis?

A

hemocytoblasts
reticulocyte
erythrocyte

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119
Q

hemocytoblasts have

A

a nucleus

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120
Q

reticulocytes and erythrocytes have

A

no nuclei

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121
Q

How long does erythropoiesis take?

A

1-2 days

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122
Q

what is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

blood loss leading to a decreases number of RBCs

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123
Q

what is hemolytic anemia?

A

RBCs rupture prematurely

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124
Q

what is aplastic anemia?

A

pathology of the red bone marrow

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125
Q

what is dietary anemia?

A

not enough iron in the blood to carry oxygen

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126
Q

what is pernicious anemia?

A

lack of intrinsic factor

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127
Q

what is sickle cell anemia?

A

RBC loses its round shape and sickles

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128
Q

what is the function of a neutrophil?

A

phagocytosis

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129
Q

what is the function of a eosinophil?

A

parasitic worms

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130
Q

what is the function of a basophil?

A

heparin and histamines

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131
Q

what is the function of a lymphocyte?

A

antibody production

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132
Q

what is the function of a monocyte?

A

phagocytosis

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133
Q

what are the three phases to hemostasis?

A

vascular spasms
platelet plug formation
coagulation

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134
Q

how long does it take for vascular spasms to occur?

A

immediately

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135
Q

how long does platelet plug formation take?

A

1-2 minutes

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136
Q

what are the three phases to platelet plug formation?

A

platelet adhesion
platelet activation
platelet aggregation

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137
Q

what is the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A 
factor 12
calcium
factor ten (common pathway)
prothrombinase turns prothrombin into thrombin
thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibren
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138
Q

what is the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A 
factor three
calcium
factor ten (common pathway)
prothrombinase turns prothrombin into throbin
thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibren
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139
Q

what is the effect of aspirin on coagulation?

A

antiprostaglandin prevents prostaglandin from being released. Plug is not formed completely

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140
Q

what is Coumadin?

A

anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of a clot

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141
Q

what is nitroglycerin?

A

vasodilator given during a myocardial infarction

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142
Q

Type A blood:

A

has A antigens and B antibodies

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143
Q

Type B blood has

A

B antigens and A antibodies

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144
Q

Type AB blood has

A

A and B antigens and no antibodies

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145
Q

Ty[e O blood has

A

no antigens and A and B antibodies

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146
Q

who is the universal donor?

A

type o

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147
Q

who is the universal recipient?

A

AB

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148
Q

What is the treatment for hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

rhogam injections

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149
Q

what is the pericardium?

A

outer sac that covers the heart

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150
Q

what is the chordae tendinae?

A

connects the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscles

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151
Q

what is a myocardial infarction?

A

heart attack

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152
Q

what is the pacemaker?

A

the SA node that sets up the impulse.

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153
Q

what is a heart murmur?

A

sound heard before the lubb-dupp that masks the normal heart sounds

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154
Q

what causes a heart murmur?

A

a valve not closing completely

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155
Q

what is systole?

A

phase of contraction

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156
Q

what is diastole?

A

phase of relaxation

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157
Q

what is cardiac output?

A

amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute

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158
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

amount of blood ejected from the left ventiricle per beat

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159
Q

what is starlings law?

A

an increased preload due to exercise leads to an increase in cardiac output by causing an increase in stroke volume

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160
Q

what are beta blockers?

A

medication given to decrease the heart rate

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161
Q

what composes the pericardial sac?

A

fibrous pericardium

serous pericardium

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162
Q

what is the fibrous pericardium?

A

outer layer that surrounds the heart

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163
Q

what is the serous pericardium

A

thinner membrane with 2 layers

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164
Q

what are the two layers of the pericardium?

A

parietal and visceral pleura with a pericardial space

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165
Q

what is the epicardium?

A

external layer of the heart

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166
Q

what is the myocardium?

A

cardiac muscle layer of the heart. largest layer

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167
Q

what is the endocardium?

A

thin layer of endothelium lining the heart continuous with the endothelial lining of the vessels

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168
Q

what are the four chambers of the heart?

A

right and left atrium

right and left ventricles

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169
Q

what are the four valves of the heart?

A

aortic semilunar valve
pulmonary semilunar vavle
tricuspid
bicuspid

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170
Q

where does the impulse start in the heart

A

SA node

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171
Q

what is the p wave of an EKG represent?

A

spread of impulse from the SA node throughout the atria leading to contraction of the atria

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172
Q

what does the t wave represent?

A

ventricular repolarization

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173
Q

what is the PQ interval?

A

beginning of atrial excitation to the beginning of ventricular excitation

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174
Q

what is the QT interval?

A

start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave

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175
Q

when are the cuspid valves open?

A

atrial systole

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176
Q

when are the cuspid valves closed?

A

ventricular systole

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177
Q

When are the semilunar valves open?

A

ventricular systole

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178
Q

How do you change the cardiac output?

A

change the stroke volume or heart rate

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179
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system affect the cardiac output?

A

releases noephrinepine which increases the heart rate.

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180
Q

How does the parasympathetic nervous system affect the nervous system?

A

releases acetycholine which slows down the heart rate

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181
Q

what is an artery?

A

carries blood away from the heart (usually oxygenated)

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182
Q

what is an arteriole?

A

connects arteries with capillaries

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183
Q

what is a capillary?

A

site of material moving in and out of the circulatory system

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184
Q

what is a venule?

A

connects capillaries with the veins

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185
Q

what is a vein?

A

carries blood towards the heart

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186
Q

what is bulk flow?

A

large amounts of ions, proteins, other nutrients and water

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187
Q

what is an edema?

A

abnormal increase in interstitial fluid

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188
Q

What is hypotension?

A

low blood pressure

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189
Q

what is hypertension?

A

high blood pressure

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190
Q

what is an aneurysm?

A

localized dilation of an artery normally found in the brain or aorta

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191
Q

what is altherosclerosis?

A

fatty deposits forming in the vessel wall and sometimes bulging into the lumen

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192
Q

what is the result of altheroscelerosis?

A

blood clots

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193
Q

what is arteriosclerosis?

A

end product of altherosclerosis. vessels lose their elasticity

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194
Q

what is shock?

A

inadequate perfusion of tissues

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195
Q

what are the layers of arteries and veins?

A

tunica interna
tunica media
tunica externa

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196
Q

what is the thickest layer of the arteries?

A

tunica media

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197
Q

what layer is the thickest in veins?

A

tunica externa

198
Q

Explain bulk flow

A

hydrostatic pressure pushes nutrients into the arteriole side. Oncotic pressure pushes wastes into the venule side

199
Q

what are the causes of edema?

A

heart problems
fluid retention
increased capillary permeability

200
Q

How does bulk flow cause edema?

A

when filtration and reabsorption of interstitial fluid is interrupted

201
Q

where can a pulse be detected on the wrist?>

A

radial artery

202
Q

where can a pulse be detected on the neck?

A

carotid artery

203
Q

where can a pulse be detected in the groin?

A

femoral artery

204
Q

where can a pulse be detected in the foot?

A

dorsal pedal artery

205
Q

where can you detect a pulse on the elbow?

A

brachial artery

206
Q

what are the three branches that come off the aortic arch?

A

brachiocephalic
left common carotid
left subclavian

207
Q

where are blood samples taken from?

A

median cubital vein

208
Q

how does fetal circulation differ from adult?

A

there are no lungs and the fetus obtains its oxygen from diffusion

209
Q

At birth, what happens to the ductus venosus?

A

becomes ligamentum venosum

210
Q

At birth, what happens to the ductus arteriosus?

A

becomes ligamentum arteriosum

211
Q

At birth, what happens to the foramen ovale?

A

becomes fossa ovalis

212
Q

at birth, what happens to the umbilical vein?

A

becomes round ligament

213
Q

what happens to the umbilical arteries at birth?

A

becomes cords of umbilical arteries

214
Q

what is hemhorragic shock?

A

hypovolemia. external or internal bleeding

215
Q

what is plasma loss shock?

A

hypovolemia. loss of plasma to the interstitial spaces

216
Q

what is dehydration shock?

A

hypovolemia due to extreme urination

217
Q

what is anesthesia shock?

A

vasodilation. decreased activity of the medulla

218
Q

what is anaphylactic shock?

A

vasodilation. allergic reaction

219
Q

what is septic shock?

A

vasodilation. infection of the blood

220
Q

what is neurogenic shock?

A

vasodilation. head injuries

221
Q

what is the thoracic duct?

A

drains lymph from everywhere except the right arm, neck and head

222
Q

what is lymph?

A

interstitial fluid and proteins in the lymphactic capillaries

223
Q

what is the lymph node?

A

germination centers that filter lymph

224
Q

what is the thymus?

A

secretes hormones and matures t cells

225
Q

what is the spleen?

A

removes old rbcs and serves as a blood reservoir

226
Q

tonsils:

A

MALT

227
Q

MALT:

A

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

228
Q

what is hodkins disease?

A

cancer of the lymph nodes

229
Q

what is innate immunity?

A

nonspecific defense

230
Q

what is adaptive immunity?

A

specific immunity

231
Q

what is interferon?

A

substance produced by cells that is toxic to viruses

232
Q

what is complement?

A

major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body

233
Q

what is opsonization?

A

improving or enhancing phagocytes

234
Q

what are pyrogens?

A

pyrogens stimulate prostaglandins which increase the thermostat resulting in a fever

235
Q

what is an epitope?

A

specific regions of antigens recognized by specific b and t cells

236
Q

what are major histocompatibility complexes?

A

lymphocyte recognition that starts cell division

237
Q

what are antigen presenting cells?

A

macrophages that disply a portion of the antigen on its surface

238
Q

what is interleukin 2?

A

cytokine needed for all adaptive immunity responses

239
Q

what is an autoimmune disease?

A

immune system fails to recognize self and launches an attack against its own tissues

240
Q

what is an allergy?

A

over reaction to an antigen that is tolerated by most others

241
Q

what is anaphylaxis?

A

severe reaction resulting in mass vasodilation

242
Q

what is an opportunistic infection?

A

AIDS HIV

243
Q

what are the three components of the lymphatic system?

A

cells
lymphatic vessels
lymphoid tissues and organs

244
Q

what are lymphatic cells?>

A

lymphocytes
monocytes
neutrophils

245
Q

what is the route of lymph?

A 
lymphatic capillaries
afferent lymphatic vessels 
lymph nodes
efferent lymphatic vessels
lymphatic trunks
lymphatic ducts
246
Q

where does lymph rejoin the blood?

A

lymphatic ducts

247
Q

what is the function of the spleen?

A

remove old and dying RBCs

248
Q

how does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity?

A

innate immunity protects the body from all invaders where the adaptive is specific

249
Q

what does interferon protect?

A

neighboring cells

250
Q

what does membrane attack complex do?

A

punches holes in cell walls

251
Q

what is the function of natural killer cells?

A

to police the body for invaders

252
Q

what do natural killer cells secrete?

A

perforins

253
Q

How do natural killer cells function?

A

they attach themselves to the invader and destroy their membranes

254
Q

what are the four signs of inflammation?

A

heat
redness
swelling
pain

255
Q

how does inflammation protect the body?

A

prevents the spread
disposes debris and pathogens
sets stage for repair

256
Q

why is there redness and heat?

A

dilation of blood vessels

257
Q

what causes the swelling?

A

more fluid escaping the vessels

258
Q

what causes the pain?

A

edema putting pressure on nerves

259
Q

what are helper t cells?

A

produce cytokines specifically interleukin 2

260
Q

what are cytotoxic t cells?

A

directly destroy the invader

261
Q

memory t cells:

A

programmed to destroy the same invader at a different date

262
Q

B cells differentiate into

A

memory cells or plasma cells

263
Q

what are the different types of antibodies?

A 
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE
264
Q

IgG:

A

most abundant

265
Q

IgE:

A

involved with allergic reactions

266
Q

what is the secondary response?

A

the later exposure causes memory cells to quickly respond to the invader

267
Q

what is lag time?

A

time between invasion of antigen into body and the appearance of antibodies

268
Q

what are the four types of immunity?

A

active natural
passive natural
active artificial
passive artificial

269
Q

what is the cause of AIDS?

A

HIV

270
Q

HIV is caused by

A

bodily secretions

271
Q

what cells are affected by HIV/AIDS?

A

helper t cells
macrophages
brain cells

272
Q

what enzyme is needed for HIV?

A

reverse transcriptase

273
Q

what is the treatment for HIV/AIDS?

A

AZT and protease inhibitors

274
Q

what is AZT?

A

reverse transcriptase inhibitor

275
Q

what is the larynx?

A

voicebox connecting the vocal cods

276
Q

what is the epiglottis?

A

keeps you from choking by closing the larynx

277
Q

what are vocal cords?

A

true–voice

false–protection

278
Q

what are bronchi?

A 
trachea
primary bronchi
secondary bronchi
tertiary bronchi
bronchioles
terminal bronchioles
279
Q

parietal pleura?

A

outer layer attached to the wall of the thoracic cavity

280
Q

what is the visceral pleura?

A

inner layer covering the lungs

281
Q

what is an asthma attack?

A

smooth muscle contractions that decrease the diameter of the airway

282
Q

type I pneumocytes:

A

cells where actual gas exchange occurs

283
Q

surfactant:

A

prohibits internal lung surfaces from sticking together

284
Q

pulmonary ventilation

A

breathing

285
Q

inspiration:

A

inhalation

286
Q

expiration:

A

exhalation

287
Q

Boyle’s Law

A

pressure of a gas in a closed container is proportionate to the volume of the container

288
Q

external respiration:

A

exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and the alveoli and blood in the capillaries

289
Q

Dalton’s law:

A

each gas in a mixture exerts its own pressure as if the other gases were not present

290
Q

internal respiration:

A

exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the cells

291
Q

what is partial pressure?

A

the pressure of a specific gas in a mixture noted by pO2 and pCO2

292
Q

tidal volume:

A

one breath in and out

293
Q

Most of the carbon monoxide from the cells are transferred as

A

bicarbonate ions

294
Q

apnea

A

absence of breathing

295
Q

emphysema:

A

alveolar walls disintegrate producing large sacs in which air remains even after exhaling

296
Q

what is the upper respiratory tract?

A

above the larynx

297
Q

what is the lower respiratory tract?

A

below the larynx

298
Q

what is the conducting airway?

A

primary bronchi to terminal bronchi

299
Q

what is the respiratory airway?

A

respiratory bronchioles to the alveoli

300
Q

what is the function of septal cells?

A

produce surfactant

301
Q

what is the function of type I pneumocytes?

A

where actual gas exchange occurs

302
Q

what are the gonads?

A

reproductive organs

303
Q

what are gametes?

A

testes and ovaries

304
Q

what is an oocyte?

A

eggs

305
Q

what is a diploid?

A

46 chromosomes

306
Q

haploid:

A

23 chromosomes

307
Q

cremaster muscle:

A

muscle that regulates temperature of the testes

308
Q

cryptorchidism:

A

testes do not descend

309
Q

seminiferous tubule:

A

where sperm develop and mature

310
Q

what is hyperthermia?

A

heat gain exceeds heat loss

311
Q

what is hypothermia?

A

heat loss exceeds heat gains

312
Q

what is metabolism?

A

chemical reactions that gain heat

313
Q

what is basal metabolism?

A

energy that keeps resting body functioning

314
Q

what is radiation?

A

UV light (gain)

315
Q

what is conduction?

A

transfer of heat between objects that are in contact (gain and loss)

316
Q

what is convection?

A

heats the air (gain and loss)

317
Q

what is evaporation?

A

sweat (loss)

318
Q

Most of your energy is used for

A

basal metabolic rate

319
Q

the least amount of energy is used for

A

thermic effect of food

320
Q

what is thermic effect of food?

A

energy needed for digestion

321
Q

what is muscle activity

A

energy used for movement

322
Q

anaerobic respiration:

A

no oxygen
no mitichondia
glycolysis followed by fermentation
2 ATP

323
Q

aerobic respiration

A

oxygen
mitochondria
glycolysis, Krebs, etc
38 ATP

324
Q

what is digestion?

A

breakdown of food molecules into smaller molecules

325
Q

what is an enzyme?

A

increases the rate of chemical reactions

326
Q

mastication:

A

chewing

327
Q

deglutition:

A

swallowing

328
Q

peristalsis:

A

involuntary muscle contractions

329
Q

sphincter:

A

muscle that constricts an opening

330
Q

diabetes mellitus:

A

inability to produce insulin. blood glucose levels rise and none reach the cells

331
Q

hepatic portal vein

A

takes carbs to the liver and then the rest of the body

332
Q

what are the layers of the digestive tract?

A

tunica mucosa
tunica submucosa
tunica muscularis
tunica serosa

333
Q

what composes the tunica mucosa?

A

epithelium
lamina propria
muscularis mucosa

334
Q

what is the total transit time of the GI tract?

A

24-36 hours

335
Q

what is the length of the GI tract?

A

25-28 feet

336
Q

what is the longest organ of the GI tract?>

A

small intestine 21 feet

337
Q

what is the longest transit time of the GI tract?

A

large intestine 18-24 hours

338
Q

what is digested in the mouth?

A

carbs by salivary amylase

339
Q

what is digested in the stomach?

A

proteins

340
Q

what is digested in the small intestine?

A

disaccharides and peptidases

341
Q

what is digested in the large intestine?

A

proteins and some carbs

342
Q

what enzyme is secreted in the mouth?

A

salivary amylase

343
Q

what enzyme is secreted in the small intestine?

A

disaccharidases

344
Q

what does the pancreas secrete?

A

pancreatic amylase

345
Q

what does the large intestine secrete?

A

e coli

346
Q

what are the functions of the liver?

A 
carb metabolism
lipid metabolism
protein metabolism
production of bile
detoxification
storage
protection
synthesis
347
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

juvenile onset, insulin dependent

348
Q

what are the symptoms of diabetes?

A

polyuria
polyphagia
polydipsia

349
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A

adult onset, obesity, noninsuling dependant

350
Q

what cells produce insulin?

A

beta cells

351
Q

bile is stored in the

A

gallbladder

352
Q

bile is produced in the

A

liver

353
Q

who makes bile?

A

hepatocytes

354
Q

cortex

A

the outside region of the kidney

355
Q

medulla:

A

outer layer of the kidney

356
Q

nephron:

A

functional unit of the kidney

357
Q

what is the renal tubule

A

PCT
DCT
Loop of Henle
Collecting Duct

358
Q

glomerulus

A

tuft of capillaries closely associated with bowmans capsule

359
Q

what is ADH?

A

antidiuretic hormone

360
Q

what is the function of ADH

A

decreasing urine output by increasing the permeability of the DCT and CD

361
Q

what stimulates the secretion of ADH?

A

hypotension

362
Q

What is the stimulus to release aldosterone?

A

low blood volume

363
Q

what is the result of aldosterone being released?

A

increase in blood volume

364
Q

what is diabetes insipidus?

A

hyposecretion of ADH

365
Q

What is the result of diabetes insipidus?

A

massive amount of urination leading to dehydration

366
Q

what is the treatment for diabetes insipidis?

A

exogenous ADH

367
Q

what is dialysis?

A

separation of large solutes through a selectively permeable membrane

368
Q

what are the two types of dialysis?

A

hemodialysis

continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis CAPD

369
Q

function of the urinary system

A 
controlling blood volume, pH and concentration
RBC production
forming and eliminating urine
regulating blood pressure
vitamin D synthesis
370
Q

what decides the formation of filtrate?

A

filtration pressure

371
Q

what is the major site of tubular reabsorption

A

PCT

372
Q

where is the site forsecretion

A

PCT DCT

373
Q

what is the effect of ADH?

A

increases permeability of water

374
Q

what is the pathway for aldosterone secretion?

A

renin released
angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1
angiotensin converting enzyme turns angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 which increases aldosterone secretion

375
Q

what is the pathway through the urinary system?

A 
glomerulus
bowmans cpsule
pct
loh
dct
cd
376
Q

seminal vesicles

A

paired glands that secrete alkaline

377
Q

prostate gland:

A

gland that secretes substance that coagulates semen

378
Q

bulbourethral gland

A

secretes alkaline mucus substance that lubricates the penis and prepares for ejaculation of sperm

379
Q

the penis contains

A

2 corpora cavernosa and a corpus sponginosum

380
Q

GnRH

A

gonadotropin releasing hormone

381
Q

function of GnRH

A

stimulate the anterior pituitary gland

382
Q

FSH

A

follicle stimulating hornone

383
Q

function of FSH

A

stimulates spermatogenesis

384
Q

LH

A

leutinizing hormone

385
Q

function of LH?

A

carried to interstitial endocrinocytes and stimulates testosterone secretion

386
Q

primordial follicles

A

females are born with these follicles that mature into primary follicles

387
Q

primary follicles undergo

A

atresia

388
Q

atresia:

A

degeneration

389
Q

some primary follicles become

A

secondary follicles

390
Q

secondary follicles

A

one of these follicles will develop into a graafian follicle

391
Q

graafian follicle

A

ruptures releasing the secondary oocyte

392
Q

ovulation

A

final maturation of the secondary follicle in the fallopian tube

393
Q

corpus luteum

A

ruptured follicle that remains in the ovary

394
Q

corpus luteum secretes

A

estrogen and progesterone

395
Q

corpus albicans

A

corpus luteum becomes scar tissue called albicans

396
Q

endometrium

A

innermost layer of the uterus

397
Q

what are the two layers of the endometrium

A

stratum functionalis

stratum basalis

398
Q

cervix

A

distal portion of the uterus

399
Q

clitoris

A

homologous to the male penis

400
Q

menstruation in the uterus

A

stratum functionalis detaches producing flow

401
Q

menstruation in the ovaries

A

primordial follicles into primary follicles

402
Q

capacitation

A

membrane of sperm and acrosome become fragile

403
Q

acrosomal reaction

A

sperm releases hyaluronidase causing disruption of the corona radiata and zona pellucida

404
Q

fertilization:

A

genetic material of sperm and oocyte merge to form a single nucleus

405
Q

implantation

A

blastocyst attaches to endometrium and secretes enzymes that penetrates the stratum functionalis

406
Q

zygote

A

46 chromosomes

407
Q

morula

A

solid ball of blastomeres surrounded by the zona pellucida

408
Q

blastocyst

A

when a cavity forms in the middle of the morula

409
Q

monozygotic twins

A

one oocyte and one sperm but two areas of the cell develop

410
Q

dizygotic twins

A

mother ovulates two oocytes and both are fertilized

411
Q

embryoblast

A

becomes baby

412
Q

trophoblast becomes

A

placenta

413
Q

endoderm

A

inner layer, most viscera

414
Q

ectoderm

A

outside layer, skin and nervous system

415
Q

mesoderm

A

middle layer. muscle, bone and connective tissue

416
Q

yolk sac

A

early site of blood formation

417
Q

amnion

A

membrane filled with amniotic fluid

418
Q

chorion

A

membrane that becomes part of the placenta

419
Q

placenta

A

responsible for bringing O2 to the baby and taking away CO2

420
Q

gestation

A

time a zygote, embryo or fetus is carried

421
Q

parturition

A

delivery

422
Q

How is temperature maintained in the testes?

A

cremaster muscle pulls the testes up when cold and pulls them down when hot

423
Q

Why is temperature regulation important to the testes

A

survival of sperm needs a temperature lower than core body temp

424
Q

what are the cells responsible for spermatogenesis?

A

spermatogonial cells

425
Q

what cells are responsible for testosterone secretion?

A

interstitial endocrinocytes

426
Q

what are the parts of the spermatozoa?

A

head
midpiece
flagella

427
Q

what is found in the head of a spermatozoa?

A

genetic material and the acrosome that contains enzymes

428
Q

what does the midpiece of the spermatozoa contain?

A

mitochondria

429
Q

How many chromosomes does a spermatozoa contain?

A

23

430
Q

Pathway for spermatozoa:

A 
seminiferous tubules
epididymis
vas deferens
ejaculatory ducts
prostatic urethra
membranous urethra
spongy urethra
431
Q

what are the male accessory glands?

A

seminal vesicles
prostate gland
bulbourethral gland

432
Q

what do seminal vesicles secrete?

A

alkaline

433
Q

what do prostate glands secrete

A

milky-white, slightly alkaline substance that coagulates semen

434
Q

what do bulbourethral glands secrete?

A

alkaline mucus substance that lubricates the tip of the penis and prepares for ejaculation

435
Q

how is an erection accomplished?

A

pudendal nerve
nitrous oxide mixes with guanylate cyclase
GC converts GTP to cGMP
cGMP causes dilation

436
Q

what days are menstruation?

A

1-5

437
Q

what days are preovulation

A

6-13

438
Q

what day is ovulation?

A

14

439
Q

what days are postovulatory?

A

15-28

440
Q

what happens to the uterus during menstruation

A

stratum functionalis detaches

441
Q

what happens to the uterus during preovulatory phase?

A

beginning of new stratum functionalis due to estrogen

442
Q

what happens to the uterus during ovulation

A

s functionalis thickens

443
Q

what happens to the uterus during post ovulatory phase

A

s functionalis continues to develop due to high progesterone

444
Q

what happens to the ovaries during menstruation?

A

primordial into primary and secondary

445
Q

what happens to the ovaries during preovulatory phase?

A

secondary into graafian

446
Q

what happens to the ovaries during ovulation?

A

oocyte expelled into fallopian

447
Q

what happens to the ovaries during postovulatory phase?

A

corpus luteum present

448
Q

what are hormone levels during menstruation?

A

FSH–LOW
LH–LOW
EST–LOW
PROG–LOW

449
Q

WHAT ARE HORMONE LEVELS DURING PREOVULATROY PHASE

A

FSH–INCREASING
LH–LOW
EST–INCREASING
PROG–LOW

450
Q

WHAT ARE HORMONE LEVELS DURING OVULATION

A

FSH–PEAKS
LH–PEAKS
EST–PEAKS
PROG–LOW

451
Q

WHAT ARE HORMONE LEVELS DURING POSTOVULATORY PHASE

A

FSH–LOW
LH–LOW
EST–DECREASING
PROG–INCREASING

452
Q

what type of method is abstinence?

A

behavioral

453
Q

what type of method is borth control pills?

A

hormonal. prevents ovulation

454
Q

what type of method is implant

A

behavioral–prevents fertilization

455
Q

what type of method is IUD

A

mechanical–prevents fertilization

456
Q

what type of method is diaphragm?

A

mechanical–prevents fertilization

457
Q

what type of method is spermicide

A

mechanical–prevents fertilization

458
Q

what type of method is rhythm

A

behavioral–prevents fertilization

459
Q

what type of method is temperature

A

behavioral–prevents fertilization

460
Q

what type of method is mucus?

A

behavioral–prevents fertilization

461
Q

what type of method is depoprovera

A

hormonal–prevents ovulation

462
Q

what type of method is nuvo-ring?

A

hormonal–prevents ovulation

463
Q

what type of method is tubal ligation

A

behavioral–prevents fertilization

464
Q

what type of method is condom

A

mechanical–prevents fertilization

465
Q

what type of method is coitus interruptus

A

behavioral–prevents fertilization

466
Q

what type of method is vasectomy?

A

mechanical–prevents fertilization

467
Q

where does fertilization occur?

A

fallopian tube

468
Q

when does fertilization occur?

A

12-24 hours after ovulation

469
Q

where does implantation occur?

A

uterus

470
Q

when does implantation occur?

A

6-7 days after fertilization

471
Q

what is the pathway for fetal production

A 
pronuclei
zygote
2 cell
morula
blastocyst
472
Q

what stage of fetal production enters the uterus

A

blastocyst on day 20

473
Q

what layer does the yolk sac come from?

A

endoderm

474
Q

what germ layer does the amnion come from

A

ectoderm

475
Q

what germ layer does the chorion come from

A

endoderm

476
Q

what germ layer does the atlantis come from

A

endoderm

477
Q

hCG

A

human chorionic gonadotropin

478
Q

what is the function for human chorionic gonadotropin

A

stimulus for more progesterone by corpus luteum

479
Q

why is hCG important

A

becomes measurable on pregnancy test on day 22

480
Q

how long is gestation

A

266 days from ovulation

481
Q

how long is gestation if ovulation is not known?

A

280 days from last period

482
Q

what are the three stages of parturition

A

stage of dilation
stage of expulsion
placental stage

483
Q

what happens during the stae of dilation

A

uterine contractions

rupture of the amniotic sac

484
Q

what happens during the stage expulsion

A

baby is dellivered

485
Q

what happens at the placental stage

A

placenta is passed

486
Q

how long is the stage of dilation

A

hours

487
Q

how long is the stage of expulsion

A

minutes

488
Q

how long is the placental stage

A

minutes

489
Q

what hormone begins parturition

A

ACTH

490
Q

who is responsible for parturition

A

baby

A&P2 (12 decks)

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