FINAL!!!!!!!!! Flashcards
1
Q
What is genetics?
A
study of the passage of traits from one generation to the next
2
Q
what are genes?
A
structure of the DNA which holds the information for genetic traits
3
Q
Where are chromosomes found?
A
nuclei of cells
4
Q
Nuclei of somatic cells contain
A
46 chromosomes in humans
5
Q
When is the amount of chromosomes determined?
A
fertilization
6
Q
The 46 chromosomes are arranged in
A
homologous pairs
7
Q
What are autosomal chromosomes?
A
chromosomal pairs 1-22
8
Q
Chromosome pair 23 is
A
the sex chromosomes
9
Q
what are sex chromosomes?
A
chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual
10
Q
In humans, the mother will donate
A
the X chromosome
11
Q
In humans, the father will donate
A
an X or Y chromosome
12
Q
What determines the sex of an offspring?
A
the sperm
13
Q
XX=
A
female
14
Q
XY=
A
male
15
Q
Since X and Y are not homologous,
A
there will be different information on these two chromosomes
16
Q
The Y chromosome gives the information for
A
maleness
17
Q
Male and female embryos develop identically until
A
7 weeks after fertilization
18
Q
What happens at 7 weeks of fertilization?
A
the Y gene will become male. If there is no Y gene a female is the result
19
Q
what is the SRY gene?
A
sex determining region of the Y chromosome
20
Q
How does the SRY function?
A
it inserts into a genetically female fetus and develops it into a male
21
Q
When fertilization occurs, the genes inherited from the father
A
and combined with the genes inherited from the mother
22
Q
What are alleles?
A
variations of a gene
23
Q
An example of an allele is
A
hair color
24
Q
Where is the gene for hair color found>
A
one of the autosomes
25
If the mother and father contribute the same alleles (both have brown hair)
the person is said to be homozygous
26
If the alleles are different they are said to be
heterozygous
27
Dominant alleles control
a particular trait
28
In order for a recessive trait to be expressed,
the individual needs to have a double dose. I.E. homozygous
29
what is a genotype?
genetic makeup of an organism
30
the trait expressed is called the
phenotype
31
Type A and B blood are
codominant
32
Type O blood is
recessive
33
In order for a person to have type O blood,
both parents must be type O
34
Most genetic disorders are due to
the presence of the recessive gene
35
In order for a genetic disorder to occur,
the individual must be homozygous recessive
36
What happens to a heterozygous recessive individual?
they are not affected but can pass the gene off onto their offspring
37
what are carriers?
heterozygous recessive
38
what is the most common lethal genetic disease?
cystic fibrosis
39
what is PKU?
phenylketonuria
40
what is phenylketonuria?
recessive disease where the individual lacks the enzyme that breaks down phenylalanine (an amino acid)
41
what does phenylketonuria cause?
brain damage and mental retardation due to the build up of phenylalanine
42
In most states, there is
mandatory testing of newborns for PKU
43
In a dominant genetic disorder,
both homozygous and heterozygous are affected
44
what is huntingtons disease?
degenerative disease of the nervous system
45
huntingtons disease has no
phenotypic expression until 35-45 years of age
46
what is a punnett square?
process to determine what % of children will be affected by genetic disorders
47
What is DNA?
a sequence of nucleotides strung together
48
DNA is broken down into
chromosomes
49
chromosomes are broken down into
individual genes
50
Each gene is coded for
one trait
51
A human has about how many genes?
35,000
52
how many genes are on each chromosome?
750
53
If you are a female you will have
23 paired chromosome
54
If you are a male, you will have
22 paired chromosomes and one pair that doesn't match
55
Y chromosomes have genes for
sex characteristics only
56
X chromosomes have genes dfor
characteristics and other traits
57
what is a genotype?
listing of the alleles present
58
what is a phenotype?
what is visually seen.
59
What does cystic fibrosis lead to?
increased thickness of mucus
60
If N is no cystic fibrosis and n is cystic fibrosis:
Nn=carrier
NN=normal
nn=cystic fibrosis
61
It is important in cell division that
chromosomal pairs divide equally
62
What is nondisjunction?
unequal distribution of chromosomes in the gametes and problems in the offspring
63
what is down's syndrome?
occurs during meiosis and results in an individual with 47 chromosomes instead of 46
64
What is the extra chromosome in down's syndrome called?
tripsomy 21 because it is found in the chromosomal pair 21
65
What does down's syndrome cause?
mental retardation and some physical problems
66
what makes down's syndrome more common?
A mother high in age
67
What is Turner's syndrome?
XO. Female because there is no SRY gene. Nonreproductive
68
what is meta female syndrome?
XXX. True female. Overproduction of estrogen causes health concerns
69
what is klinefelter's syndrome?
XXY. Male but will have female characteristics.
70
klinefelters syndrome will result in
breasts, poor beard growth, wide hips and reduced fertility
71
what is Jacob's syndrome?
XYY. nondisjunction. Overproduction of testosterone causes health concerns
72
What is YO?
will not survive because there is no X chromosome
73
There are some traits that will be passed on to males but rarely to females, in these cases
the mother is the carrier
74
what are some problems due to the X chromosome?
color blindness
| hemophilia
75
Only on the X chromosome will there be information for
the development of cones of the eyes
76
what are the cones of the eyes?
color receptors
77
the ability to see color is dependant on
the X chromosome
78
Colorblindness is
recessive
79
In a female, one X may have the gene for colorblindness but
it will usually be masked by a normal gene on the other X chromosome.
80
In a male, if the X mom carries the gene for colorblindness,
the Y from dad will not mask it.
81
What is hemophilia?
a sex-linked condition that results in the inability of the blood to clot
82
In hemophilia, the X chromosome
contains coding for some essential clotting factors
83
Hemophilia is rarer in
females
84
What is hemopoiesis?
the process by which blood cells are formed
85
what is a hemocytoblasts?
the stem cell that gives rise to RBCs, WBCs and platelets
86
what is hemoglobin?
4 polypeptide chains with a HEME structure
87
what is erythropoiesis?
the process of RBC production
88
what is a reticulocyte?
cell that will mature into a erythrocyte that has a biconcave shape
89
what is hypoxia?
lack of adequate oxygen in the tissues
90
what is anemia?
condition of reduced oxygen-carrying ability in the blood
91
what causes anemia?
reduced levels of hemoglobin
92
what is polycethemia?
abnormal increase of RBCs that causes the blood to become thicker and less oxygen getting to the tissues
93
what is a granulocyte?
cells that have 1 lobed nucleus and granules in the cytoplasm
94
what are some examples of granulocytes?
neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
95
what is an agranulocyte?
cells with no granules in the cytoplasm
96
what are some examples of agranulocytes?
lymphocytes and monocytes
97
what is chemotaxis?
attraction of phagocytes to microbes by chemical stimulus
98
what is diapedisis?
process by which WBCs leave the blood
99
what is a thrombocyte?
platelet
100
what is a megakaryote?
forms after a hemocytoblasts and will become a thrombocyte
101
what is hemostasis?
stoppage of bleeding
102
what is coagulation?
when a clot is formed in the injured area
103
what is fibrinolysis?
removes the unneeded clot when healing occurs
104
what is t-pa?
substance that converts plasminogen into plasmin
105
what is the function of tpa?
removal of the clot
106
what is plasminogen?
an inactive blood protein
107
what is a thrombus?
a clot
108
what is an embolus?
a clot that flows freely in the blood
109
what is an antigen?
glycolipids on the surface of RBCs that are genetically determined
110
what are antibodies?
substance found in the plasma that reacts with the antigens of other blood types
111
what is hemolytic disease of the newborn?
when the mother is RH- and the fetus is Rh +
112
what are the main components of whole blood?
plasma and formed elements
113
what are formed elements?
RBC, WBC and platelet
114
Most of whole blood is
plasma
115
Most of the formed elements are
RBCs
116
the absence of a nucleus in a erythrocyte causes
more room for hemoglobin
117
the biconcave shape of an RBC will result in
increased surface area for gas diffusion and gives the cells flexibility to fit through small vessels/
118
What is the process of erythropoiesis?
hemocytoblasts
reticulocyte
erythrocyte
119
hemocytoblasts have
a nucleus
120
reticulocytes and erythrocytes have
no nuclei
121
How long does erythropoiesis take?
1-2 days
122
what is hemorrhagic anemia?
blood loss leading to a decreases number of RBCs
123
what is hemolytic anemia?
RBCs rupture prematurely
124
what is aplastic anemia?
pathology of the red bone marrow
125
what is dietary anemia?
not enough iron in the blood to carry oxygen
126
what is pernicious anemia?
lack of intrinsic factor
127
what is sickle cell anemia?
RBC loses its round shape and sickles
128
what is the function of a neutrophil?
phagocytosis
129
what is the function of a eosinophil?
parasitic worms
130
what is the function of a basophil?
heparin and histamines
131
what is the function of a lymphocyte?
antibody production
132
what is the function of a monocyte?
phagocytosis
133
what are the three phases to hemostasis?
vascular spasms
platelet plug formation
coagulation
134
how long does it take for vascular spasms to occur?
immediately
135
how long does platelet plug formation take?
1-2 minutes
136
what are the three phases to platelet plug formation?
platelet adhesion
platelet activation
platelet aggregation
137
what is the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?
```
factor 12
calcium
factor ten (common pathway)
prothrombinase turns prothrombin into thrombin
thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibren
```
138
what is the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
```
factor three
calcium
factor ten (common pathway)
prothrombinase turns prothrombin into throbin
thrombin turns fibrinogen into fibren
```
139
what is the effect of aspirin on coagulation?
antiprostaglandin prevents prostaglandin from being released. Plug is not formed completely
140
what is Coumadin?
anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of a clot
141
what is nitroglycerin?
vasodilator given during a myocardial infarction
142
Type A blood:
has A antigens and B antibodies
143
Type B blood has
B antigens and A antibodies
144
Type AB blood has
A and B antigens and no antibodies
145
Ty[e O blood has
no antigens and A and B antibodies
146
who is the universal donor?
type o
147
who is the universal recipient?
AB
148
What is the treatment for hemolytic disease of the newborn?
rhogam injections
149
what is the pericardium?
outer sac that covers the heart
150
what is the chordae tendinae?
connects the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscles
151
what is a myocardial infarction?
heart attack
152
what is the pacemaker?
the SA node that sets up the impulse.
153
what is a heart murmur?
sound heard before the lubb-dupp that masks the normal heart sounds
154
what causes a heart murmur?
a valve not closing completely
155
what is systole?
phase of contraction
156
what is diastole?
phase of relaxation
157
what is cardiac output?
amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute
158
what is stroke volume?
amount of blood ejected from the left ventiricle per beat
159
what is starlings law?
an increased preload due to exercise leads to an increase in cardiac output by causing an increase in stroke volume
160
what are beta blockers?
medication given to decrease the heart rate
161
what composes the pericardial sac?
fibrous pericardium
| serous pericardium
162
what is the fibrous pericardium?
outer layer that surrounds the heart
163
what is the serous pericardium
thinner membrane with 2 layers
164
what are the two layers of the pericardium?
parietal and visceral pleura with a pericardial space
165
what is the epicardium?
external layer of the heart
166
what is the myocardium?
cardiac muscle layer of the heart. largest layer
167
what is the endocardium?
thin layer of endothelium lining the heart continuous with the endothelial lining of the vessels
168
what are the four chambers of the heart?
right and left atrium
| right and left ventricles
169
what are the four valves of the heart?
aortic semilunar valve
pulmonary semilunar vavle
tricuspid
bicuspid
170
where does the impulse start in the heart
SA node
171
what is the p wave of an EKG represent?
spread of impulse from the SA node throughout the atria leading to contraction of the atria
172
what does the t wave represent?
ventricular repolarization
173
what is the PQ interval?
beginning of atrial excitation to the beginning of ventricular excitation
174
what is the QT interval?
start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave
175
when are the cuspid valves open?
atrial systole
176
when are the cuspid valves closed?
ventricular systole
177
When are the semilunar valves open?
ventricular systole
178
How do you change the cardiac output?
change the stroke volume or heart rate
179
How does the sympathetic nervous system affect the cardiac output?
releases noephrinepine which increases the heart rate.
180
How does the parasympathetic nervous system affect the nervous system?
releases acetycholine which slows down the heart rate
181
what is an artery?
carries blood away from the heart (usually oxygenated)
182
what is an arteriole?
connects arteries with capillaries
183
what is a capillary?
site of material moving in and out of the circulatory system
184
what is a venule?
connects capillaries with the veins
185
what is a vein?
carries blood towards the heart
186
what is bulk flow?
large amounts of ions, proteins, other nutrients and water
187
what is an edema?
abnormal increase in interstitial fluid
188
What is hypotension?
low blood pressure
189
what is hypertension?
high blood pressure
190
what is an aneurysm?
localized dilation of an artery normally found in the brain or aorta
191
what is altherosclerosis?
fatty deposits forming in the vessel wall and sometimes bulging into the lumen
192
what is the result of altheroscelerosis?
blood clots
193
what is arteriosclerosis?
end product of altherosclerosis. vessels lose their elasticity
194
what is shock?
inadequate perfusion of tissues
195
what are the layers of arteries and veins?
tunica interna
tunica media
tunica externa
196
what is the thickest layer of the arteries?
tunica media
197
what layer is the thickest in veins?
tunica externa
198
Explain bulk flow
hydrostatic pressure pushes nutrients into the arteriole side. Oncotic pressure pushes wastes into the venule side
199
what are the causes of edema?
heart problems
fluid retention
increased capillary permeability
200
How does bulk flow cause edema?
when filtration and reabsorption of interstitial fluid is interrupted
201
where can a pulse be detected on the wrist?>
radial artery
202
where can a pulse be detected on the neck?
carotid artery
203
where can a pulse be detected in the groin?
femoral artery
204
where can a pulse be detected in the foot?
dorsal pedal artery
205
where can you detect a pulse on the elbow?
brachial artery
206
what are the three branches that come off the aortic arch?
brachiocephalic
left common carotid
left subclavian
207
where are blood samples taken from?
median cubital vein
208
how does fetal circulation differ from adult?
there are no lungs and the fetus obtains its oxygen from diffusion
209
At birth, what happens to the ductus venosus?
becomes ligamentum venosum
210
At birth, what happens to the ductus arteriosus?
becomes ligamentum arteriosum
211
At birth, what happens to the foramen ovale?
becomes fossa ovalis
212
at birth, what happens to the umbilical vein?
becomes round ligament
213
what happens to the umbilical arteries at birth?
becomes cords of umbilical arteries
214
what is hemhorragic shock?
hypovolemia. external or internal bleeding
215
what is plasma loss shock?
hypovolemia. loss of plasma to the interstitial spaces
216
what is dehydration shock?
hypovolemia due to extreme urination
217
what is anesthesia shock?
vasodilation. decreased activity of the medulla
218
what is anaphylactic shock?
vasodilation. allergic reaction
219
what is septic shock?
vasodilation. infection of the blood
220
what is neurogenic shock?
vasodilation. head injuries
221
what is the thoracic duct?
drains lymph from everywhere except the right arm, neck and head
222
what is lymph?
interstitial fluid and proteins in the lymphactic capillaries
223
what is the lymph node?
germination centers that filter lymph
224
what is the thymus?
secretes hormones and matures t cells
225
what is the spleen?
removes old rbcs and serves as a blood reservoir
226
tonsils:
MALT
227
MALT:
mucosa associated lymphatic tissue
228
what is hodkins disease?
cancer of the lymph nodes
229
what is innate immunity?
nonspecific defense
230
what is adaptive immunity?
specific immunity
231
what is interferon?
substance produced by cells that is toxic to viruses
232
what is complement?
major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body
233
what is opsonization?
improving or enhancing phagocytes
234
what are pyrogens?
pyrogens stimulate prostaglandins which increase the thermostat resulting in a fever
235
what is an epitope?
specific regions of antigens recognized by specific b and t cells
236
what are major histocompatibility complexes?
lymphocyte recognition that starts cell division
237
what are antigen presenting cells?
macrophages that disply a portion of the antigen on its surface
238
what is interleukin 2?
cytokine needed for all adaptive immunity responses
239
what is an autoimmune disease?
immune system fails to recognize self and launches an attack against its own tissues
240
what is an allergy?
over reaction to an antigen that is tolerated by most others
241
what is anaphylaxis?
severe reaction resulting in mass vasodilation
242
what is an opportunistic infection?
AIDS HIV
243
what are the three components of the lymphatic system?
cells
lymphatic vessels
lymphoid tissues and organs
244
what are lymphatic cells?>
lymphocytes
monocytes
neutrophils
245
what is the route of lymph?
```
lymphatic capillaries
afferent lymphatic vessels
lymph nodes
efferent lymphatic vessels
lymphatic trunks
lymphatic ducts
```
246
where does lymph rejoin the blood?
lymphatic ducts
247
what is the function of the spleen?
remove old and dying RBCs
248
how does innate immunity differ from adaptive immunity?
innate immunity protects the body from all invaders where the adaptive is specific
249
what does interferon protect?
neighboring cells
250
what does membrane attack complex do?
punches holes in cell walls
251
what is the function of natural killer cells?
to police the body for invaders
252
what do natural killer cells secrete?
perforins
253
How do natural killer cells function?
they attach themselves to the invader and destroy their membranes
254
what are the four signs of inflammation?
heat
redness
swelling
pain
255
how does inflammation protect the body?
prevents the spread
disposes debris and pathogens
sets stage for repair
256
why is there redness and heat?
dilation of blood vessels
257
what causes the swelling?
more fluid escaping the vessels
258
what causes the pain?
edema putting pressure on nerves
259
what are helper t cells?
produce cytokines specifically interleukin 2
260
what are cytotoxic t cells?
directly destroy the invader
261
memory t cells:
programmed to destroy the same invader at a different date
262
B cells differentiate into
memory cells or plasma cells
263
what are the different types of antibodies?
```
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE
```
264
IgG:
most abundant
265
IgE:
involved with allergic reactions
266
what is the secondary response?
the later exposure causes memory cells to quickly respond to the invader
267
what is lag time?
time between invasion of antigen into body and the appearance of antibodies
268
what are the four types of immunity?
active natural
passive natural
active artificial
passive artificial
269
what is the cause of AIDS?
HIV
270
HIV is caused by
bodily secretions
271
what cells are affected by HIV/AIDS?
helper t cells
macrophages
brain cells
272
what enzyme is needed for HIV?
reverse transcriptase
273
what is the treatment for HIV/AIDS?
AZT and protease inhibitors
274
what is AZT?
reverse transcriptase inhibitor
275
what is the larynx?
voicebox connecting the vocal cods
276
what is the epiglottis?
keeps you from choking by closing the larynx
277
what are vocal cords?
true--voice
| false--protection
278
what are bronchi?
```
trachea
primary bronchi
secondary bronchi
tertiary bronchi
bronchioles
terminal bronchioles
```
279
parietal pleura?
outer layer attached to the wall of the thoracic cavity
280
what is the visceral pleura?
inner layer covering the lungs
281
what is an asthma attack?
smooth muscle contractions that decrease the diameter of the airway
282
type I pneumocytes:
cells where actual gas exchange occurs
283
surfactant:
prohibits internal lung surfaces from sticking together
284
pulmonary ventilation
breathing
285
inspiration:
inhalation
286
expiration:
exhalation
287
Boyle's Law
pressure of a gas in a closed container is proportionate to the volume of the container
288
external respiration:
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and the alveoli and blood in the capillaries
289
Dalton's law:
each gas in a mixture exerts its own pressure as if the other gases were not present
290
internal respiration:
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the cells
291
what is partial pressure?
the pressure of a specific gas in a mixture noted by pO2 and pCO2
292
tidal volume:
one breath in and out
293
Most of the carbon monoxide from the cells are transferred as
bicarbonate ions
294
apnea
absence of breathing
295
emphysema:
alveolar walls disintegrate producing large sacs in which air remains even after exhaling
296
what is the upper respiratory tract?
above the larynx
297
what is the lower respiratory tract?
below the larynx
298
what is the conducting airway?
primary bronchi to terminal bronchi
299
what is the respiratory airway?
respiratory bronchioles to the alveoli
300
what is the function of septal cells?
produce surfactant
301
what is the function of type I pneumocytes?
where actual gas exchange occurs
302
what are the gonads?
reproductive organs
303
what are gametes?
testes and ovaries
304
what is an oocyte?
eggs
305
what is a diploid?
46 chromosomes
306
haploid:
23 chromosomes
307
cremaster muscle:
muscle that regulates temperature of the testes
308
cryptorchidism:
testes do not descend
309
seminiferous tubule:
where sperm develop and mature
310
what is hyperthermia?
heat gain exceeds heat loss
311
what is hypothermia?
heat loss exceeds heat gains
312
what is metabolism?
chemical reactions that gain heat
313
what is basal metabolism?
energy that keeps resting body functioning
314
what is radiation?
UV light (gain)
315
what is conduction?
transfer of heat between objects that are in contact (gain and loss)
316
what is convection?
heats the air (gain and loss)
317
what is evaporation?
sweat (loss)
318
Most of your energy is used for
basal metabolic rate
319
the least amount of energy is used for
thermic effect of food
320
what is thermic effect of food?
energy needed for digestion
321
what is muscle activity
energy used for movement
322
anaerobic respiration:
no oxygen
no mitichondia
glycolysis followed by fermentation
2 ATP
323
aerobic respiration
oxygen
mitochondria
glycolysis, Krebs, etc
38 ATP
324
what is digestion?
breakdown of food molecules into smaller molecules
325
what is an enzyme?
increases the rate of chemical reactions
326
mastication:
chewing
327
deglutition:
swallowing
328
peristalsis:
involuntary muscle contractions
329
sphincter:
muscle that constricts an opening
330
diabetes mellitus:
inability to produce insulin. blood glucose levels rise and none reach the cells
331
hepatic portal vein
takes carbs to the liver and then the rest of the body
332
what are the layers of the digestive tract?
tunica mucosa
tunica submucosa
tunica muscularis
tunica serosa
333
what composes the tunica mucosa?
epithelium
lamina propria
muscularis mucosa
334
what is the total transit time of the GI tract?
24-36 hours
335
what is the length of the GI tract?
25-28 feet
336
what is the longest organ of the GI tract?>
small intestine 21 feet
337
what is the longest transit time of the GI tract?
large intestine 18-24 hours
338
what is digested in the mouth?
carbs by salivary amylase
339
what is digested in the stomach?
proteins
340
what is digested in the small intestine?
disaccharides and peptidases
341
what is digested in the large intestine?
proteins and some carbs
342
what enzyme is secreted in the mouth?
salivary amylase
343
what enzyme is secreted in the small intestine?
disaccharidases
344
what does the pancreas secrete?
pancreatic amylase
345
what does the large intestine secrete?
e coli
346
what are the functions of the liver?
```
carb metabolism
lipid metabolism
protein metabolism
production of bile
detoxification
storage
protection
synthesis
```
347
what is type 1 diabetes?
juvenile onset, insulin dependent
348
what are the symptoms of diabetes?
polyuria
polyphagia
polydipsia
349
what is type 2 diabetes?
adult onset, obesity, noninsuling dependant
350
what cells produce insulin?
beta cells
351
bile is stored in the
gallbladder
352
bile is produced in the
liver
353
who makes bile?
hepatocytes
354
cortex
the outside region of the kidney
355
medulla:
outer layer of the kidney
356
nephron:
functional unit of the kidney
357
what is the renal tubule
PCT
DCT
Loop of Henle
Collecting Duct
358
glomerulus
tuft of capillaries closely associated with bowmans capsule
359
what is ADH?
antidiuretic hormone
360
what is the function of ADH
decreasing urine output by increasing the permeability of the DCT and CD
361
what stimulates the secretion of ADH?
hypotension
362
What is the stimulus to release aldosterone?
low blood volume
363
what is the result of aldosterone being released?
increase in blood volume
364
what is diabetes insipidus?
hyposecretion of ADH
365
What is the result of diabetes insipidus?
massive amount of urination leading to dehydration
366
what is the treatment for diabetes insipidis?
exogenous ADH
367
what is dialysis?
separation of large solutes through a selectively permeable membrane
368
what are the two types of dialysis?
hemodialysis
| continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis CAPD
369
function of the urinary system
```
controlling blood volume, pH and concentration
RBC production
forming and eliminating urine
regulating blood pressure
vitamin D synthesis
```
370
what decides the formation of filtrate?
filtration pressure
371
what is the major site of tubular reabsorption
PCT
372
where is the site forsecretion
PCT DCT
373
what is the effect of ADH?
increases permeability of water
374
what is the pathway for aldosterone secretion?
renin released
angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1
angiotensin converting enzyme turns angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 which increases aldosterone secretion
375
what is the pathway through the urinary system?
```
glomerulus
bowmans cpsule
pct
loh
dct
cd
```
376
seminal vesicles
paired glands that secrete alkaline
377
prostate gland:
gland that secretes substance that coagulates semen
378
bulbourethral gland
secretes alkaline mucus substance that lubricates the penis and prepares for ejaculation of sperm
379
the penis contains
2 corpora cavernosa and a corpus sponginosum
380
GnRH
gonadotropin releasing hormone
381
function of GnRH
stimulate the anterior pituitary gland
382
FSH
follicle stimulating hornone
383
function of FSH
stimulates spermatogenesis
384
LH
leutinizing hormone
385
function of LH?
carried to interstitial endocrinocytes and stimulates testosterone secretion
386
primordial follicles
females are born with these follicles that mature into primary follicles
387
primary follicles undergo
atresia
388
atresia:
degeneration
389
some primary follicles become
secondary follicles
390
secondary follicles
one of these follicles will develop into a graafian follicle
391
graafian follicle
ruptures releasing the secondary oocyte
392
ovulation
final maturation of the secondary follicle in the fallopian tube
393
corpus luteum
ruptured follicle that remains in the ovary
394
corpus luteum secretes
estrogen and progesterone
395
corpus albicans
corpus luteum becomes scar tissue called albicans
396
endometrium
innermost layer of the uterus
397
what are the two layers of the endometrium
stratum functionalis
| stratum basalis
398
cervix
distal portion of the uterus
399
clitoris
homologous to the male penis
400
menstruation in the uterus
stratum functionalis detaches producing flow
401
menstruation in the ovaries
primordial follicles into primary follicles
402
capacitation
membrane of sperm and acrosome become fragile
403
acrosomal reaction
sperm releases hyaluronidase causing disruption of the corona radiata and zona pellucida
404
fertilization:
genetic material of sperm and oocyte merge to form a single nucleus
405
implantation
blastocyst attaches to endometrium and secretes enzymes that penetrates the stratum functionalis
406
zygote
46 chromosomes
407
morula
solid ball of blastomeres surrounded by the zona pellucida
408
blastocyst
when a cavity forms in the middle of the morula
409
monozygotic twins
one oocyte and one sperm but two areas of the cell develop
410
dizygotic twins
mother ovulates two oocytes and both are fertilized
411
embryoblast
becomes baby
412
trophoblast becomes
placenta
413
endoderm
inner layer, most viscera
414
ectoderm
outside layer, skin and nervous system
415
mesoderm
middle layer. muscle, bone and connective tissue
416
yolk sac
early site of blood formation
417
amnion
membrane filled with amniotic fluid
418
chorion
membrane that becomes part of the placenta
419
placenta
responsible for bringing O2 to the baby and taking away CO2
420
gestation
time a zygote, embryo or fetus is carried
421
parturition
delivery
422
How is temperature maintained in the testes?
cremaster muscle pulls the testes up when cold and pulls them down when hot
423
Why is temperature regulation important to the testes
survival of sperm needs a temperature lower than core body temp
424
what are the cells responsible for spermatogenesis?
spermatogonial cells
425
what cells are responsible for testosterone secretion?
interstitial endocrinocytes
426
what are the parts of the spermatozoa?
head
midpiece
flagella
427
what is found in the head of a spermatozoa?
genetic material and the acrosome that contains enzymes
428
what does the midpiece of the spermatozoa contain?
mitochondria
429
How many chromosomes does a spermatozoa contain?
23
430
Pathway for spermatozoa:
```
seminiferous tubules
epididymis
vas deferens
ejaculatory ducts
prostatic urethra
membranous urethra
spongy urethra
```
431
what are the male accessory glands?
seminal vesicles
prostate gland
bulbourethral gland
432
what do seminal vesicles secrete?
alkaline
433
what do prostate glands secrete
milky-white, slightly alkaline substance that coagulates semen
434
what do bulbourethral glands secrete?
alkaline mucus substance that lubricates the tip of the penis and prepares for ejaculation
435
how is an erection accomplished?
pudendal nerve
nitrous oxide mixes with guanylate cyclase
GC converts GTP to cGMP
cGMP causes dilation
436
what days are menstruation?
1-5
437
what days are preovulation
6-13
438
what day is ovulation?
14
439
what days are postovulatory?
15-28
440
what happens to the uterus during menstruation
stratum functionalis detaches
441
what happens to the uterus during preovulatory phase?
beginning of new stratum functionalis due to estrogen
442
what happens to the uterus during ovulation
s functionalis thickens
443
what happens to the uterus during post ovulatory phase
s functionalis continues to develop due to high progesterone
444
what happens to the ovaries during menstruation?
primordial into primary and secondary
445
what happens to the ovaries during preovulatory phase?
secondary into graafian
446
what happens to the ovaries during ovulation?
oocyte expelled into fallopian
447
what happens to the ovaries during postovulatory phase?
corpus luteum present
448
what are hormone levels during menstruation?
FSH--LOW
LH--LOW
EST--LOW
PROG--LOW
449
WHAT ARE HORMONE LEVELS DURING PREOVULATROY PHASE
FSH--INCREASING
LH--LOW
EST--INCREASING
PROG--LOW
450
WHAT ARE HORMONE LEVELS DURING OVULATION
FSH--PEAKS
LH--PEAKS
EST--PEAKS
PROG--LOW
451
WHAT ARE HORMONE LEVELS DURING POSTOVULATORY PHASE
FSH--LOW
LH--LOW
EST--DECREASING
PROG--INCREASING
452
what type of method is abstinence?
behavioral
453
what type of method is borth control pills?
hormonal. prevents ovulation
454
what type of method is implant
behavioral--prevents fertilization
455
what type of method is IUD
mechanical--prevents fertilization
456
what type of method is diaphragm?
mechanical--prevents fertilization
457
what type of method is spermicide
mechanical--prevents fertilization
458
what type of method is rhythm
behavioral--prevents fertilization
459
what type of method is temperature
behavioral--prevents fertilization
460
what type of method is mucus?
behavioral--prevents fertilization
461
what type of method is depoprovera
hormonal--prevents ovulation
462
what type of method is nuvo-ring?
hormonal--prevents ovulation
463
what type of method is tubal ligation
behavioral--prevents fertilization
464
what type of method is condom
mechanical--prevents fertilization
465
what type of method is coitus interruptus
behavioral--prevents fertilization
466
what type of method is vasectomy?
mechanical--prevents fertilization
467
where does fertilization occur?
fallopian tube
468
when does fertilization occur?
12-24 hours after ovulation
469
where does implantation occur?
uterus
470
when does implantation occur?
6-7 days after fertilization
471
what is the pathway for fetal production
```
pronuclei
zygote
2 cell
morula
blastocyst
```
472
what stage of fetal production enters the uterus
blastocyst on day 20
473
what layer does the yolk sac come from?
endoderm
474
what germ layer does the amnion come from
ectoderm
475
what germ layer does the chorion come from
endoderm
476
what germ layer does the atlantis come from
endoderm
477
hCG
human chorionic gonadotropin
478
what is the function for human chorionic gonadotropin
stimulus for more progesterone by corpus luteum
479
why is hCG important
becomes measurable on pregnancy test on day 22
480
how long is gestation
266 days from ovulation
481
how long is gestation if ovulation is not known?
280 days from last period
482
what are the three stages of parturition
stage of dilation
stage of expulsion
placental stage
483
what happens during the stae of dilation
uterine contractions
| rupture of the amniotic sac
484
what happens during the stage expulsion
baby is dellivered
485
what happens at the placental stage
placenta is passed
486
how long is the stage of dilation
hours
487
how long is the stage of expulsion
minutes
488
how long is the placental stage
minutes
489
what hormone begins parturition
ACTH
490
who is responsible for parturition
baby
