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Anatomy & Physiology 151 > Lecture Final - Comprehensive > Flashcards

Lecture Final - Comprehensive Flashcards

1
Q

6 Levels of organization of an organism: [know the order]

  1. Chemical
  3. Tissue
  5. Organ systems
  6. Organism
A
  • Cellular

- Organ

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2
Q

6 Levels of organization of an organism: [know the order]

  1. Chemical
  2. Cellular
  4. Organ
  5. Organ systems
    6.
A
  • Tissue

- Organism

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3
Q

6 Levels of organization of an organism: [know the order]

  2. Cellular
  3. Tissue
  4. Organ
  6. Organism
A
  • Chemical

- Organ systems

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4
Q

__________ – ability of the body to detect and respond to changes in the environment (stimuli; stimulus is singular)

A

Responsiveness (irritability or excitability)

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5
Q

__________ – sum of all chemical processes in the body

A

Metabolism

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6
Q

__________ – breaking something down from complex to simple

A

Catabolism

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7
Q

__________ – breakdown of proteins into amino acids

A

Catabolism

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8
Q

__________ – building up from simple to complex

A

Anabolism

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9
Q

__________ – Joining of amino acids to form proteins

A

Anabolism

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10
Q

__________ – defined as the existence and maintenance of a stable internal environment in an ever-changing external environment

A

Homeostasis

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11
Q

Homeostasis – defined as the existence and maintenance of a stable internal __________ in an ever-changing __________ environment

A
  • environment

- external

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12
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

__________ – outside wall of the cell

A

Cell membrane

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13
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. __________ cell’s internal environment from the __________ environment
b. Regulates flow of materials in and out of the cell
c. Maintains appropriate internal environment
d. Plays important role in communication both with other cells and with the external environment

A
  • Separates

- external

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14
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. Separates cell’s internal environment from the external environment
b. __________ flow of __________ in and out of the cell
c. Maintains appropriate internal environment
d. Plays important role in communication both with other cells and with the external environment

A
  • Regulates

- materials

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15
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. Separates cell’s internal environment from the external environment
b. Regulates flow of materials in and out of the cell
c. __________ appropriate __________ environment
d. Plays important role in communication both with other cells and with the external environment

A
  • Maintains

- internal

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16
Q

Cell membrane 4 basic functions:

a. Separates cell’s internal environment from the external environment
b. Regulates flow of materials in and out of the cell
c. Maintains appropriate internal environment
d. Plays important role in __________ both with other cells and with the __________ environment

A
  • communication

- external

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17
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

__________ – Consists of all contents of a cell between the plasma membrane and nucleus

A

Cytoplasm

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18
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

Cytoplasm – Consists of all contents of a cell between the __________ membrane and __________

A
  • plasma

- nucleus

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19
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

3 parts of Cytoplasm:
1.
2. Organelles
3.

A
  1. Cytosol

3. Inclusions

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20
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

__________ – control center for cell functions

A

Nucleus

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21
Q
  • 3 basic parts of a cell -

Nucleus:

  1. Has information to __________ all proteins needed by the cell
  2. Contains the __________ – genetic material
  3. Dictates type and amount of __________ to be made
A
  • manufacture
  • DNA
  • proteins
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22
Q

__________ – groups of similar cells that have a common function

A

Tissues

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23
Q

Four basic types of Tissue:

i.
ii. Connective
iii.
iv. Nervous

A
  • Epithelial

- Muscle

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24
Q

Four basic types of Tissue:

i. Epithelial
ii.
iii. Muscle
iv.

A
  • Connective

- Nervous

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25
Q

Examples of Epithelial Tissue:

  • __________
  • Inside of __________
A
  • skin

- kidneys

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26
Q

Examples of Connective Tissue:

  • __________
  • blood
  • __________
A
  • fat

- cartilage

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27
Q
  • 3 Types of cartilage -

__________ - (most common)
Found at the junction of the ribs and sternum, trachea, ends of bones that form joints

A

Hyaline

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28
Q
  • 3 Types of cartilage -

Hyaline -
Found at the junction of the __________ and sternum, __________, ends of bones that form joints

A
  • ribs

- trachea

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29
Q
  • 3 Types of cartilage -

__________ –
Forms the ear, epiglottis, larynx

A

Elastic

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30
Q
  • 3 Types of cartilage -

Elastic – (has a lot of elastic fibers)
Forms the __________, epiglottis, __________

A
  • ear

- larynx

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31
Q
  • 3 Types of cartilage -

__________ – very little ground substance
-Found in the discs between the vertebrae, between pubic bones in the pelvis and in the menisci of the knee (pads of cartilage between femur and tibia)

A

Fibrocartilage

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32
Q
  • 3 Types of cartilage -

Fibrocartilage – very little ground substance
-Found in the discs between the __________, between pubic bones in the __________ and in the menisci of the knee

A
  • vertebrae

- pelvis

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33
Q

5 Layers of the Epidermis are:

  • Stratum __________
  • Stratum Spinosum
  • Stratum Granulosum
  • Stratum __________
  • Stratum Corneum
A
  • Basale

- Lucidum

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34
Q

5 Layers of the Epidermis are:

  • Stratum basale
  • Stratum __________
  • Stratum Granulosum
  • Stratum Lucidum
  • Stratum __________
A
  • Spinosum

- Corneum

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35
Q

5 Layers of the Epidermis are:

  • Stratum basale
  • Stratum Spinosum
  • Stratum __________
  • Stratum Lucidum
  • Stratum Corneum
A

Granulosum

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36
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum __________ – deepest layer

  1. Main cells are basal cells – single row of stem cells that reproduce to replace keratinocytes that are shed
  2. Merkel cells – sensitive to touch
  3. Melanocytes – give skin its color
A

basale

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37
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum basale – deepest layer

  1. Main cells are basal cells – single row of __________ cells that reproduce to replace __________ that are shed
  2. Merkel cells – sensitive to touch
  3. Melanocytes – give skin its color
A
  • stem

- keratinocytes

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38
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum basale – deepest layer

  1. Main cells are basal cells – single row of stem cells that reproduce to replace keratinocytes that are shed
  2. __________ cells – sensitive to touch
  3. Melanocytes – give skin its __________
A
  • Merkel

- color

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39
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum __________ – made up of 8-10 layers of keratinocytes that migrate from the stratum basale
1. Cells have lost some cytoplasm – look “spiky” when under a microscope, but spines are not present in life

A

Spinosum

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40
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum Spinosum – made up of 8-10 layers of keratinocytes that migrate from the stratum __________
1. Cells have lost some __________ – look “spiky” when under a microscope, but spines are not present in life

A
  • basale

- cytoplasm

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41
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum __________ – “grainy” layer

  1. Contains keratinocytes from the stratum spinosum
  2. Cells are undergoing apoptosis – programmed cell death
  3. Lamellar granules – found within keratinocytes
    a. Release lipid-rich secretion
    b. Fills in spaces between cells and provides waterproofing
A

Granulosum

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42
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum Granulosum – “grainy” layer

  1. Contains keratinocytes from the stratum spinosum
  2. Cells are undergoing __________ – programmed cell death
  3. __________ granules – found within keratinocytes
    a. Release lipid-rich secretion
    b. Fills in spaces between cells and provides waterproofing
A
  • apoptosis

- Lamellar

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43
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum Granulosum – “grainy” layer

  1. Contains keratinocytes from the stratum spinosum
  2. Cells are undergoing apoptosis – programmed cell death
  3. Lamellar granules – found within keratinocytes
    a. Release __________-rich secretion
    b. Fills in spaces between cells and provides __________
A
  • lipid

- waterproofing

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44
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum __________

  1. Only present in thick skin
  2. Cells are flattened, packed together, and full of keratin
A

Lucidum

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45
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum Lucidum

  1. Only present in __________ skin
  2. Cells are __________, packed together, and full of keratin
A
  • thick

- flattened

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46
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum __________

  1. Most superficial layer; 20-30 layers of cells
  2. Made up of dead cells filled with keratin that are tightly connected by desmosomes
    - Provides extra protection
A

Corneum

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47
Q

-5 Layers of the Epidermis-

Stratum Corneum

  1. Most superficial layer; __________ layers of cells
  2. Made up of __________ cells filled with keratin that are tightly connected by __________
    - Provides extra protection
A
  • 20-30
  • dead
  • desmosomes
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48
Q

__________ :

-Discharge oil into hair follicles

A

Sebaceous (oil) glands

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49
Q

Oil is called sebum- 3 functions:

  1. Inhibits __________ of bacteria
  2. __________ and protects hair shaft
  3. __________ skin
A
  • growth
  • Lubricates
  • Conditions
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50
Q

__________ sweat glands – found in the armpits, around nipples, and in the pubic region

A

Apocrine

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51
Q

__________ sweat glands –

a. Empty into hair follicles
b. Secretions contain water and salts as well as fatty acids and proteins
c. Controlled by hormones – doesn’t help with body temperature regulation

A

Apocrine

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52
Q

Apocrine sweat glands –

a. Empty into __________ follicles
b. Secretions contain water and __________ as well as fatty acids and proteins
c. Controlled by __________

A
  • hair
  • salts
  • hormones
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53
Q

Eccrine sweat glands -

a. Coiled gland, duct goes up to the surface and opens through a __________
b. __________- than apocrine glands, but more __________
c. Sweat is 99% water – also contains salt, antibodies, proteins, and wastes
d. Functions:
i. Body temperature regulation
ii. Excretion of water and electrolytes
iii. Protection from chemicals and microorganisms

A
  • pore
  • Smaller
  • numerous
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54
Q

Eccrine sweat glands -

a. Coiled gland, duct goes up to the surface and opens through a pore
b. Smaller than apocrine glands, but more numerous
c. Sweat is __% water – also contains salt, antibodies, proteins, and wastes
d. Functions:
i. Body temperature __________
ii. Excretion of water and electrolytes
iii. Protection from __________ and microorganisms

A
  • 99
  • regulation
  • chemicals
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55
Q

___ degree burns – redness, swelling, and pain (sunburn)

Damages only the __________

A
  • 1st

- epidermis

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56
Q

___ degree burns –redness, swelling, and pain, with blisters

-Damages the epidermis and possibly the __________ part of the dermis

A
  • 2nd

- upper

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57
Q

___ degree burns affect the entire thickness of the skin

  • Appears gray or blackened, but it’s not painful because __________ endings have been destroyed
  • Skin will __________, but grafts are used because of fluid loss and risk of infections
A
  • 3rd
  • nerve
  • regenerate
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58
Q

Burns are considered Critical if:

  • Over 25% of the body has 2nd degree burns
  • Over 10% has 3rd degree
  • 3rd degree burns on the __________ , hands, or feet
  • -Burns on the face can indicate burns affecting the __________ system
A
  • face

- respiratory

59
Q

Burns are considered Critical if:

  • Over __% of the body has 2nd degree burns
  • Over 10% has __ degree
  • 3rd degree burns on the face, hands, or feet
  • -Burns on the face can indicate burns affecting the respiratory system
A
  • 25

- 3rd

60
Q

An osteon has

(a) a central canal carrying blood vessels,
(b) concentric lamellae, (c) osteocytes in lacunae, (d) canaliculi that connect lacunae to the central canal, (e) all of these.

A

(e) all of these

61
Q

-Cells found in Bone-

_________ – stem cells that develop into osteoblasts

A

Osteogenic cells

62
Q

_________ – functional unit of compact bone; each one looks like a cross section of a tree

A

Osteon

63
Q
  • Osteon -

_________ – middle of the osteon

  • Contain blood vessels, nerve, and a lymphatic vessel
  • Run parallel to the surface of the bone
A

Central (or Haversian) canals

64
Q
  • Osteon -

Central (or Haversian) canals – middle of the osteon

  • Contain _________, nerve, and a _________ vessel
  • Run parallel to the surface of the bone
A
  • blood vessels

- lymphatic

65
Q
  • Osteon -

_________ – travel perpendicular to the central canals

A

Perforating (or Volkmann’s) canals

66
Q
  • Osteon -

Perforating (or Volkmann’s) canals - Provide _________ to the osteons and _________ tissue

A
  • blood

- bone marrow

67
Q
  • Osteon -

_________ – layers of matrix

A

Lamellae

68
Q
  • Osteon -

Lamellae – Contains _________ fibers that run at angles to add _________ and resilience

A
  • collagen

- strength

69
Q
  • Osteon -

_________ – “little lakes” – spaces in between lamellae that contain osteocytes

A

Lacunae

70
Q
  • Osteon -

Lacunae – “little lakes” – spaces in between _________ that contain _________

A
  • lamellae

- osteocytes

71
Q
  • Osteon -

_________ – “small channels” – canals that connect lacunae with one another and the Haversian canal

A

Canaliculi

72
Q
  • Osteon -

Canaliculi – “small channels” – canals that connect _________ with one another and the _________ canal

A
  • lacunae

- Haversian

73
Q

_________ – increase in the diameter of the bone

A

Appositional growth

74
Q

Appositional growth:

  • Osteoblasts near the _________ secrete matrix
  • Osteoblasts are surrounded and become _________
  • Osteoclasts destroy bone inside the medullary cavity, increasing the diameter
A
  • periosteum

- osteocytes

75
Q

Appositional growth:

  • Osteoblasts near the periosteum secrete matrix
  • Osteoblasts are surrounded and become osteocytes
  • _________ destroy bone inside the _________ cavity, increasing the diameter
A
  • Osteoclasts

- medullary

76
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – bone is broken into 3 or more pieces

A

Comminuted

77
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – bone is crushed; common in vertebrae

A

Compression

78
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – usually occurs with twisting of the bone

A

Spiral fracture

79
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – diaphysis and epiphysis separate

A

Epiphyseal fracture

80
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – part of skull is pushed in

A

Depression fracture

81
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – incomplete fracture; occurs in children

A

Greenstick fracture

82
Q
  • Types of Fractures -

_________ – occurs when a tendon pulls part of the bone away

A

Avulsion fracture

83
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

Cervical – _________ ; __ vertebrae

A

neck

-7

84
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

Thoracic – ____-back ; __

A
  • mid

- 12

85
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

Lumbar – ____- back; __

A
  • low

- 5

86
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

Sacrum – __ fused vertebrae

A

5

87
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

Coccyx – _________ ; _________ fused vertebrae

A
  • tailbone

- 3-5

88
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

-Cervical
-
-Lumbar
-
-Coccyx
A
  • Thoracic

- Sacrum

89
Q

-Five regions of the vertebral column -

-
-Thoracic
-
-Sacrum
-
A
  • Cervical
  • Lumbar
  • Coccyx
90
Q

Cervical and lumbar areas are _________

A

concave

91
Q

Thoracic and sacral areas are _________

A

convex

92
Q

_________ – lateral curvature

A

Scoliosis

93
Q

_________ – exaggerated thoracic curve (hunchback)

A

Kyphosis

94
Q

_________ – exaggerated lumbar curve (swayback)

-Common in pregnant women

A

Lordosis

95
Q

Surgical neck of the humerus is a:

A

common fracture site

96
Q

The _________ is the most mobile and most frequently _________ joint in the body.

A
  • shoulder

- dislocated

97
Q
  • Shoulder _________ – dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint
  • -Usually the result of a blow to the superior surface of the shoulder
A

separation

98
Q

Shoulder _________ – head of the humerus slips out of the glenoid cavity

A

dislocation

99
Q

_________ – usually results from the wear and tear on the joint surfaces

A

Osteoarthritis

100
Q

_________ – inflammation of the joints

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

101
Q

_________ – crystals of uric acid form within the synovial fluid

A

Gouty arthritis

102
Q
  • four steps in the neuronal stimulation of a muscle -
  1. Release of _________ into the _________ cleft (space)
  2. ACh binds to the _________ on the muscle
  3. Action potential continues on the muscle in the sarcolemma and is carried to all parts of the fiber by the T tubules
  4. Return to rest – ACh is broken down by ACHe and action potential is over
A
  • ACh
  • synaptic
  • receptors
103
Q
  • four steps in the neuronal stimulation of a muscle -
  1. Release of ACh into the synaptic cleft (space)
  2. ACh binds to the receptors on the muscle
  3. _________ potential continues on the muscle in the _________ and is carried to all parts of the fiber by the _________
  4. Return to rest – ACh is broken down by ACHe and action potential is over
A
  • Action
  • sarcolemma
  • T tubules
104
Q
  • four steps in the neuronal stimulation of a muscle -
  1. Release of ACh into the synaptic cleft (space)
  2. ACh binds to the receptors on the muscle
  3. Action potential continues on the muscle in the sarcolemma and is carried to all parts of the fiber by the T tubules
  4. Return to _________ – ACh is broken down by _________ and action potential is over
A
  • rest

- ACHe

105
Q

-Excitation-Contraction Coupling-

  • Action potential travels along the _________
    1. Causes the release of _________ into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic _________
    2. Binds to troponin, which causes tropomyosin to move in between the strands of actin
  • -This exposes the binding sites on the actin
A
  • sarcolemma
  • calcium
  • reticulum
106
Q

-Excitation-Contraction Coupling-

  • Action potential travels along the sarcolemma
    1. Causes the release of calcium into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    2. Binds to _________, which causes _________ to move in between the strands of actin
  • -This exposes the binding sites on the actin
A
  • troponin

- tropomyosin

107
Q

-Excitation-Contraction Coupling-

  • Action potential travels along the sarcolemma
    1. Causes the release of calcium into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    2. Binds to troponin, which causes tropomyosin to move in between the strands of _________
  • -This exposes the _________ sites on the actin
A
  • actin

- binding

108
Q
  • Contraction Cycle -
  1. ATP splits – into ____ (adenosine diphosphate) and a _________ group
  2. Head of the myosin attaches to the binding site (cross bridge)
  3. Cross bridge flexes (myosin head bends), moving the thin filament toward the middle of the sarcomere
    - -Called the “power stroke”
  4. ATP binds with the myosin head, which releases the myosin head from the actin
A
  • ADP

- phosphate

109
Q
  • Contraction Cycle -
  1. ATP splits – into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group
  2. Head of the _________ attaches to the _________ site (cross bridge)
  3. Cross bridge flexes (myosin head bends), moving the thin filament toward the middle of the sarcomere
    - -Called the “power stroke”
  4. ATP binds with the myosin head, which releases the myosin head from the actin
A
  • myosin

- binding

110
Q
  • Contraction Cycle -
  1. ATP splits – into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group
  2. Head of the myosin attaches to the binding site (cross bridge)
  3. Cross bridge _________ (myosin head bends), moving the _________ filament toward the middle of the _________
    - -Called the “power stroke”
  4. ATP binds with the myosin head, which releases the myosin head from the actin
A
  • flexes
  • thin
  • sarcomere
111
Q
  • Contraction Cycle -
  1. ATP splits – into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group
  2. Head of the myosin attaches to the binding site (cross bridge)
  3. Cross bridge flexes (myosin head bends), moving the thin filament toward the middle of the sarcomere
    - -Called the “power stroke”
  4. ATP binds with the _________ head, which releases the myosin head from the _________
A
  • myosin

- actin

112
Q
  • Relaxation -
  1. When _________ impulse stops, release of ____ stops
  2. Calcium is returned to the terminal cisternae – requires energy (ATP)
  3. When calcium is take back by the SR, troponin changes shape and tropomyosin once again covers the binding sites on the actin
    - -Muscle relaxes
A
  • nerve

- ACh

113
Q
  • Relaxation -
  1. When nerve impulse stops, release of ACh stops
  2. _________ is returned to the terminal _________ – requires energy (ATP)
  3. When calcium is take back by the SR, troponin changes shape and tropomyosin once again covers the binding sites on the actin
    - -Muscle relaxes
A
  • Calcium

- cisternae

114
Q
  • Relaxation -
  1. When nerve impulse stops, release of ACh stops
  2. Calcium is returned to the terminal cisternae – requires energy (ATP)
  3. When calcium is take back by the ___, troponin changes shape and _________ once again covers the binding sites on the actin
    - -Muscle relaxes
A
  • SR

- tropomyosin

115
Q

-4 basic fascicle arrangements-

_________ – fascicles run parallel to the long axis; two types

A

Parallel muscles

116
Q

-4 basic fascicle arrangements-

Parallel muscles:

  • _________ – thin and flat like a belt
  • _________ – prominent belly when flexed
A
  • Strap muscles

- Fusiform

117
Q

-4 basic fascicle arrangements-

_________ – look like a feather; fascicles attach at an angle to a tendon; three types

A

Pennate muscles

118
Q

-4 basic fascicle arrangements-

Pennate muscles:

  • _________ – fascicles attach on one side of the tendon
  • _________ – fascicles fan out from the center
  • _________ – fascicles fan out from more than 2 places
A
  • Unipennate
  • Bipennate
  • Multipennate
119
Q

-4 basic fascicle arrangements-

_________ – large origin converges to a much smaller tendon of insertion

A

Convergent (triangular)

120
Q

-4 basic fascicle arrangements-

_________ – fascicles go around an opening

A

Circular

121
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ : (means toward)

A

Afferent

122
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ : carries sensory information from the receptors of the body to the CNS

A

Afferent division

123
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

Afferent division:
_________ detect changes in the environment
– eyes, ears, touch, pain, heat, cold, etc.

A

Receptors

124
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ = (“away from”)

A

Efferent

125
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ : carries motor information from the CNS to the body

A

Efferent

126
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -
    [Two parts of the efferent division]

_________ – controls skeletal muscles
-Voluntary and involuntary (reflexes)

A

Somatic

127
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -
    [Two parts of the efferent division]

_________ – visceral motor system
-Controls cardiac and smooth muscle, organs, and glands

A

Autonomic

128
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -
    [Two parts of the efferent division]

_________ :
-Controls cardiac and smooth muscle, organs, and glands

A

Autonomic

129
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ : (resting & Digesting) – generally slows things down (heart rate)

A

Parasympathetic

130
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

Parasympathetic : (resting & Digesting) – generally _________ things down (heart rate)

A

slows

131
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ : (fight or flight) – generally speeds things up

A

Sympathetic

132
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

Sympathetic (fight or flight) – generally _________ things up

A

speeds

133
Q
  • Divisions of the PNS -

_________ – controls activity within the digestive system

A

Enteric

134
Q
  • Resting Membrane Potential -

Potassium has a higher concentration _________ the cell

A

inside

135
Q
  • Resting Membrane Potential -

Sodium has a higher concentration _________ the cell

A

outside

136
Q
  • Resting Membrane Potential -

_________ wants to get out, _________ wants to get in

A
  • Potassium

- Sodium

137
Q

The _________ gyrus lies anterior to the central sulcus and the _________ gyrus lies posterior to the central sulcus

A
  • precentral

- postcentral

138
Q

The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the _________ sulcus and the postcentral gyrus lies _________ to the central sulcus

A
  • central

- posterior

139
Q

Four steps of Action Potentials :

i. Resting
ii.
iii. Repolarization
iv.

A
  • Depolarization

- Hyperpolarization

140
Q

Four steps of Action Potentials :

i.
ii. Depolarization
iii.
iv. Hyperpolarization

A
  • Resting

- Repolarization

141
Q

Four steps of Action Potentials :

_________ – both the Na and K gates are closed

A

Resting

142
Q

Four steps of Action Potentials :

_________ – Na gates open and Na gushes into the cell

A

Depolarization

143
Q

Four steps of Action Potentials :

_________ – cell returns to its resting membrane potential

A

Repolarization

144
Q

Four steps of Action Potentials :

Repolarization –

  1. When the inside of the cell becomes positive, the ___ channels close so no more can get in
  2. At the same time, the K gates _________ and it gushes out of the cell
  3. As K+ goes out and Na+ can’t get in, the _________ is restored
A
  • Na
  • open
  • RMP

Anatomy & Physiology 151 (22 decks)

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