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BACTERIOLGY > Lecture | Bacterial Identification > Flashcards

Lecture | Bacterial Identification Flashcards

1
Q

Microscopy, staining techniques, biochemical test, imumunodiagnosis, molecular diagnosis is for

A

Bacterial identification

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2
Q

Used for the detection of microorganisms directly in the clinical specimen and for characterization of organisms grown in culture

A

Microscopy

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3
Q

Defined as the use of microscope to manify objects

A

Microscopy

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4
Q

visible light is passed through the specimen and then through a series of lenses that bend the lights

A

Bright-field microscopy or Light microscopy

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5
Q

Microscopic technique for visual inspection at a time of smear (fixed smear), culture preparation, microscopic examination of gram stain preparation

A

Bright-field microscopy or light microscopy

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6
Q

Does not use fixed smear and allows to view organism in wet preparation or mark

A

Phase-contrast microscopy

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7
Q

Uses beam of light passing through the specimen

A

Phase-contrast microscopy

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8
Q

Deflected light is called

A

Refractive index

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9
Q

Greater refractive index means

A

Decrease light intensity

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10
Q

Staining is not part of phase-contrast, this allow identification of viable microorganisms such as

A

Fungal identification

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11
Q

Fluorescent microscopy uses a dye known as

A

Fluorochrome

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12
Q

Darkfield microscopy is usually employed for the diagnosis of

A

Spirochetes

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13
Q

Phase-contrast and dark-field has a similarity of not using any stain or dye to achieve contrast, instead they

A

Alter the microscopic technique

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14
Q

2 types of Electron microscopy

A

SEM & TEM

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15
Q

Creates image by detecting reflected or “knock-off” electrons

A

Scanning Electron Microscopy

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16
Q

Creates 3D information of sample surface and its composition

A

SEM

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17
Q

Uses transmitted electron

A

Transmitted electron Microscopy

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18
Q

Detects the transmitted electron to create an image, offering valuable information in the INNER structure of the sample and morphology inside

A

TEM

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19
Q

Fixation makes sure that—

A

Material would cling to the surface of the microscope slide

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20
Q

2 process of fixation

A
  1. Heat
  2. 95% methanol
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21
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Gross Examination)

WET PREPARATION : ?

A

Parasites and material >1 mm in size

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22
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

WET PREPARATION (direct/sedimented) : ?

A

Fluids or semi fluid

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23
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

CYTOCENTRIFUGED (direct/presedimented) : ?

A

Clear or slightly turbid fluid

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24
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

Smear : ?

A

Clear or slightly turbid fluid

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25
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

? : pus/fluid, tissue homogenate, swab rinse

A

Drop

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26
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

Pellet : ?

A

Blood culture and dilute specimen

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27
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

? : swabbed material

A

Rolled

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28
Q

Preparation : Specimen or Organism Type
(For Microscopic Examination)

Imprint (touch preparation) : ?

A

Tissue

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29
Q

Directed toward coloring the forms and shapes present. Ex: methylene blue

A

Simple stain

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30
Q

Directed toward coloring specific components of the elements present. Ex: Gram’s Stain; Acid-Fast Stain

A

Differential Stain

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31
Q

Performed to visualize selected tissue element, entities, and microorganisms

A

Special stains

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32
Q

Special stain for flagella

A

Leifson Stain

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33
Q

Special stain for endospore

A

Schaeffer-Fulton Stain

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34
Q

Special stain that uses Malachite green

A

Schaeffer-Fulton Stain

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35
Q

A type of stain wherein it’s the background that is stained

A

Negative stain

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36
Q

Examples of negative stains

A

India ink ; Nigrosin

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37
Q

Use to visualize/examine the presence of Cryptococcus neoformans on Cerebrospinal specimen

A

India ink

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38
Q

Principal stain for microscopic examination of bacteria

A

Gram stain

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39
Q

Gram stain principle is based on the —?— of the group of microorganisms

A

Cell wall composition

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40
Q

Primary stain of Gram Stain

A

Crystal violet

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41
Q

Mordant of Gram stain

A

Gram’s iodine

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42
Q

Decolorizer of Gram stain

A

Alcohol/acetone

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43
Q

Counterstain of gram stain

A

Safranin

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44
Q

Gram+ that has an acid that contributes to the ability of gram+ organism to resist alcohol decolorization

A

Teichoic acid

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45
Q

Gram+ contains highly cross-linked layer that retains primary dye

A

Peptidoglycan

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46
Q

Where peptidoglycan is loosely distributed

A

Gram-

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47
Q

Stain utilized for the detection of mycobacterium

A

Acid-fast stain

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48
Q

A component of the cell that gives the cell wall the ability to resist decolorization

A

Mycolic acid

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49
Q

Acid-fast stain methods

A
  1. Ziehl Neelsen (Hot method)
  2. Kinyoun (Cold Method)
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50
Q

Primary stain of acid-fast

A

Carbolfuchsin

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51
Q

Decolorizer of acid-fast stain

A
  1. Acid Alcohol (3% HCL + 95% Ethanol)
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52
Q

Counter stain of acid-fast

A

Methylene blue

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53
Q

Mordant of acid-fast

A

Phenol ( increased concentration in Kinyoun method)

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54
Q

A mixture of phenol and the dye basic fuchsin

A

Carbolfuchsin

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55
Q

Alternative for acid alcohol

A

20% Sulfuric Acid

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56
Q

2 types of fluorochrome

A
  1. Acridine orange
  2. Auramine Rhodamine
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57
Q

A fluorochrome that confirms the presence of bacteria in blood cultures

A

Acridine orange

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58
Q

Determination: bacteria will give off bright orange fluorescence

A

Acridine orange

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59
Q

Stain that is also used for detection of cell wall-deficient bacteria that are incapable of retaining the dyes used in gram stain

A

Acridine orange

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60
Q

Used for the detection of our mycobacteria

A

Auramine Rhodamine

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61
Q

Has a very high affinity with the waxing mycolic acid found in the cell wall of mycobacteria

A

Auramine Rhodamine

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62
Q

Determination: it would nonspcifically bind to nearly all microbacteria, giving off a bright yellow appearance or orange against a greenish background

A

Auramine Rhodamine

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63
Q

Acridine orange detects presence of cell wall deficient bacteria such as

A

Mycoplasma and ureaplasma

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64
Q

Enhance detection of micro-bacteria directly from patient specimen. Has higher specificity and sensitivity

A

Auramine rhodamine

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65
Q

Colonial morphology is observable after how many hours

A

18-24 hours of incubation

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66
Q

Inoculation of the clinical specimen onto laboratory media

A

Primary plating

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67
Q

Initial mid culture media we use to plate

A

Primary media

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68
Q

Term us to introduce specimen unto the laboratory media

A

Inoculate

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69
Q

Interpretation of primary culture

A

Plate reading

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70
Q

Comparative examination of the colony morphology

A

Plate reading

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71
Q

Media that contain specific nutrients required

A

Enrichment media

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72
Q

Used to enhance the growth of organism present in low numbers

A

Enrichment broth

73
Q

Contain nutrient that support growth of most nonfastidious organism

A

Nutritive media

74
Q

Contain nutrients that support growth of most nonfastidious organism

A

Nutritive media

75
Q

Contain 1 or more agents that are inhibitory to all organisms except those “selected” by the specific growth conditiopn or chemical

A

Selective media

76
Q

Based on the ability of bacteria to utilize a substrate that produces a change in ph, detected by a change in the color of a ph indicator

A

Differential media

77
Q

Culture media that could both be differential and selective

A

Combination media

78
Q

Examples of Fastidious organisms that are hard to grow in vitro

A

Francisella spp. and Brucella spp.

79
Q

Break down of RBC

A

hemolysis

80
Q

Type of hemolysis that is partial lysing of rbc in SBA plate around and under the colony; green discoloration

A

Alpha hemolysis

81
Q

Complete clearing of rbc in SBA

A

Beta hemolysis

82
Q

No hemolytic pattern

A

Gama hemolysis

83
Q

Colonies are describe as large, medium, small, or pinpoint

A

Size

84
Q

Describes as smooth, filamentous, rough or rhizoid, or irregular

A

Form of margin

85
Q

Hazy blanket of growth on the surface that extends well beyond the streak lines

A

Swarming

86
Q

Determined by tilting the culture plate and looking at the side of colony

A

Elevation

87
Q

It may be raised, convexed, flat, umbonate,umbilicate

A

Elevation

88
Q

Can be transparent, translucent, opaque

A

Density

89
Q

Determined by touching the colony with a sterile loop. It may be splinters, butyrous, dry or waxy.

A

Consistency

90
Q

Color of colonies may be

A

White, gray, yellow or buff

91
Q

An inherent characteristic of a specific organism confined generally to the colony

A

Pigmentation

92
Q

Enzyme-based test is also called

A

Single enzyme-based test

93
Q

Biochemical test to determine which subsequent identification step should be followed

A

Enzyme-base test

94
Q

Streptococcus can be differentiated from staphylococcus through catalase wherein staphylococcus species are

A

Catalase positive

95
Q

Provide by vital information and is commonly used in schemes for gram-positive identification

A

Catalyst test

96
Q

Catalyzes the release of water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase

97
Q

It is the positive result in a catalyst test

A

Rapid production of bubbles

98
Q

Rapid production of bubbles is termed as

A

Effervescence

99
Q

Do not use a bacterial inoculum that is collected from SBA plate because it gives off what type of result

A

False positive

100
Q

Participates in electron transport and in nitrate metabolic pathways of gram negative

A

Cytochrome Oxidase

101
Q

Testing for the presence of oxidase uses a reagent such as

A

1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride

102
Q

Simpler method/alternative way of performing oxidase test

A

Rubbing the bacterial colony into a filter paper with reagent

103
Q

Rubbing the bacterial colony into a filter paper is a method called

A

Kovacs method

104
Q

Not using an iron containing wire during kovacs method will obtain a result of

A

False positive

105
Q

Do not interpret result during kovacs method after 10 seconds. True or false

A

True

106
Q

End point of carbohydrate fertilization

A

Production of acid-byproducts

107
Q

To detect the the presence of acid by product is through

A

Change in pH indicator

108
Q

When using this pH will turn yellow if acid and remain blue if alkaline

A

Bromocresol purple and bromothymol blue

109
Q

Medium use for oxidative fermentation test is known as o-f medium or also called as

A

Hugh and Leifson O/F basal medium

110
Q

Contain low concentration of peptone and a single carbohydrate substrate such as glucose

A

O-F medium

111
Q

When o/f test are performed 2 tubes of Hugh-Leifson OFBM are inoculated. test tube 1 is ? And test tube 2 is?

A

Test tube 1 - overlaid with sterile mineral oi

Test tube 2 - without mineral oil overlay

112
Q

One tube is overlaid with mineral sterile oil to create

A

Anaerobic environment (close)

113
Q

Test tube is without mineral oil overlay is left

A

Open or aerobic

114
Q

Oxidative requires

A

Oxygen

115
Q

Fermentative requires

A

Do not require oxygen

116
Q

These are test for the presence of Metabolic pathways

A
  1. Carbohydrate oxidation and fermentation
  2. Amino acid degradation
  3. Single substate
117
Q

Oxidase is in color

A

Purple

118
Q

What are the single source nutrition

A

Citrate, malonate, or acetate

119
Q

It determines if organisms can gown in the presence of spa single nutrient or carbon source single substrate

A

Single substrate utilization

120
Q

Citrate test or single substrate utilization detects

A

Alkaline pH

121
Q

Citrate test utilize an agar called

A

Simmons citrate agar

122
Q

Simmons citrate agar contains bromthymol blue. This will turn blue at a pH of

A

Above 7.6

123
Q

The metabolic activity happens and produces a/an

A

Alkaline pH

124
Q

Involves the ability of a bacterial isolate to grow in the presence of 1 or more inhibitory substances

A

Establishing inhibitor profiles

125
Q

A test include Growth in the presence of various NaCl concentrations is for

A

Identification of enterococci spp. and vibrio spp.

126
Q

A test in susceptibility to optochin and solubility in bile is for

A

Identification of streptococcus pneumoniae

127
Q

Test include ability to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile

A

Identification of enterococci spp. in combination with NaCl

128
Q

Test include ethanol survival

A

Identification of Bacillus spp.

129
Q

Serotyping

A

Using sera to identify and differentiate bacteria

130
Q

Immunoassay includes

A

Precipitation assay, agglutination assay, immunofluorescent assay, fluorescein isothiocyanate, enzyme immunoassays

131
Q

Involves diffusion of soluble antigen and antibodies

A

Precipitation assay

132
Q

Detecting antigen by means of agglutination with latex bead

A

Agglutination assay

133
Q

Latex agglutination for salmonella typhi

A

Widal test

134
Q

Latex agglutination for treponema pallidum

A

Hemaaglutination

135
Q

Double immunodiffusion is for

A

Fungal pathogens

136
Q

Specific monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies are conjugated with fluorochrome

A

Immunofluorescent assay

137
Q

Labeled antibodies are called ? Because antibody is linked to a label

A

Conjugate

138
Q

Commonly used fluorochrome

A

Fluorescein isothiocyanate

139
Q

Fluorescein isothiocyanate emits

A

Bright apple-green fluorescence

140
Q

Considered more sensitive than DFA

A

IFA

141
Q

Test for T. Pallidum for detecting syphilis

A

FTA-ABS

142
Q

SPIA is used in the detection of

A

Lyme disease

143
Q

Cassette-based membrane-bound ELISA is used to

A

Test for a single serum

144
Q

Cassette-based membrane-bound ELISA is use to test for a single serum, now we refer to it as

A

Rapid test or rapid kits

145
Q

Cassette-based membrane-bound ELISA is rapid because it take how many minutes to get a result

A

Within 10 minutes

146
Q

2 homologous nucleic acid strands that are complementary form a

A

Double stranded molecule or duplex or hybrid

147
Q

Hybridization amplification methods

A

PCR and amplify a single copy of a nucleic acid target

148
Q

Amplification method involves 3 process

A

Denaturation, annealing, & extension

149
Q

1st step in PCR that involves heating at 94 degrees celsius

A

Denaturation

150
Q

In denaturation the double stranded DNA would become

A

A single strand

151
Q

One strand from the duplex formation carries a —?— that consists of a single reporter labeled nucleic acid molecule that is complementary to a nucleic acid target of the suspected pathogen

A

Probe

152
Q

After denaturation is ? Which involves the use of primers

A

Annealing

153
Q

Short single stranded sequence of nucleic acid; oligonucleotide

A

Primers

154
Q

Primers are how many nucleotides long

A

220 to 30 nucleotides long

155
Q

Unlike probes, primers does not have a

A

Reporter molecule

156
Q

Melting temperature of the primer in annealing

A

50 to 58 degrees celsius

157
Q

Addition of the amino acids r nucleic acids into the sequence

A

Extension

158
Q

Added nucleotides to 3 prime terminals of each primer and extended id mediated by

A

Taq polymerase

159
Q

Taq polymerase is obtaine or isolated from

A

Thermus aquaticus

160
Q

Extension happens at a temperature of

A

72 degrees celsius

161
Q

Specific PCR amplification product containing the target nucleic acid

A

Amplicon

162
Q

After amplification, subject PCR mixture to a

A

Gel electrophoresis

163
Q

In gel electrophoresis, a dye is used with the aid of

A

Ethidium bromide

164
Q

Determine genetic relatedness

A

Genetic fingerprinting

165
Q

Based on mutations that accumulate in biological organisms over time

A

Genetic fingerprinting

166
Q

Compare local strains to determine whether local outbreak is caused by a single strain or multiple strain

A

Strain typing

167
Q

It is also used to compare local isolates with worldwide isolates which can show long term spread of strain/s (clonality)

A

Strain typing

168
Q

2 types of genetic fingerprinting

A

Non-amplified and amplified typin

169
Q

What is under non-amplified typing that is one of the 1st method used to type strains of bacteria

A

Plasmid profile analysis

170
Q

Determining the order of nucleotides in fragments of DNA

A

Sequencing

171
Q

Procedure to identify the microbes from clinical sample and confirm identification of bacterial isolate by determining the order of nucleotides in a fragment of DNA

A

Sequencing

172
Q

Grouping at the micron level of DNA molecules attached to a solid support

A

DNA microarrays

173
Q

Gives investigators the potential to evaluate gene expression from an entire organism

A

DNA microarrays

174
Q

Also called as DNA chip or gene chip

A

DNA microarrays

175
Q

Study of proteins on cellular level

A

Proteomic

176
Q

Proteomic is used to determine protein expression in

A

Disease conditions

177
Q

Matrix-assisted laser desorption-ionization time-of-flight

A

MALDI-TOF mass Spectrometry

178
Q

Technology used for RAPIDLY identifying microorganisms, including fungi

A

MALDI-TOF Mass Spectrometry

BACTERIOLGY (14 decks)

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