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Bio 214 > Lecture 12: Chapter 15 (Genes and how they work) > Flashcards

Lecture 12: Chapter 15 (Genes and how they work) Flashcards

1
Q

What did Archibald Garrod (1902) propose after he recognized that alkaptonuria is inherited via a recessive allele and that patients with the disease lacked a particular enzyme?

A

The ideas connected genes to enzymes

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2
Q

When was Beadle’s and Tatum’s experiment?

A

1941

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3
Q

What did Beadle and Tatum study?

A

They studied a bread mold, Neurospora

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4
Q

What did Beadle and Tatum use to damage the DNA of Neurospora?

A

X-rays

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5
Q

In their experiment, what did Beadle Tatum look for, and how did they identify it?

A

They looked for nutritional mutations by identifying spores unable to grow on minimal media

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6
Q

What did Beadle’s and Tatum’s minimal media contain?

A

glucose+ vitamin (biotin)+ salts

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7
Q

What is
Gluatamate–> Ornithine–> cirtuline–> arginosuccinate–> arginine?

A

The arginine synthesis pathway

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8
Q

What strains did Beadle and Tatum isolate?

A

The strands that could not grow unless fed arginine

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9
Q

What did Beadle and Tatum feed the isolated strands to test for growth?

A

The intermediates in the pathway

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10
Q

What was required for the biochemical pathway to produce the amino acid arginine?

A

enzymes

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11
Q

How did Beadle and Tatum identify mutants deficient in each enzyme of the pathway?

A

By supplementing minimal media with biochemical intermediates

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12
Q

What hypothesis did Beadle and Tatum come up with from their experiment?

A

One-gene/ one-enzyme

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13
Q

What has the one-gene/ one enzyme hypothesis been modified to?

A

one-gene/one- polypeptide hypothesis

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14
Q

What does the central dogma describe?

A

information flow

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15
Q

Who was the central dogma first described by?

A

Francis Crick

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16
Q

How does information flow?

A

DNA–> RNA–> protein

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17
Q

What part of the information flow is transcription?

A

DNA_-> RNA (both nucleic acids)

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18
Q

What part of the information flow is translation?

A

RNA–> Protein (from nucleic acid to protein)

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19
Q

How do retroviruses violate the information flow?

A

They use reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA genome into DNA

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20
Q

What are the steps of Transcription?

A
  1. DNA-directed synthesis of RNA
    2.Only one strand of DNA copied as RNA
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21
Q

What strand in transcription is copied as RNA?

A

the template strand (sense)

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22
Q

What is the strand in transcription that is used as a template called?

A

noncoding strand (antisense)

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23
Q

In RNA, what is thymine replaced by?

A

Uracil

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24
Q

What is used to direct synthesis of polypeptides in transcription?

A

mRNA

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25
Q

T or F: all RNA is synthesized from a DNA templated by transcription

A

True

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26
Q

What kind of RNA is part of the machinery involved in the processing of “pre-mRNA” in splicing?

A

small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

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27
Q

What kind of RNA is a mediator for proteins synthesized on the rough ER?

A

signal recognition particle RNA (SRP RNA)

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28
Q

What kind of RNA is involved in control of gene expression?

A

small RNAS

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29
Q

What are the two types of small RNAS?

A

miRNA and siRNA

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30
Q

About the genetic code, what did Francis Cric and Sydney Brenner determine?

A

How the order of nucleotides in DNA encoded amino acid order

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31
Q

What is a block of three DNA nucleotides corresponding to an amino acid called?

32
Q

What type of mutation deals with inserting or deleting a single nucleotide?

A

frameshift mutations

33
Q

If you add or delete 1 or 2 nucleotides, what does it shift?

A

the genetic message

34
Q

If you add or delete 3 nucleotides, what is the result?

A

the addition or deletion of a protein

35
Q

What did Crick and Brenner conclude from their experiments of adding and deleting nucleotides?

A

That the genetic code is read in increments of three nucleotides, and read continuously

36
Q

T or F: Codons specify amino acids

37
Q

Who identified the codons that specify each amino acids?

A

Marshall Nirenberg

38
Q

What do stop codons do?

A

They terminate translation

39
Q

How many start codons are there, and what are their names?

A

Three
1. UAA
2.UGA
3. UAG

40
Q

What does the start codon do?

A

It signifies the start of translation

41
Q

How many start codons are there, and what are their names?

42
Q

Genetic code is ________, which means that some amino acids are specified by more than one codon.

A

degenerate

43
Q

T or F: Genetic code is practically universal

44
Q

What is the most substantial evidence that all living things share a common ancestry?

A

That genetic code is practically universal

45
Q

What two organelles of the cell have some differences in genetic code?

A

Mitochondria and chloroplast

46
Q

How many RNA polymerases do prokaryotes have?

A

a single RNA polymerase

47
Q

What are the two forms of RNA polymerase?

A
  1. core polymerase
  2. Holoenzyme
48
Q

Why is the Holoenzyme needed for RNA polymerase?

A

Because its addition of the sigma subunits is needed to accurately initiate synthesis

49
Q

What does transcription not require?

50
Q

What forms the recognition and binding site for RNA polymerase in transcription?

A

the promoter

51
Q

What is the actual site where RNA synthesis begins in transcription?

A

start site

52
Q

What signals the end of transcription?

A

The Terminator

53
Q

What is the region from the promoter to the terminator called?

A

the transcription unit

54
Q

What are some characteristics of the promoter?

A
  1. found upstream of the start site
  2. not transcribed
  3. it is asymmetrical- it indicates the site of the initial and direction of transcription
55
Q

What are the steps of transcription: elongation?

A
  1. RNA chains grows in the 5’ to 3’ direction as ribonucleotides are added
  2. After the transcription bubble passes, the now-transcribed DNA is rewound as it leaves the bubble
56
Q

What complex contains RNA polymerase, DNA template, and growing RNA transcript?

A

Transcription bubble

57
Q

T or F: termination occurs at specific sites

58
Q

What happens when the stop signal is sequenced to RNA polymerase?

A

1.RNA-DNA hybrid within the transcription bubble dissociated
2. RNA polymerase release the DNA
3. DNA rewinds

59
Q

What is the series of G-C base- pairs followed by a series of A-T base-pairs in transcription called?

A

the simplest terminator

60
Q

How does the simplest terminator work?

A

It forms a hairpin, which results in the dissociation of RNA from DNA in the transcription bubble

61
Q

What does the hairpin cause in transcription?

A

RNA polymerase to pause at uracil

62
Q

What bonds are the weakest bonds in transcription?

63
Q

In prokaryotes, what are coupled together?

A

transcription and translation

64
Q

How are transcription and translation coupled?

A

mRNA begins to be translated before transcription is finished

65
Q

How many RNA polymerases do Eukaryotes have?

66
Q

In Eukaryotes, what does RNA pol I do?

A

transcribes rRNA

67
Q

In Eukaryotes, what does RNA polymerase II do?

A

It transcribes mRNA and some snRNA

68
Q

In Eukaryotes, what does RNA polymerase III do?

A

it transcribes tRNA an some other small RNAS

69
Q

Each RNA polymerase recognizes its own _____

70
Q

RNA pol I promoters are ______ specific

71
Q

RNA Pol II promoters consist of a ______ promoter which includes the _____ _____

A

core, tata BOX

72
Q

Where are most RNA pol III promoters found?

A

within the gene itself

73
Q

IN Eukaryotes, what causes the initiation of transcription?

A

the pol II promoters

74
Q

Why are RNA pols II required in transcription?

A
  1. they ae necessary to get the RNA pol II enzyme to a promoter to initiate gene expression
  2. They interact with RNA polymerase to form initiation complex at promoter
75
Q

What structural feature coordinates elongation complex factors?

A

the carboxyl terminal domation (CTD)

76
Q

In eukaryotes, the primary transcript must be modified to become ______ mRNA

77
Q

What does mature mRNA consist of?

A
  1. addition of a 5’ cap
  2. addition of 3’ poly- A- tail
  3. removal of introns

Bio 214 (23 decks)

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