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SAC Microbiology > Lecture 12 > Flashcards

Lecture 12 Flashcards

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1
Q

A key feature of an effective vaccine is that it should ____.

A

not harm the host

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2
Q

Vaccination should also not require ____ to achieve protection.

A

many boosters

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3
Q

An effective commercial vaccine should not harm the person being vaccinated. It should, however, stimulate ____.

A

B cell (antibody) and T-cell responses.

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4
Q

Passive immunity is a type of immunotherapy where ____.

A

preformed antibodies are administered to the patient

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5
Q

Examples of passive immunity do not include ____.

A

injection of a weakened pathogen

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6
Q

Amyloid deposits form in which of the following cancers?

A

multiple myeloma

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7
Q

Because multiple myeloma develops in the ____, plasma cells multiplying to large numbers and continue to make and secrete incomplete ____.

A

bone marrow; antibodies

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8
Q

An example of a primary immunodeficiency is ____.

A

DiGeorge syndrome

X-SCID or Bare Lymphocyte as well

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9
Q

Primary immunodeficiencies have a genetic basis usually manifest in ____.

A

Early childhood

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10
Q

____ causes a defect in the development of the thymus and parathyroid glands.

A

DiGeorge syndrome

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11
Q

B-cell deficiencies are the most common immunodeficiencies. They include all of the following EXCEPT ____.

A

bare lymphocyte syndrome

BLS lacks MHC II, so never activates Th0, and therefore never activates B cells

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12
Q

Bare lymphocyte syndrome is a rare disease caused by a failure to express ____ molecules on antigen-presenting cells.

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) II

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13
Q

Bare lymphocyte syndrome produces severe defect in ___ and ___ immunity.

A

cellular and humoral

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14
Q

Cancer, or a neoplasm, is defined as ____.

A

a new growth of abnormal cells

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15
Q

Epinephrine is used to treat which type of hypersensitivity?

A

type I

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16
Q

Epinephrine works to prevent ____ of the mast cells and ultimately prevents the release of the chemical mediators histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.

A

degranulation

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17
Q

These are released in type I hypersensitivities.

A

histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins

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18
Q

Hypersensitivities are triggered by a(n) ____.

A

allergen

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19
Q

In most severe combined immunodeficiencies, the deficiency is caused by a lack of ____.

A

T-cells

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20
Q

Most severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are characterized by a lack of ___. However, B-cells and natural killer (NK) cell numbers can also be low, high, or even normal.

A

T-cells

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21
Q

Monoclonal antibodies originate from ____.

A

a single antibody-producing B-cell clone

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22
Q

Type II hypersensitivities start with antibody binding to ____.

A

cell-surface antigens (such as red blood cells)

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23
Q

What is the main cause of organ rejection?

A

T-cells recognize and bind to allotypic MHC proteins on cells

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24
Q

Which assay can be used in blood typing?

A

agglutination

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25
Q

Which assay can be used to measure the amount of IgA in a patient’s serum?

A

radial immunodiffusion assay

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26
Q

Which hypersensitivity is triggered by antigen-specific T cells?

A

type IV

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27
Q

Which of the following is true regarding herd immunity?

A

it occurs when a large portion of the population is vaccinated

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28
Q

Which of the following vaccine types uses live but weakened pathogen to achieve vaccination?

A

attenuated

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29
Q

Amyloid deposits form in which of the following cancers?

A

multiple myeloma

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30
Q

Type II hypersensitivities start with antibody binding to _____.

A

cell surface antigens

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31
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity requires sensitization of mast cells with IgE.

A

Type I

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32
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivities result from antibodies binding to antigens on cells and initiating cytotoxic responses

A

Type II

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33
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivities result from formation and accumulation of immune complexes in tissues

A

Type III

34
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivities are not mediated by antibodies, but by helper T-cell activation of macrophages, eosinophils, and cytotoxic T cells.

A

Type IV

35
Q

Primary immunodeficiencies are caused by

A

genetic abnormalities

36
Q

____ are acquired through disease, diet, or environmental exposures.

A

secondary immunodeficiencies

37
Q

____ may result from flaws in phagocyte killing of innate immunity, or impairment of T cells and B cells

A

Primary immunodeficiencies

38
Q

____ result from environmentally induced defects in B cells and/or T cells.

A

Secondary immunodeficiencies

39
Q

Causes for ____ include malnutrition, viral infection, diabetes, prolonged infections, and chemical or radiation exposure.

A

secondary immunodeficiencies

40
Q

Which of the following is the type of cell largely responsible for type I hypersensitivity responses?

A) erythrocyte
B) mast cell
C) T lymphocyte
D) antibody

A

B) mast cell

41
Q

Type I hypersensitivities require which of the
following initial priming events to occur?

A) sensitization
B) secondary immune response
C) cellular trauma
D) degranulation

A

A) sensitization

42
Q

Which of the following are the main mediators/initiators of type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A. antibodies
B. mast cells
C. erythrocytes
D. histamines

A

A. antibodies

43
Q

Inflammatory molecules are released by mast
cells in type I hypersensitivities; type II
hypersensitivities, however, are characterized by
which of the following?

A. cell lysis (cytotoxicity)
B. strong antibody reactions against antigens
C. leukotriene release upon stimulation
D. localized tissue reactions, such as hives

A

A. cell lysis (cytotoxicity)

44
Q

An immune complex is an aggregate of which of
the following?

A. antibody molecules
B. antigen molecules
C. antibody and antigen molecules
D. histamine molecules

A

C. antibody and antigen molecules

45
Q

Which of the following is a common treatment for
type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A. anti-inflammatory steroid treatments
B. antihistamine treatments
C. hyposensitization injections of allergens
D. RhoGAM injections

A

A. anti-inflammatory steroid treatments

46
Q

Which of the following induces a type III hypersensitivity?

A. release of inflammatory molecules from mast cells
B. accumulation of immune complexes in tissues and small blood vessels
C. destruction of cells bound by antigens
D. destruction of cells bound by antibodies

A

B. accumulation of immune complexes in tissues and small blood vessels

47
Q

Which one of the following is not an example of a type IV hypersensitivity?

A. latex allergy
B. Contact dermatitis (e.g., contact with poison ivy)
C. a positive tuberculin skin test
D. hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

D. hemolytic disease of the newborn

48
Q

Which of the following is an example of an organ specific autoimmune disease?

A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. psoriasis
C. Addison disease
D. myasthenia gravis

A

C. Addison disease

49
Q

Which of the following is an example of a
systemic autoimmune disease?

A. Hashimoto thyroiditis
B. type I diabetes mellitus
C. Graves disease
D. myasthenia gravis

A

D. myasthenia gravis

50
Q

Which of the following is a genetic disease that results in lack of production of antibodies?

A. agammaglobulinemia
B. myasthenia gravis
C. HIV/AIDS
D. chronic granulomatous disease

A

A. agammaglobulinemia

51
Q

Which of the following is a genetic disease that results in almost no adaptive immunity due to lack of B and/ or T cells?

A. agammaglobulinemia
B. severe combined immunodeficiency
C. HIV/AIDS
D. chronic granulomatous disease

A

B. severe combined immunodeficiency

52
Q

All but which one of the following are examples of secondary immunodeficiencies?

A. HIV/AIDS
B. malnutrition
C. chronic granulomatous disease
D. immunosuppression due to measles
infection
A

C. chronic granulomatous disease

53
Q

Cancer results when a mutation leads to which
of the following?

A. cell death
B. apoptosis
C. loss of cell-cycle control
D. shutdown of the cell cycle

A

C. loss of cell-cycle control

54
Q

Tumor antigens are _______ that are
inappropriately expressed and found on abnormal cells.

A. self antigens
B. foreign antigens
C. antibodies
D. T-cell receptors

A

A. self antigens

55
Q

Antibodies involved in type I hypersensitivities are of the ____ class immunoglobulin.

A

IgE

56
Q

Allergy shots work by shifting antibody

responses to produce ____ antibodies.

A

IgG

57
Q

The itchy and blistering rash that develops with
contact to poison ivy is caused by a type
_____ hypersensitivity reaction

A

type IV

58
Q

For a transplant to have the best chances of avoiding rejection, the genes coding for the _____ molecules should be closely matched between donor and recipient

A

MHC

59
Q

Diseases due to _____ abnormalities are termed primary immunodeficiencies

A

genetic

60
Q

A secondary immunodeficiency is _____,

rather than genetic

A

acquired

61
Q

Examples of primary immunodeficiencies include:

A

chronic granulomatous disease, agammaglobulinemia, selective IgA deficiency, and severe combined immunodeficiency disease.

62
Q

genetic disorder resulting in impaired function of B cells and T cells

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

63
Q

primary immunodeficiency in which individuals produce normal levels of IgG and IgM, but are unable to produce secretory IgA

A

Selective IgA deficiency

64
Q

Disorder of inability to produce secretory IgA

A

Selective IgA deficiency

65
Q

Impaired killing of bacteria within the phagolysosome of neutrophils and macrophages

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

66
Q

What disease is characterized by deficient humoral and cell-mediated immune responses

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

67
Q

Cause of X-SCID (t cell disorder)

A

Defective receptors for IL-2; leads to poor T cell growth & proliferation

68
Q

Cause of DiGeorge syndrome (t cell disorder)

A

Defective development of thymus and parathyroid, therefore no T cells

69
Q

Cause of bare lymphocyte syndrome (t cell disorder)

A

MHC II deficiency; never activates Th0, therefore never activates B cells either

70
Q

Cause of Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia (b cell disorder)

A

Defective tyrosine kinase; b cells never mature

71
Q

What is the most common immunodeficiency disorder?

A

Selective IgA deficiency

72
Q

immune system functions to detect and eliminate cancer cells, which are marked with surface antigens not on normal cells, as they arise

A

Immune surveillance

73
Q

Requirements of an effective vaccine

A

It should not harm the person being vaccinated.
It should stimulate B-cell and T-cell responses.
It should result in long-term memory.
It should not require many boosters.
It should protect against the natural pathogen.

74
Q

Vaccine that exposes an individual to a weakened strain of a pathogen; activate both cellular and humoral immunity and stimulate the development of memory

A

Live attenuated vaccine

75
Q

Vaccine contains whole pathogens that have been killed or inactivated; resulting immune response is weaker and less comprehensive

A

Inactivated vaccine

76
Q

vaccines that only expose the patient to the key antigens of a pathogen—not whole cells or viruses

A

Subunit vaccines

77
Q

vaccines that are used to prevent diseases in which bacterial toxins play an important role in pathogenesis

A

Toxoid vaccines

78
Q

Vaccine consists of a protein joined to a capsule

polysaccharide

A

Conjugate vaccines

79
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity is IgE mediated and can manifest as eczema or asthma

A

Type I

80
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity antibodies are directed against cell surface antigens, such as in blood transfusions.

A

Type II

81
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity antibodies bound to antigens that cause mast cell and PMN degranulation

A

Type III

82
Q

Type ___ hypersensitivity memory Th1 cells release cytokines that recruit and activate macrophages.

A

Type IV

SAC Microbiology (19 decks)

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