LEC 15 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the blood banking stain

A

Sudan black b

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2
Q

are granulocytes pos or neg when stained with specific esterase

A

pos

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3
Q

what is myeloperoxidase (MPO) and Sudan black b used for

A

differentiating the blast of AML from ALL

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4
Q

leukemic myeloblast are ___ for myeloperoxidase (MPO)

A

pos

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5
Q

what stains strongly MPO pos in leukemic blasts

A

auer rods

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6
Q

lymphoblast in ALL and lymphoid cells are MPO ___

A

neg

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7
Q

what part of the cell does Sudan black b (SBB) stain

A

lipids

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8
Q

is MPO or SBB more sensitive

A

SBB

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9
Q

SBB: granulocytes ___, monocytes ___ , and lymphoid cells ___

A

neg, neg to weak pos, and neg

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10
Q

what are esterase stains used for

A

distinguishing acute leukemias that are granulocytic from leukemias that originate from monocytes

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11
Q

naphthol AS-D chloroacetate: granulocytic cells ___ and monocytic cells ___

A

pos, neg to weak

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12
Q

esterases: leukemic myeloblast ___ and auer rods ___

A

pos, pos

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13
Q

alpha- Naphthyl acetate: monocytes ___ and lymphoid and granulocytes ____

A

pos, neg

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14
Q

what is added to alpha-naphthol acetate in a pos monocyte reaction to inhibit it

A

sodium fluoride

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15
Q

what is the use for acid phosphatase

A

diagnose T cell ALL and hairy cell leukemia

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16
Q

what stain confirms hairy cell leukemia

A

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

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17
Q

what does periodic acid Schiff reaction stain

A

glycogen in all hematopoietic cells

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18
Q

what does periodic acid Schiff reaction stain ID in AML and MDS (amyloid dysplastic syndrome)

A

erythroblast and dysplastic megakaryocytes

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19
Q

how many pairs of chromosomes do humans have

A

23

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20
Q

what mitogen stimulates lymphocytes

A

PHA

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21
Q

what agent is added to halt cell division in cytogenetics

A

colcemid

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22
Q

what agent is added to spread chromosomes apart in cytogenetics

A

KCL

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23
Q

during what phase of cell division are chromosomes squashed

A

metaphase

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24
Q

what stain is used for chromosomes in cytogenetics

A

DNA-binding dyes

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25
Q

what kind of patterns help ID chromosomes

A

banding

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26
Q

def? abnormal amount of chromosomes such as having an single extra chromosome or missing one

A

aneuploidy

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27
Q

def? more than 2 sets of chromosomes (all chromosomes are affected)

A

polyploidy

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28
Q

what kind of chromosome abnormality causes Klinefelter syndrome

A

aneuploidy

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29
Q

def? one chromosome is absent

A

monosomy

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30
Q

def? one chromosome extra

A

trisomy

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31
Q

monosomy and trisomy are examples of what kind of chromosome abnormality

A

aneuploidy

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32
Q

def? 2 chromosomes join long arms or exchange parts

A

translocation

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33
Q

def? segment of chromosome is reversed

A

inversion

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34
Q

def? a chromosome with identical arms

A

isochromosome

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35
Q

def? a chromosome that forms a ring due to deletion in telomeres, which cause ends to adhere

A

ring chromosome

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36
Q

what causes chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

Spontaneous chromosome mutation

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37
Q

what molecular technique amplifies a short piece of DNA multiple times

A

PCR

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38
Q

T or F: dead cells can be used in PCR

A

T

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39
Q

what enzyme do dead cells release

A

proteinases

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40
Q

what catalyzes the degradation of RNA into smaller components.

A

ribonuclease

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41
Q

is PCR qualitative or quantitative

A

quantitative

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42
Q

what kind of PCR: amplify DNA from a small amount of DNA template

A

PCR

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43
Q

what kind of PCR: uses reverse transcription to produce a DNA template from an RNA source that can then be amplified.

A

reverse transcription PCR

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44
Q

def? small number of cancer cells in the body after cancer treatment

A

minimal residual disease

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45
Q

what test is more specific for detecting minimal residual disease

A

molecular methods

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46
Q

what type of leukemia has a rapid trend

A

acute

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47
Q

what type of leukemia has an accumulation of blast

A

acute

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48
Q

what type of leukemia has a problem at the primitive level

A

acute

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49
Q

what type of leukemia has an accumulation of mature cells

A

chronic

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50
Q

can the mature cells in chronic leukemia function

A

no

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51
Q

what type of leukemia has a slow trend

A

chronic

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52
Q

what is the common childhood leukemia

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

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53
Q

do kids or adults have a better response to therapy in acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

kids

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54
Q

what type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common

A

B cell ALL

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55
Q

what type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia has lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly

A

B cell ALL

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56
Q

what type of acute lymphoblastic leukemia has a large mass in the mediastinum

A

T cell ALL

57
Q

what kind of prognosis does b lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2);BCR-ABL1 have

A

very bad!

58
Q

who is likely to get lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2);BCR-ABL1

A

adults

59
Q

who is likely to get lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(v;11q23.3);KMT2A (MLL)

A

very young infants

60
Q

when does lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with t(v;11q23.3);KMT2A (MLL) translocation occur

A

in utero

61
Q

b lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma with hypodiploidy prognosis

A

poor in both kids and adults

62
Q

what kind of ALL: small blast with thin rim of cytoplasm, blast are all the same size

A

Pre B ALL (L1)

63
Q

what kind of ALL: irregular clefts of nucleus

A

T cell ALL (L2)

64
Q

what kind of ALL: blast have vacuolations

A

burkett lymphoma- mature B cell ALL (L3)

65
Q

what is the immunophenotype of early (pro/pre-pre) B-ALL

A

CD34, CD19, cytoplasmic CD22, and TdT

66
Q

what is the immunophenotype of intermediate (common) B-ALL

A

CD34, CD19, CD10, cytoplasmic CD22, and TdT

67
Q

what is the immunophenotype of pre b ALL (4)

A

CD19, cytoplasmic CD22, cytoplasmic µ, TdT (variable)

68
Q

what is the immunophenotype of T ALL

A

CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD7, CD8, and TdT

69
Q

what condition is common in teen males with a mediastinal mass, elevated peripheral blast count, and meningeal involvement

A

T- ALL

70
Q

what condition can have hand mirror forms

A

ALL

71
Q

what is known as the eythroid marker

A

cCD79a

72
Q

def? cell expresses a marker that it shouldn’t

A

aberrant expression

73
Q

what test must be preformed when diagnosing acute leukemias

A

BM aspiration/biopsy

74
Q

what will the BM of ALL look like

A

hypercellular

75
Q

what will tell you if a cell is a myloidblast

A

auer rods

76
Q

what kind of leukemia? accumulation of abnormal blast cells in marrow and impaired production of normal blood cells

A

acute myelogenous leukemia

77
Q

what is the most common type of leukemia in adults

A

acute myelogenous leukemia

78
Q

what are the symptoms of acute myelogenous leukemia

A
  • risk of DIC
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
79
Q

what will the BM of acute myelogenous leukemia pts look like

A

hyper cellular with more than 20% blast

80
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: minimally differentiated

A

M0

81
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: no maturation

A

M0

82
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: with maturation

A

M2

83
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

M3

84
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute myelomonocytic leukemia

A

M4

85
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute myelomonocytic leukemia with eosinophilia

A

M4eo

86
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute monocytes leukemia, poorly diff

A

M5a

87
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute monocytes leukemia, well differentiated

A

M5b

88
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute erythroleukemia

A

M6

89
Q

what subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia: acute megakaryocytic leukemia

A

M7

90
Q

who is more likely to have acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21) (q22;q22.1); RUNX1/RUNX1T1

A

kids

91
Q

what leukemia has pseudo-pelter-huet cells

A

acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21) (q22;q22.1); RUNX1/RUNX1T1

92
Q

what AML has myeloblast, mono blast, and promyelocytes in PB and BM

A

acute myeloid leukemia with inv(16) (p13.1q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22);CBFB-MYH11

93
Q

what stages does acute promyelocytic leukemia with PML-RARA stop diff

A

promyelocyte stage

94
Q

people with acute promyelocytic leukemia with PML-RARA are at risk of

A

DIC

95
Q

where is the translocation in acute promyelocytic leukemia with PML-RARA

A

15;17

96
Q

what kind of AML has an increase of mono blast and immature monocytes

A

acute myeloid leukemia with t(9;11) (p22;q23);KMT2A (MLL)-MLLT3

97
Q

AML M0: MPO ____ and SBB ____

A

neg
neg

98
Q

AML M1: MPO __ and SBB ___

A

pos
pos

99
Q

who is mostly likely to get MPNs

A

seniors

100
Q

what causes MPN

A

gene mutations in HSC

101
Q

what do gene mutation in HSC do

A

increase proliferation in all cell lines

102
Q

what cell is the most increased in polycythemia vera

A

erthrocytosis

103
Q

what mutation do polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia, and primary myelofibrosis

A

JAK2 mutation

104
Q

what mutation does CML have

A

Ph chromosome

105
Q

CML: basophils are ____

A

increased

106
Q

CML: LAP ____

A

decreased

107
Q

what is the M:E ratio of CML

A

10:1

108
Q

what is the treatment for CML

A

sleenomagaly. and clevec

109
Q

what does a mutated Philadelphia chromosome and BCR/ABL fusion gene activate

A

protein kinase –> proliferation of cells

110
Q

what is other lab finding of CML

A

increase in uric acid

111
Q

during a CML blast crisis how do pt respond to therapy

A

poorly

112
Q

what % of blast will be present during a blast crisis in CML

A

10 to 19%

113
Q

what can a CML blast crisis transform into

A

acute lymphoid or acute myeloid leukemia

114
Q

what are the 4 criteria for polycythemia vera diagnosis

A
  • increased hb and hct
  • BM hypercellularity
  • ID of JAK2 mut
  • low serum EPO levels
115
Q

people with polycythemia vera are at risk of(3)

A

hemorrhage, tissue infarction, and thrombosis

116
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? red cell mass always increased

A

PV

117
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? EPO is decreased

A

PV

118
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? arterial o2 saturation is normal

A

PV

119
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? leukocytosis and increased plts

A

PV

120
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? splenomegaly

A

PV

121
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? red cell mass can be increased

A

secondary hypoxia

122
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? BM only erythroid hyperplasia

A

secondary hypoxia

123
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? EPO increased

A

secondary hypoxia

123
Q

PV or secondary hypoxia? arterial o2 saturation is decreased

A

secondary hypoxia

124
Q

what are the clinical features of PV

A

thrombosis and hemorrhage

125
Q

what condition cause blood vessels in face to be red

A

PV

126
Q

what is the therapy for PV

A

giving their own blood

127
Q

what are the PBS findings of essential thrombocythemia

A
  • neutrophilia with slight left shift
  • increase in PLts
128
Q

T or F: plts function properly in essential thrombocythemia

A

F

129
Q

what are the complications of essential thrombocythemia

A

hemorrhage and thrombosis

130
Q

what will the BM look like of essential throbocythemia

A

hypercellularity with marked megakaryocytic hyperplasia

131
Q

disease? abnormal clone of megakaryocyteds stimulate the BM fibroblast to produce collagen

A

primary myelofibrosis

132
Q

what do fibroblastic growth factors release

A

plt derived growth factors

133
Q

describe the BM tap from a primary myelofibrosis pt

A

dry tap

134
Q

what kind of hematopoiesis do primary myelofibrosis pts do

A

extra medullary

135
Q

diagnosis:
- immature granulocytes
- nRBCs
- teardrop cells
- giant plts

A

primary myelofibrosis

136
Q

what CBC parameter is increased in CML

A

WBC

137
Q

what CBC parameter is increased in pv

A

RBC

138
Q

what CBC parameter is increased in essential thrombocythemia

A

plt