Leadership Exam 2 Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

What stage of team formation involves the members getting to know each other and the leader defining tasks/offering direction?

A

forming

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2
Q

At what stage of team formation does conflict arise?

A

storming

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3
Q

At what stage of team formation are rules established and roles are taken on?

A

storming

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4
Q

What happens in the norming stage of team formation?

A
  • rule establishment
  • members show respect for one another
  • tasks begin to be accomplished
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5
Q

What is the focus during the performing stage of team formation?

A

the accomplishment of tasks

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6
Q

What is used to support change with the rational-empirical change strategy?

A

factual information

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7
Q

When is the rational-empirical change strategy used?

A

when resistance to change is minimal

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8
Q

What is used to support change with the normative-reduction change strategy?

A

interprofessional relationships

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9
Q

What is used to support change with the power-coercive change strategy?

A

rewards

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10
Q

When is the power-coercive change strategy used?

A

when individuals are highly resistant to change

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11
Q

How long is case management used for?

A

from the time the client starts receiving care until they no longer receive services

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12
Q

What is the goal of case management?

A

to avoid fragmentation of care and control cost

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13
Q

What is the nurse’s roles (6) om case management?

A
  • coordinating care
  • facilitating continuity of care
  • improving the efficiency of care and utilization of resources
  • enhancing quality of care
  • limiting unnecessary costs and lengthy stays
  • advocating
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14
Q

What are critical pathways used for?

A

to support the implementation of clinical guidelines and protocols

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15
Q

What are critical pathways usually based on?

A

cost and length of stay parameters

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16
Q

When is a variance documented?

A

when a client requires treatment other than what is typical or requires a longer length of stay

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17
Q

Who is a professional who provides expert advice in a particular area?

A

a consultant

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18
Q

What is a referral?

A

a formal request for service by another care provider

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19
Q

What are examples (6) of why a discharge referral can be made?

A
  • canes
  • walkers
  • wheelchairs
  • home health nurses
  • hospice nurses
  • home health aide
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20
Q

When should discharge planning start?

A

upon admission

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21
Q

When is it the nurse’s role to provide written and verbal reports of the client’s status and care needs?

A

transfers

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22
Q

What information is pertinent for a nurse to give during transfer?

A
  • diagnosis and providers
  • demographic information
  • health status, plan of care, recent progress
  • alterations that can precipitate immediate concern
  • most recent vitals and meds
  • assessment or care needed within the next few hours
  • diet and activity prescriptions
  • presence/need for specific equipment or adaptive devices
  • family involvement and health care proxy
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23
Q

What does a discharge plan include a review of?

A
  • the need for additional service
  • current health and prognosis
  • religious beliefs
  • ability to perform ADL’s
  • mobility status and goals
  • sensory, motor, physical, or cognitive impairments
  • support systems
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24
Q

What instructions should be given at discharge?

A
  • home procedure step-by-step instructions
  • medication regimen
  • medication adverse effects
  • names/numbers of provider and community resources
  • plans for follow-up care and therapies
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25
What does a written summary include prior to discharge?
- type - date and time - who accompanied a client - how the client was transported - condition - destination - disposition of valuables, meds brought from home, and prescriptions - copy of discharge instructions
26
What does the PSDA say the client must be informed of upon admission?
their right to accept and refuse care
27
What identifies clients' rights in the health care settings in the Patient Care Partnership?
the AHA
28
What should be done if the patient refuses treatment or wants to leave the hospital without approval from the provider?
- notify the provider - discussion of potential risks/complications - documentation - sign an AMA form
29
What are some situations where advocacy would be necessary?
- end-of-life decisions - access to healthcare - protection of client privacy - informed consent - substandard practice
30
What skills are important for advocacy?
- risk-taking - vision - self-confidence - articulate communication - assertiveness
31
What values are important for advocacy?
- caring - autonomy - respect - empowerment
32
When is written consent required?
invasive procedures or surgeries
33
Who can grant consent for another person?
- parent of a minor - legal guardian - court-specified representative - health care surrogate - spouse or closest to kin
34
What does the provider do for informed consent?
- explain procedure - who will be performing the procedure - possible harm, pain, or discomfort - other treatments and possible consequences - right to refuse - risk of no treatment
35
What does the nurse do for informed consent?
- witness signature - ensure the provider gave adequate info and the client understood it - ensure client competency - notify the provider if pt has more thoughts/questions/concerns
36
What does the nurse document for informed consent?
- reinforcement of information - forward client questions to the provider - use of interpreter
37
What is a legal document that expresses the client's wishes regarding medical treatment if the client cannot express it themselves?
a living will
38
What is a legal document that designates a healthcare surrogate to make healthcare decisions for a client who is unable?
a durable power of attorney
39
What is the nurse's role with advanced directives?
- provide written info - document AD status - ensure the AD is current - recognize that the client's choice takes priority over the family or provider - inform members of the healthcare team of the client's AD
40
Who can access a client's healthcare records?
only healthcare team members that are directly responsible for the client's care
41
When can part of the client record be copied?
ONLY for authorized exchange of documents between healthcare institutions
42
What can a nurse use an electronic format for?
- laptop: documentation - medication dispensing system: dispense meds
43
What can a nurse use databases for?
review meds, diseases, procedures, treatments
44
When are computers beneficial for clients?
- visual impairments - access EHR online
45
What type of law relates to an individual's relationship with the government?
criminal law
46
Is a misdemeanor or felony more serious?
felony
47
What does civil law protect?
the individual rights of people (torts)
48
What are unintentional torts?
negligence and malpractice
49
What is practice or misconduct that does not meet expected standards of care and places the client at risk for injury?
negligene
50
What is practice or misconduct that does not meet expected standards of care and places the client at risk for injury?
negligence
51
What is defamation?
- false communication - communication with careless disregard for the truth - intent to injure an individual's reputation
52
What type of defamation is through written word or photographs?
libel
53
What type of defamation is through spoken word?
slander
54
What makes another person fearful and apprehensive (threat)?
assault
55
What is intentional or wrongful contact that involves injury or offensive contact?
battery
56
What is false imprisonment?
a competent person not at risk for injury to self or others is confined or restrained against their will
57
What are examples of federal regulations (7)?
- HIPAA - ADA - Mental Health Parity Act - Patient Self-Determination - Uniform Anatomical Gift Act - National Organ Transplant Act - Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
58
What do Boards of Nursing do (4)?
- adopt rules/regulations - issue/revoke a nursing license - set standards for nursing programs - tell the scope of practice
59
What laws protect nurses who provide emergency assistance outside of the employment location?
good samaritan laws
60
What elements are necessary to prove malpractice (5)?
1. duty to provide care as defined by a standard 2. breach of duty by failure to meet standard 3. foreseeability of harm 4. breach of duty has potential to cause harm 5. harm occurs
61
Where are standards of care found?
the nurse practice act of each state
62
Who develops published standards of nursing practice?
professional organizations - ANA and specialty organizations
63
What is an example of an accrediting body?
the joint commission
64
What does failure mode and effects analysis examine?
potential failures in designs, including event sequencing risks, vulnerabilities, and improvement areas
65
What are national patient safety goals used for?
augmenting core measures and promoting client safety
66
How is client safety promoted (6)?
- client identification - effective staff communication - safe medication use - infection prevention - safety risk identification - preventing wrong-site surgery
67
Where are healthcare policies and procedures maintained?
in the facility's policy and procedure manual
68
What happens if a nurse practices according to institutional policy and the care still results in injury?
the nurse is legally protected
69
What is mandatory to report (3)?
- suspected child abuse - suspected violence or neglect against vulnerable persons (older/dependent adults) - communicable disease
70
What can reporting communicable diseases help with (6)?
- ensure proper medical tx - monitor for common-source outbreaks - plan and evaluate control/prevention plans - identify outbreaks/epidemics - determine public health priorities based on trends - educate the community on prevention and tx
71
What regulates organ and tissue donation?
federal and state laws
72
How can you tell if someone wants to donate their organs?
- stipulated in a will - designated on an official card
73
What are nurses responsible for regarding organ donation?
Answering questions and providing emotional support