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Level 3 > Families Exam 3 > Flashcards

Families Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of parenting controls the child’s behavior through unquestioned rules/expectations?

A

dictatorial/authoritarian

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2
Q

Which type of parenting has little/no control over a child’s behavior?

A

permissive

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3
Q

Which type of parenting consults with the child when making decisions?

A

permissive

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4
Q

Which type of parenting directs the child’s behavior by setting rules and explaining their reasoning?

A

democratic/authoritative

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5
Q

Which type of parenting are the parents uninvolved or emotionally removed?

A

passive

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6
Q

Does a single parent family increase the risk of child abuse?

A

NO

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7
Q

What does a family assessment include? (7)

A
  • history
  • structure
  • developmental tasks
  • family characteristics
  • family stressors
  • environment
  • family support system
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8
Q

When can a toddler stand independently?

A

12 months

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9
Q

What can a toddler do at 15 months?

A
  • walk without help
  • use a cup well
  • build a tower of 2 blocks
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10
Q

When can a toddler run clumsily, jump in place with both feet, build a tower of 3-4 blocks, and turn 2-3 pages in a book?

A

18 months

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11
Q

When can a toddler walk up and down stairs?

A

2 years

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12
Q

How many blocks can a 2 year old stack?

A

6-7

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13
Q

When can a toddler turn pages in a book one at a time?

A

2 years

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14
Q

What can a toddler do at 2.5 years?

A
  • jump across the floor
  • tiptoe
  • draw circles
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15
Q

What stages of cognitive development does a toddler experience? When does the stage change?

A
  • sensorimotor to preoperational
  • changes at 19-24 months
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16
Q

When is object permanence fully developmed?

A

toddlerhood

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17
Q

How many words does a 2 y/o know?

A

300

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18
Q

What type of sentences does a 2 y/o use? How many words are usually in a sentence?

A
  • multiword sentences
  • 2-3 words
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19
Q

What type of sentences does a 3 y/o use? How many words are usually in a sentence?

A
  • simple sentences
  • several words
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20
Q

What stage of psychosocial development is a toddler in?

A

autonomy vs. shame and doubt

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21
Q

What type of play do toddlers use?

A

parallel play

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22
Q

What age group does domestic mimicry occur?

A

toddlers

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23
Q

When do toddlers get the IPV (inactivated poliovirus), HIB (haemophilus influenzae type B), HCV (pneumococcal conjugate vaccine), MMR (measles/mumps/rubella), and varicella immunizations?

A

12-15 months

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24
Q

When is the third dose of the IPV vaccine given?

A

6-18 months

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25
Q

What immunization is given at 12-23 months?

A

Hep A (2 doses at least 6 months apart)

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26
Q

When is the DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis) immunization given?

A

15-18 months

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27
Q

When is the yearly seasonal trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine given?

A

12-36 months

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28
Q

How and when is the live, attenuated influenza vaccine given?

A
  • nasal spray
  • 2 years or older
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29
Q

How much juice can a toddler have per day?

A

4-6 oz/day

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30
Q

How much milk can a toddler have per day?

A

24-28 oz/day

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31
Q

What is a serving size in a toddler?

A

1 tsp per year of age

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32
Q

What should be avoided in a toddler’s nutrition?

A
  • high sugar/fat/sodium
  • choking hazards
  • eating/drinking while playing
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33
Q

Why should toddlers not have nuts, grapes, hot dogs, PB, raw carrots, tough meats, and popcorn?

A

choking hazards

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34
Q

How much sleep should toddlers get per day?

A

11-12 hours

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35
Q

What is eliminated in older toddlerhood?

A

naps

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36
Q

What are common injuries in toddlers?

A
  • aspiration
  • drowning
  • falls
  • sunburns
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37
Q

When do children start dressing independently?

A

preschool

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38
Q

At what age does a child stand on one foot? At what age do they skip and hop on one foot?

A
  • stand: 3 y/o
  • skip/hop: 4 y/o
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39
Q

When can a preschooler jump off the bottom step?

A

3 y/o

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40
Q

When can a preschooler ride a tricycle? When can a preschooler jump rope?

A
  • tricycle: 3 y/o
  • jump rope: 5 y/o
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41
Q

When can a preschooler walk backward?

A

5 y/o

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42
Q

What stage of cognitive development is a preschooler in?

A

preoperational

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43
Q

When does a child experience egocentric thoughts?

A

preschool

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44
Q

When does a child experience magical thinking?

A

preschool

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45
Q

When does a child know 2100 words?

A

by the end of their 5th year

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46
Q

How many words are in a sentence of a 3-4 y/o? A 4-5 y/o?

A
  • 3-4: 3-4 word sentences
  • 4-5: 4-5 word sentences
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47
Q

What stage of psychosocial development is a preschooler in?

A

initiative vs. guilt

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48
Q

When does a preschooler experience guilt?

A

when they think they have misbehaved or when they are unable to accomplish a task

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49
Q

What type of play do preschoolers use?

A

associative play

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50
Q

What immunizations does a 4-6 y/o receive?

A

DTaP, MMR, IPV

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51
Q

How much protein should a preschooler have each day?

A

13-19g

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52
Q

How much sleep does a preschooler need?

A

12 hrs/day

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53
Q

When are sleep disturbances common?

A

preschool

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54
Q

What are common injuries in preschoolers?

A
  • bodily harm
  • burns
  • drowning
  • motor vehicle injury
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55
Q

When do girls stop growing?

A

2-2.5 years after the onset of puberty

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56
Q

How much do girls grow during adolescence?

A

2-8 inches

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57
Q

How much weight do girls gain during adolescence?

A

15.5-55 lbs

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58
Q

What order does sexual maturation occur in girls?

A
  • breasts
  • pubic hair
  • axillary hair
  • menstruation
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59
Q

When do boys stop growing?

A

18-20 y/o

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60
Q

How much do boys grow during adolescence?

A

4-12 inches

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61
Q

How much weight do boys gain during adolescence?

A

15.5-66 lbs

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62
Q

What order does sexual maturation occur in boys?

A
  • testicular enlargement
  • pubic hair
  • penile enlargement
  • axillary hair
  • facial hair
  • vocal changes
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63
Q

What stage of cognitive development are adolescents in?

A

formal operations

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64
Q

What do adolescents use to make decisions?

A

formal logic

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65
Q

What stage of psychosocial development are adolescents in?

A

identity vs. role confusion

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66
Q

Adolescents experience rapid growth and high metabolism. What needs to be increased due to this?

A

nutrients such as calcium, iron, protein, and zinc

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67
Q

Should food ever be used as a reward?

A

NO

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68
Q

Who needs the most sleep?

A

adolescents

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69
Q

What are common injuries in adolescents?

A
  • bodily harm
  • motor vehicle injury
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70
Q

Which reflex lasts 8 months after birth?

A

plantar grasp

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71
Q

Which reflex lasts 1 yr after birth?

A

babinski

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72
Q

Which reflex lasts 4 weeks after birth?

A

stepping

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73
Q

What is dosage calculation based on?

A

age, body weight, body surface area

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74
Q

What is the preferred method of medication administration?

A

oral

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75
Q

Where should oral medications be given?

A

in the back and side of the mouth

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76
Q

What should be used to give oral medications?

A

a calibrated cup or oral syringe

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77
Q

What should NOT be used to give oral medications?

A

a spoon or bottle

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78
Q

What should you do to the pinna when giving otic medications to ages 3 years and younger?

A

pull pinna DOWN and back

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79
Q

What should you do to the pinna when giving otic medications to ages 3 years and older?

A

pull pinna UP and back

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80
Q

How much can be injected for SQ medications?

A

< 0.5 ml

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81
Q

What is the recommended spot to give IM meds?

A

vastus lateralis (outer thigh)

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82
Q

How much can an infant IM injection be? How much can a child IM injection be?

A
  • I: 0.5 ml
  • C: 2 ml
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83
Q

What gauge IV can be used?

A

24-20

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84
Q

What procedure should be done in a treatment room?

A

central line insertion

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85
Q

What should be applied 1 hr before insertion of a central line?

A

Emla/lidocaine

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86
Q

What can be done to calm children for central line/IV insertion?

A
  • swaddle infants
  • play therapy
  • nonnutritive sucking
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87
Q

Where should procedures not be done?

A

“safe places” such as a playroom, or the child’s room/bed

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88
Q

What is a mummy board used for?

A

to strap the child down before injections

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89
Q

What age group is the FLACC pain scale used for?

A

2 months-7 years

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90
Q

When can the FACES pain scale start being used?

A

3 years old

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91
Q

What age group is the OUCHER pain scale used for?

A

3-13 years

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92
Q

What does the OUCHER pain scale use to rate pain?

A

photos of children

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93
Q

What is the first line medication used to treat mild to moderate pain?

A

acetaminophen and NSAIDS

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94
Q

What is the second line medication used to treat moderate to severe pain?

A

opioids (morphine, fentanyl, oxycodone)

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95
Q

What pain medication cannot be used in children?

A

aspirin

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96
Q

What are early signs of respiratory distress?

A
  • tachypnea
  • tachycardia
  • use of accessory muscles
  • nasal flaring
  • restlessness
  • pallor
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97
Q

What are late signs of respiratory distress?

A
  • bradypnea
  • bradycardia
  • cyanosis
  • confusion
  • stupor
  • hyper/hypotension
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98
Q

How can oxygenation and ventilation be assessed/monitored?

A
  • RR
  • respiratory effort
  • SaO2
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99
Q

What characteristics of secretions are looked at for trachs?

A
  • thickness
  • quantity
  • odor
  • color
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100
Q

How do you know when to suction?

A

pt coughing

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101
Q

When should hyperoxygenation be done for suctioning?

A

before

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102
Q

How long can you suction at one time for an infant?

A

no more than 5 seconds

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103
Q

How long can you suction at one time for a child?

A

no longer than 10 seconds

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104
Q

How long should you wait between suctioning attempts?

A

30-60 seconds

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105
Q

What should you clean a trach with?

A

soap and water

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106
Q

How often should non-disposable trach tubes be replaced?

A

q 6-8 weeks

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107
Q

How often should oral hygiene be done in a trach patient? How often should trach care be done?

A
  • O: q2h
  • T: q8h
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108
Q

What should be kept at the bedside of trach patients in case of emergency?

A

same size and one size smaller trach

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109
Q

What can a cuffed trach tube pressure be at?

A

< 20 mmHg

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110
Q

What can haemophilus influenza cause?

A

bacterial epiglottis

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111
Q

What are manifestations of bacterial epiglottis?

A
  • no cough
  • drooling
  • tongue hanging out
  • tripod position
  • high fever
  • inspiratory stridor
  • dysphonia
  • dysphagia
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112
Q

Should you assess the airway of a patient with bacterial epiglottis?

A

NO

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113
Q

What type of precautions should a patient with bacterial epiglottis be on?

A

droplet

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114
Q

What can be given to a patient with bacterial epiglottis?

A
  • humidified O2
  • corticosteroids
  • antibiotics
115
Q

What respiratory disorder can be caused by RSV, influenza A&B, mycoplasma pneumonia, or parainfluenza types 1/2/3?

A

acute laryngotracheobronchitis

116
Q

What are manifestations of acute laryngotracheobronchitis?

A
  • barky cough
  • hoarseness
  • low grade fever
  • nasal flaring
  • retractions
  • tachypnea/dyspnea
117
Q

When would corticosteroids, fluid, oxygen, and nebulized racemic epinephrine be used?

A

acute laryngotracheobronchitis

118
Q

What is acute spasmodic laryngitis (nonbacterial) caused by?

A

allergens

119
Q

What are manifestations of acute spasmodic laryngitis?

A
  • croupy, barky cough
  • hoarseness
  • dyspnea
  • nighttime episodes of laryngeal obstruction
120
Q

What causes bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

121
Q

What stage of bronchiolitis has manifestations of fever, tachypnea, retractions, and trouble feeding?

A

progression

122
Q

What stage of bronchiolitis has manifestations of sneezing, runny nose, coughing, wheezing, and possible eye/ear infection?

A

initial

123
Q

What stage of bronchiolitis has manifestations of tachypnea, apneic spells, and cyanosis?

A

severe

124
Q

Where is inspiratory stridor heard when caused by bronchiolitis?

A

the throat

125
Q

How can you tell if there is hypoxemia/respiratory distress from bronchiolitis?

A
  • increased HR, RR
  • retractions
  • nasal flaring
  • use of accessory muscles
126
Q

How should you suction a patient with bronchiolitis?

A
  • nose
  • only if wheezing and before feeding
127
Q

What tx is not recommended for bronchiolitis?

A

bronchodilators and CPT

128
Q

What can you give to a patient with bronchiolitis if they are throwing up from feedings?

A

pedialyte

129
Q

When is an ASO titer increased?

A

if there is a streptococcal infection present

130
Q

What specimens should be collected for pneumonia?

A
  • blood cultures
  • nasopharyngeal specimens
  • ASO titer
131
Q

What interventions can be done for pneumonia?

A
  • rest, fluids
  • culture, antibiotics
  • O2, continuous pulse ox
  • antipyretics for fever
132
Q

Tonsilitis can cause hemorrhage. What are the s/sx of hemorrhage?

A
  • bleeding
  • hemoptysis
  • bright red emesis
  • repeated swallowing/clearing of throat
133
Q

What should be done before a tonsillectomy?

A

NPO status

134
Q

Why should the HOB be elevated after a tonsillectomy?

A

facilitates drainage

135
Q

When is bleeding most common after a tonsillectomy?

A
  • w/in first 72 hours
  • days 7-10
136
Q

What are tetracaine lollipops used for?

A

tonsilitis/tonsillectomy

137
Q

When is an ice collar used?

A

tonsilitis/tonsillectomy

138
Q

What should be avoided in the diet of someone with tonsilitis/after a tonsillectomy?

A
  • red liquids
  • citrus juices
  • milk-based foods
139
Q

When should you avoid coughing, throat clearing, and nose blowing?

A

tonsilitis/tonsillectomy

140
Q

Can you use a straw after a tonsillectomy?

A

NO

141
Q

How long does recovery from a tonsillectomy take?

A

14 days

142
Q

What can be present in vomit after a tonsillectomy?

A

clots, blood tinged mucus

143
Q

Can you become dehydrated after with tonsilitis/tonsillectomy?

A

YES

144
Q

What causes a mechanical obstruction of organs with cystic fibrosis?

A

too much thick, tenacious mucus

145
Q

Can patients with cystic fibrosis cough up secretions and clear their airway?

A

NO

146
Q

When does wheezing, rhonchi, and cough occur with cystic fibrosis?

A

early

147
Q

What is seen on a CXR of a patient with increased cystic fibrosis?

A

obstructive emphysema and atelectasis

148
Q

What are manifestations of advanced cystic fibrosis?

A
  • cyanosis
  • barrel-shaped chest
  • clubbing
149
Q

What are other findings of cystic fibrosis?

A
  • steatorrhea
  • weight gain/loss failure
  • vitamin A, D, E, K deficiency
  • anemia
150
Q

What test is done to diagnose cystic fibrosis?

A

sweat chloride test

151
Q

What is the chloride level of an infant with cystic fibrosis? What is the chloride level for other ages?

A
  • infants < 3 months: > 40
  • other ages: > 60
152
Q

What is the sodium level with cystic fibrosis?

A

> 90

153
Q

When should CPT be done for a patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

with inhaled meds, NOT before/after meals

154
Q

What cystic fibrosis medication makes it easier to cough up and thins secretions?

A

dornase alfa

155
Q

How often is dornase alfa given by nebulizer?

A

once or twice a day

156
Q

How should dornase alfa be stored?

A

in the fridge in a foil packet

157
Q

How should aminoglycosides be given for a patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

IV or aerosol nebulizer

158
Q

When should pancreatic enzymes (pancrelipase) be given? How should they be given?

A
  • before meals and snacks
  • can swallow or sprinkle onto high fat food
159
Q

How can you check adequate dosing of pancrelipase?

A

check stool (1-2/day)

160
Q

What vitamins does a CF patient need?

A

fat soluble (A, D, E, K)

161
Q

What do allergens, exercise, animals, stress/anxiety trigger?

A

asthma

162
Q

Are chest tightness, dyspnea, wheezing, crackles, cough, sweating, use of accessory muscles, and decreased O2 sat expected or abnormal findings of asthma?

A

expected

163
Q

What is a bad/abnormal finding of asthma?

A

silent chest

164
Q

Should you intubate a patient with asthma?

A

NO

165
Q

What measures the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in 1 second?

A

peak flow meter

166
Q

What do you have to ensure before using a peak flow meter?

A

it is zeroed

167
Q

When should a peak flow meter be used?

A

at the same time everyday

168
Q

How should the child be positioned to use the peak flow meter?

A

standing up straight

169
Q

How many times should the peak flow meter be used?

A

3 times with 30 seconds in between

170
Q

What is the green zone with a peak flow meter?

A

80-100%

171
Q

What is the yellow zone with a peak flow meter?

A

50-80%

172
Q

What is the red zone with a peak flow meter?

A

< 50%

173
Q

What should be done if red zone is identified after the peak flow meter?

A
  • rescue inhaler
  • ER
  • call Dr
174
Q

What are tachycardia, tremors, HA, and nervousness expected side effects of?

A

albuterol

175
Q

How do you know if albuterol is working?

A
  • decreased RR
  • increased O2 sat
  • good lung sounds
  • talking
  • no use of accessory muscles or nasal flaring
176
Q

How can sores be prevented?

A

rinsing the mouth

177
Q

How can asthma exacerbations be prevented?

A
  • get rid of carpet
  • avoid triggers
  • regular exercise
  • do not wash in bleach
  • annual flu shot
178
Q

What do you need to know about a drowning incident?

A
  • location and time of submersion
  • type and temp of fluid
  • body temperature
  • physical injuries
179
Q

What are cerebral edema and respiratory distress complications of?

A

drowning

180
Q

What is maternal smoking a risk factor for?

A

SIDS

181
Q

What are prematurity and low APGAR scores a risk factor for?

A

SIDS

182
Q

How should an infant sleep?

A
  • on back
  • no pillows/quilts/stuffed animals
  • head uncovered
  • with pacifier
  • on a firm, tight-fitting mattress
  • NO co-sleeping
183
Q

What age is most at risk for poisoning?

A

< 6 y/o

184
Q

When does N/V, sweating, and pallor occur with acetaminophen poisoning?

A

2-4 hours after ingestion

185
Q

When would improvement be seen with acetaminophen poisoning?

A

24-36 hours after ingestion

186
Q

What can occur 36 hours-7 days after acetaminophen ingestion? (hepatic)

A
  • RUQ pain
  • jaundice
  • coagulation disturbances
  • confusion
187
Q

What s/sx occur with acute aspirin poisoning?

A
  • tinnitus
  • seizures
  • oliguria
  • N/V
  • tachypnea
  • disorientation
188
Q

What poisoning would bleeding tendencies, dehydration, and seizures be seen with?

A

chronic aspirin poisoning

189
Q

When does the initial phase of supplemental iron poisoning occur?

A

30 minutes-6 hours after ingestion

190
Q

When would V/D, hematemesis, gastric pain, and bloody stools be seen with supplemental iron poisoning?

A

the initial phase

191
Q

When does the latency/improvement phase occur with supplemental iron poisoning?

A

2-12 hours after ingestion

192
Q

When would metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia, bleeding, fever, shock, and death occur with supplemental iron poisoning?

A

the systemic phase

193
Q

When does the systemic phase of supplemental iron poisoning occur?

A

4-24 hours after ingestion

194
Q

When does the hepatic phase of supplemental iron poisoning occur? What are the s/sx?

A
  • 48-96 hours after ingestion
  • seizures, coma
195
Q

What are gas, kerosene, lighter fluid, paint thinner, and turpentine examples of?

A

hydrocarbons

196
Q

What can occur with hydrocarbon poisoning?

A
  • gagging
  • choking
  • coughing
  • cyanosis
  • grunting
  • retractions
197
Q

What type of poisoning causes pain and burning in the mouth, throat, and stomach?

A

corrosives

198
Q

What are household cleaners, batteries, denture cleaners, and bleach examples of?

A

corrosives

199
Q

What type of poisoning causes edematous lips and tongue, a pharynx with white mucous membranes, vomiting with hemoptysis, and drooling?

A

corrosives

200
Q

What are characteristics of someone experiencing low-dose lead poisoning?

A
  • distractable
  • impulsive
  • hyperactive
  • hearing impaired
  • mild intellectual difficulty
201
Q

What can high-dose lead poisoning cause?

A
  • cognitive delays
  • blindness
  • paralysis
  • S/C/D
202
Q

What is important to monitor with all types of poisoning? (3)

A
  • vitals
  • O2 sat
  • I&O’s
203
Q

What is the antidote for acetaminophen poisoning?

A

acetylcystine

204
Q

What are gastric lavage, activated charcoal, and sodium bicarbonate antidotes for?

A

aspirin poisoning

205
Q

How should severe aspirin poisoning be treated?

A

hemodialysis

206
Q

What type of poisoning is treated with chelation therapy using deferoxamine mesylate?

A

supplemental iron poisoning

207
Q

What type of poisonings should you NOT induce vomiting?

A

hydrocarbons and corrosives

208
Q

What has to be done before gastric decontamination with hydrocarbon poisoning?

A

intubation with a cuffed ET tube

209
Q

Should a patient with corrosive poisoning be NPO?

A

YES

210
Q

Should you attempt to neutralize acid with corrosive poisoning?

A

NO

211
Q

What type of poisoning is treated with chelation therapy using calcium EDTA?

A

lead poisoning

212
Q

Should you tell a child that medications are candy or take your medications in front of them?

A

NO

213
Q

What type of thermometers should be used?

A

non-mercury

214
Q

What type of paint should be eliminated?

A

lead-based

215
Q

Which congenital heart diseases have a left-to-right shunt?

A
  • patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
  • atrial septal defect (ASD)
216
Q

Which congenital heart diseases have cyanosis LATER?

A
  • patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
  • atrial septal defect (ASD)
217
Q

What does not close with PDA?

A

the pulmonary artery and aorta

218
Q

What happens to the septum between the atria with ASD?

A

there is a hole

219
Q

What congenital heart disease causes a murmur that sounds like a continuous machine hum that is louder under the left clavicle?

A

PDA

220
Q

What congenital heart disease causes a murmur that is loud and harsh with a fixed split-second heart sound?

A

ASD

221
Q

What medication can be given for PDA?

A

indomethacin

222
Q

What can be inserted during the cardiac catheterization to occlude the PDA?

A

coils

223
Q

What is the nonsurgical tx for ASD?

A

closure during the cardiac catheterization

224
Q

When is a thoracoscopic repair done?

A

surgical tx of PDA

225
Q

When is a patch closure done?

A

surgical tx of ASD

226
Q

Will a patient with PDA have weak pulses or bounding pulses?

A

bounding

227
Q

What defects are included in tetralogy of fallot?

A
  • PULMONARY stenosis
  • VENTRICULAR septal defect
  • overriding aorta
  • right VENTRICULAR hypertrophy
228
Q

What is an obstruction of blood flow from the ventricles to the lungs?

A

pulmonary stenosis

229
Q

Where is the hole with a ventricular septal defect?

A

in the septum between the ventricles

230
Q

Where does the aorta receive blood from when it is overriding?

A

the right ventricle

231
Q

What shunt occurs with TOF?

A

right to left

232
Q

When does cyanosis occur with TOF?

A

NOW (@ birth and progresses over 1st year of life)

233
Q

When is a systolic murmur heard?

A

TOF

234
Q

What do tet spells include?

A

acute cyanosis and hypoxia

235
Q

What is a big sign of tet spells/SOB?

A

squatting

236
Q

When should a child be placed in the knee-to-chest position?

A

when having a tet spell

237
Q

What medication should be given for tet spells?

A

morphine

238
Q

What should be done for TOF until primary repair can be done?

A

shunt placement

239
Q

When should a complete repair for TOF be done?

A

within the first year of life

240
Q

Should a lot of fluids be given to a child with TOF?

A

NO

241
Q

What happens to vital signs with heart failure?

A
  • increased HR (tachycardia)
  • increased RR (tachypnea)
  • decreased BP (hypotension)
242
Q

What causes cool extremities with weak pulses, gallop rhythm, and cardiomegaly?

A

HF, impaired myocardial function

243
Q

What causes grunting, wheezing, cough, cyanosis, retractions, and nasal flaring?

A

HF, pulmonary congestion

244
Q

What causes hepatomegaly, peripheral edema, ascites, JVD, and weight gain?

A

HF, systemic venous congestion

245
Q

What causes cyanosis, clubbing, poor weight gain, and polycythemia?

A

HF, hypoxemia

246
Q

What infant and child HR should you hold digoxin for?

A
  • infant: <90
  • child: <70
247
Q

What can bradycardia, dysrhythmias, N/V, and anorexia indicate?

A

dig toxicity

248
Q

How often should digoxin be administered?

A

q12h

249
Q

How can tooth decay from digoxin be prevented?

A

put med in side/back of mouth and follow up with water

250
Q

Should you double/increase dig dose or readminister if the child throws it up/spits it out?

A

NO

251
Q

Can a diaper rash be a reason to cancel a cardiac catheterization?

A

yes

252
Q

What allergies should be assessed before a cardiac catheterization?

A

iodine and shellfish

253
Q

How long before a cardiac catheterization should the patient be NPO?

A

4-6 hours

254
Q

What pulses should be located and marked before a cardiac catheterization?

A

dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial on both legs

255
Q

What should be done continuously after a cardiac catheterization?

A

cardiac monitoring and O2 sat

256
Q

What should be assessed for 1 full minute after a cardiac catheterization?

A

HR and RR

257
Q

When should quality and symmetry of pulses and temp and color of extremity be assessed?

A

post cardiac catheterization

258
Q

What can indicate an arterial obstruction after a cardiac catheterization?

A

cool with blanching

259
Q

Why should voiding be encouraged after cardiac catheterization?

A

to excrete contrast medium

260
Q

What medications need to have BP and HR monitored?

A

captopril and metoprolol

261
Q

After what medication should you watch for hyperkalemia?

A

captopril

262
Q

After what medication should you watch for hypokalemia?

A

furosemide, encourage increased potassium diet

263
Q

What can occur 2-6 weeks after an untreated or partially treated upper respiratory infection with GABHS?

A

rheumatic fever

264
Q

What does the Jones criteria say is needed to be diagnosed with rheumatic fever?

A

2 major criteria or 1 major with 2 minor criteria following acute GABHS infection

265
Q

What are major criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  • carditis
  • SQ nodules
  • polyarthritis
  • erythema marginatum
  • chorea
266
Q

What are minor criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  • fever
  • arthralgia
267
Q

What is polyarthritis?

A

large joints with painful swelling

268
Q

What is a pink, nonpruritic rash that does not itch and appears/disappears rapidly?

A

erythema marginatum

269
Q

Where is erythema marginatum most common?

A

on the trunk and inner surfaces of the extemities

270
Q

What is chorea?

A

involuntary purposeless movements

271
Q

Where does chorea occur?

A

the extremities and face

272
Q

What happens to a patient with rheumatic fever’s ASO titer, CRP, and ESR?

A

elevated

273
Q

How long do patient’s with rheumatic fever have to be on bed rest?

A

until their ESr is normal

274
Q

Will chorea go away?

A

YES

275
Q

What is the priority for cyanotic children?

A

stop or prevent crying

276
Q

How can energy expenditure be minimized in cardiac patients?

A
  • cluster care
  • small, frequent meals
  • only bathe PRN
277
Q

What children should take potassium supplements, have daily weights done, and possibly have sodium and fluid restrictions?

A

cardiac

278
Q

What can keeping the car seat at a 45-degree angle, sleeping with pillows, and being in a semi-fowlers/fowlers position when awake help with?

A

decreasing the workload on the heart

279
Q

What type of nipple should be used for cardiac infants?

A

a soft preemie nipple or regular nipple without a slit

280
Q

What type of feeding should be done if the baby is not consuming enough?

A

gavage

281
Q

How much should caloric density increase?

A

gradually from 20-30 cal/oz

282
Q

What should you alternate with if the baby is not getting enough nutrients from breastfeeding?

A
  • high-density formula
  • iron-fortified breast milk
283
Q

How should you pick up a baby with cardiac problems?

A

under the shoulders and butt, not under the arms

Level 3 (29 decks)

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