LAMS 6+7 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of renal disease in children, and needs to be considered
during your paediatric rotation?

Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
Membranous GN
Focal and Segmental GN
Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Goodpastures syndrome
A

Minimal change glomerulonephritis

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2
Q

Which drug is useful in an acute attack of gout?

A

Colchicine

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3
Q

Which of the following syndromes does not put you at risk of a phaeochromocytoma?

VHL
NF1
MEN1
MEN2
MEN3
A

MEN1

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4
Q

Which of these drugs can be used in the treatment of BPH?

5 Alpha reductase inhibitor
Oestradiol
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
Beta blockers
Testosterone
A

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

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5
Q

Which of these is gram positive:

E-coli
Haemophilus influenza
Listeria monocytogenes
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria Meningitidis
A

Listeria Monocytogenes

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6
Q

A patient has been on Allopurinol 300 mg daily for several months and is well. Which drug should be avoided and is known to cause dangerous toxicity if taken with allopurinol

A

Azathioprine

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7
Q

A patient has a large dose of paracetamol and develops liver dysfunction. Which is the most sensitive
marker of liver damage?

A

Prothrombin time

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8
Q

A 53 year old European male presents with a recent history of weight loss and sudden onset of
abdominal pain and fever. On examination the abdomen is distended with signs of peritonitis. He
undergoes emergency laparotomy and and partial resection of small bowel and associated
mesentery.
Over the next few days the following laboratory results become available:
FBC and renal profile normal
LDH 12,000u/ml (NR 50-234)
EBV IgG serology positive, HIV 1 antibody positive
The histopathology description of a mesenteric lymph node: The node is effaced and diffusely
infiltrated by large lymphoid cells. Under low poor the node has a starry sky appearance. On
immunohistochemistry the large cells are positive for CD20, surface Immunoglobulin, myc and EBER
(Ebstein Barr Virus encoded small RNAs) the cells are negative for CD3 and CD30. Ki67 expression
is 98%. Karyotype analysis reveals t(8;14)(q24;q32).
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

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9
Q

Superoxide dismutase 1 is a misfolded protein associated with which condition?

A

MND

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10
Q

In a test for a disease, which term describes the number of true positives divided by the total number
of people that have the disease?

A

Sensitivity

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11
Q

Which of the following on cause hypercalcaemia?

Osteomalacia
Paget's
Sarcoidosis
Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
Osteoporosis
A

Sarcoidosis

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12
Q

By what mechanism does the disease in the last question cause the hypercalaemia?

A

Ectopic expression of 1 alpha hydroxylase

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13
Q

Which of the following is useful in patients with pseudomonas aeruginosa lung infection

Ceftriaxone
Clarithromycin
Gentamicin
Metronidazole
Flucloxacillin
A

Gentamicin

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14
Q

What is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the large bowel and duodenum is most likely to be?

A

Crohn’s disease

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15
Q

The severity of which of these conditions is measured by the Breslow score?

A

Melanoma

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16
Q

Which of the following is a complication of a Berry Aneurysm?

Haemorrhagic stroke
Ischaemic stroke
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
subdural haemorrhage
Extradural haemorrhage
A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

17
Q

In a gastric biopsy from a patient with helicobacter pylori the biopsy is most likely to show?

Adenocarcinoma
Chronic gastritis
Gastric ulcer
Lymphoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
A

Gastric Ulcer

18
Q

Where is the enzyme 25-hydroxylase found?

A

Liver

19
Q

A patient with diabetes is developing cellulitis. What is the most appropriate antibiotic?

A

Flucloxacillin

20
Q

Which of the following suggest a microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?

Raised bilirubin
Raised PLT count
Raised TIBC
Positive COOMBs test
Raised INR
A

Raised bilirubin