Immune modulating therapies 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What drugs suppress the immune response?

A
Steroids
Anti-proliferative agents
Plasmapheresis
Inhibitors of cell signalling
Agents directed at cell surface antigens
Agents directed at cytokines
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2
Q

What are corticosteroids?

A
Synthetic glucocorticoids 
Based upon naturally occuring steroids
No mineralocorticoid activity
Prednisolone in Europe
Prednisone in USA
metabolised by liver into prednisolone
Endogenous secretion equivalent to 5-7.5 mg prednisolone

Hench, Kendall and Reichstein received Nobel Prize in 1950

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3
Q

What are steroids used for?

A
Allergic disorders 
Auto-immune disease
Auto-inflammatory diseases 
Transplantation
Malignant disease
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4
Q

What is the action of steroids on prostaglandins?

A

Phospholipase A2
- Breaks down phospholipids to form arachidonic acid which is converted to eicosanoids (eg prostaglandin)s, leukotrienes) by cyclo-oxygenases

Corticosteroids inhibit phospholipase A2
- Blocks arachidonic acid and prostaglandin formation and so reduces inflammation

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5
Q

What is the action of steroids on phagocytes?

A

Decreased traffic of phagocytes to inflamed tissue
Decreased expression of adhesion molecules on endothelium
Blocks the signals that tell immune cells to move from bloodstream and into tissues
Results in transient increase in neutrophil counts

Decreased phagocytosis

Decreased release of proteolytic enzymes

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6
Q

What is the action of steroids on lymphocytes?

A

Lymphopenia
Sequestration of lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue
Affects CD4+ T cells > CD8+ T cells > B cells

Blocks cytokine gene expression

Decreased antibody production

Promotes apoptosis

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7
Q

What are the SEs of steroids?

A

Diabetes, central obesity, moon face, lipid abnormalities, osteoporosis, hirsuitism, adrenal suppression

Cataracts, glaucoma, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, avascular necrosis

Immunosuppression

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8
Q

What are the Cytotoxic agents Anti-proliferative immunosuppressants?

A

Cyclophosphamide

  • Mycophenolate
  • Azathioprine
  • Methotrexate
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9
Q

What is the action anti proliferative immunosuppressants?

A

Inhibit DNA synthesis

Cells with rapid turnover most sensitive

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10
Q

What is the SEs of anti proliferative immunosuppressants?

A

Bone marrow suppression
Infection
- Malignancy
- Teratogenic

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11
Q

What is the MOA of cyclophosphamide?

A

Alkylates guanine base of DNA
Damages DNA and prevents cell replication
Affects B cells > T cells, but at high doses affects all cells with high turnover

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12
Q

What is the indications of cyclophosphamide?

A

Multisystem connective tissue disease or vasculitis with severe end-organ involvement
eg GPA (Wegener’s granulomatosis), SLE
Anti-cancer agent

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13
Q

What are the SEs of cyclophosphamide?

A

Toxic to proliferating cells
Bone marrow depression
Hair loss
Sterility (male»female)

Haemorrhagic cystitis
Toxic metabolite acrolein excreted via urine

Malignancy
Bladder cancer
Haematological malignancies
Non-melanoma skin cancer

Infection
Pneumocystis jiroveci

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14
Q

What is the MOA and indications of azathioprine?

A

Mechanism of action
Metabolised by liver to 6 mercaptopurine
Blocks de novo purine (eg adenine, guanine) synthesis – prevents replication of DNA
Preferentially inhibits T cell activation & proliferation

Indications
Transplantation
Auto-immune disease
Auto-inflammatory diseases, eg Crohn’s, ulcerative colitis

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15
Q

What is the SEs of azathioprine?

A

Bone marrow suppression
Cells with rapid turnover (leucocytes and platelets) are particularly sensitive
1:300 individuals are extremely susceptible to bone marrow suppression s
Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) polymorphisms
Unable to metabolise azathioprine
Check TPMT activity or gene variants before treatment if possible; always check full blood count after starting therapy
Hepatotoxicity
Idiosyncratic and uncommon
Infection
Serious infection less common than with cyclophosphamide

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16
Q

What is the MOA and indications of mycophenolate mofetil?

A

Mechanism of action
Blocks de novo nucleotide synthesis
– prevents replication of DNA
Prevents T>B cell proliferation

Major Indications
Widely used in transplantation as alternative to azathioprine
Also used in auto-immune diseases and vasculitis as alternative to cyclophosphamide

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17
Q

What is the SEs of mycophenolate mofetil?

A

Bone marrow suppression Infection
Cells with rapid turnover (leucocytes and platelets) are particularly sensitive

Infection
Particular risk of herpes virus reactivation
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (JC virus)

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18
Q

What is plasmapheresis?

A

Aim: removal of pathogenic antibody
Patient’s blood passed through cell separator
Own cellular constituents reinfused
Plasma treated to remove immunoglobulins and then reinfused (or replaced with albumin in ‘plasma exchange’)

Problems
Rebound antibody production limits efficacy, therefore usually given with anti-proliferative agent

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19
Q

Indications for plasmapheresis?

A

Severe antibody-mediated disease
Goodpastures syndrome
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
Severe acute myasthenia gravis
Anti-acetyl choline receptor antibodies
Severe vascular rejection
Antibodies directed at donor HLA molecules

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20
Q

What are Inhibitors of cell signalling (Calcineurin inhibitors)?

A

Ciclosporin

Tacrolimus

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21
Q

What do Inhibitors of cell signalling (Calcineurin inhibitors) do?

A

Block cytokine transcription, therefore prevent T lymphocyte proliferation and effector functions

Used for Transplant, SLE and psoriatic arthritis

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22
Q

What are the side effects of calcineurin inhibitors?

A
Nephrotoxicity
HTN
Neurotoxic
Diabetes
(Ciclosporin) Dysmorphic features
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23
Q

What does Tofacitinib/ Jakinibs do?

A

Tofacitinib (JAK1 and JAK3 inhibitor)

Interferes with JAK-STAT signalling
Influences gene transcription
Inhibits production of inflammatory molecules

Effective in Rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis and axial spondyloarthritis

24
Q

What is apremilast?

A

Inhibits PDE4 leads to increase cAMP
Influences gene transcription
Modulates cytokine production

Effective in psoriasis and
psoriatic arthritis

25
Q

What are Agents directed at cell surface antigens?

A
Drugs 
T cells:
- Rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin 
- Basiliximab – anti-CD25
- Abatacept – CTLA4-Ig 

B cells:
- Rituximab – anti-CD20

Lymphocyte migration:
- Vedolizumab (anti a4b7 integrin)

Action
Block signalling
Cell depletion
(Activate signalling)

26
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicityof anti thymocyte globulin?

A

Indications and dosing

  • Allograft rejection (renal, heart)
  • Daily intravenous infusion

Action

  • Lymphocyte depletion
  • Modulation of T cell activation
  • Modulation of T cell migration

Toxicity

  • Infusion reactions
  • Leukopenia
  • Infection
  • Malignancy
27
Q

What are the specificities of anti thymocyte globulin?

A
CD2
CD3
CD4
CD8
CD28
CD11a
HLA class I and II
28
Q

What is Basiliximab?

A

Antibody directed at CD25 (IL-2Ra chain)

29
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of basilikimab?

A

Indications and dosing:

  • Prophylaxis of allograft rejection
  • Intravenous given before and after transplant surgery

Action:
- Blocks IL2 signalling which Inhibits T cell proliferation

Toxicity
Infusion reactions
- Infection
- Concern re long term risk malignancy

30
Q

What is Abatacept?

A

CTLA4–Ig fusion protein

31
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Abatacept?

A

Indications and dosing
Rheumatoid arthritis
Intravenous 4 weekly
Subcutaneous weekly

Action
Reduces T cell activation

Toxicity
Infusion reactions
Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
- Caution wrt malignancy

32
Q

What is Rituximab?

A

Antibody specific for CD20

33
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Rituximab?

A
Indications and dose
 Lymphoma
 Rheumatoid arthritis
- SLE
- 2 doses intravenous every 6-12 months (RA)

Action
Depletes mature B cells

Toxicity
Infusion reactions
Infection (PML)
- Exacerbation CV disease

34
Q

What is Natalizumab?

A

Antibody specific for a4 integrin

a4 expressed with b1 or b7 integrin

Bind to VCAM1 and MadCAM1 to mediate rolling/arrest of leukocytes

Bind to non-endothelial VCAM1
in lymphoid tissue

35
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Natalizumab?

A

Indications and dosing
Highly active relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis
- (Crohn’s disease)
- Intravenous every 4 weeks

Action
Inhibits T cell migration

Toxicity
 Infusion reactions 
 Infection (PML)
 Hepatotoxic
- Concern re malignancy
36
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Tocilizumab (Antibody directed at IL-6 receptor)?

A

Indications and dosing
Castleman’s disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
Intravenous every 4 weeks

Action
Reduces macrophage, T cell,
B cell, neutrophil activation

Toxicity
 Infusion reactions
 Infection 
 Hepatotoxic
 Elevated lipids
- Caution wrt malignancy
37
Q

What are Agents directed at cytokines?

A
Drugs 
 Infliximab – anti-TNFa 
 Adalimumab – anti-TNFa 
 Certolizumab – anti-TNFa 
 Golimumab – anti-TNFa
 Etanercept – TNF receptor p75-IgG fusion protein

Ustekinumab – anti-IL-12 and IL-23
Denosumab – anti-RANK ligand
Secukinumab – anti-IL-17

Action
Block action of cytokines

38
Q

Anti-TNFa Antibodies Infliximab, Adalimumab, Certolizumab, Golimumab

A

Anti-TNFa Antibodies Infliximab, Adalimumab, Certolizumab, Golimumab

39
Q

What do Anti-TNFa Antibodies do?

A
Indications and dosing
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
 Inflammatory bowel disease
- Subcutaneous or intravenous

Action
- Inhibit TNFa

Toxicity
 Infusion or injection site reactions
- Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
 Lupus-like conditions
 Demyelination
-  Malignancy
40
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Etanercept?

A
Indications and dosing
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Ankylosing spondylitis
 Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
- Subcutaneous weekly

Action
- Inhibits TNFa and TNFb

Toxicity
 Injection site reactions
 Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
 Lupus-like conditions
 Demyelination
- Malignancy
41
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Ustekinumab?

A

IL-12 and IL-23

  • IL-12 comprises p40+p35
  • IL-23 comprises p40+p19

Indications and dosing
Psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis
Crohns disease
- Subcutaneous every 12 weeks

Action
Inhibits IL-12 and IL-23

Toxicity
Injection site reactions
- Infection (TB)

42
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Secukinumab?

A

IL-17A
IL17A protype of IL-17 family
Dimer of IL-17A or IL-17A/F
- Binds to IL-17RA/RC receptor

Indications and dosing
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
SC load and then monthly

Action
Inhibits IL-17A

Toxicity
- Infection (TB)

43
Q

What is the indications, action and toxicity of Denosumab?

A

Indications and dosing
Osteoporosis
Subcutaneous every 6 months

Action
Inhibits RANK mediated osteoclast
differentiation and function

Toxicity
Injection site reactions
Infection – mildly immunosuppressive
- Avascular necrosis of jaw

44
Q

What is the target for etanercept, ustekinumab, secukinumab and denosumab?

A

TNFa antagonist
Ustekinumab
Secukinumab
Denosumab

45
Q

What are the SEs of biological agents?

A

Reactions

Infusion reactions
Urticaria, hypotension, tachycardia, wheeze – IgE mediated
Headaches, fevers, myalgias – not classical type I hypersensitivity
Cytokine storm

Injection site reactions
Peak reaction at ~48 hours
May also occur at previous injection sites (recall reactions)
Mixed cellular infiltrates, often with CD8 T cells
Not generally IgE or immune complexes

46
Q

What are the SEs of immunosuppressants?

A

Infection

Acute infection 
- Risk often > 2 x background
- Avoidance
- Vaccination
 Temporarily stop immunosuppression
- Consider atypical organisms
- Appropriate antibiotics

Chronic infection

Tuberculosis

  • History, Residence, Travel, Contacts, CXR, TBElispot
  • Prophylaxis or treatment if required

HBV and HCV
- Check Hep B core antibody and Hep C antibody

HIV
- Balance benefits against possible risks

CMV
- Treat reactivation promptly

John Cunningham Virus (JCV)
Common polyomavirus that can reactivate
- Infects and destroys oligodendrocytes
- Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

47
Q

What are the malignancy SEs of immunosuppressants?

A

Malignancy

Lymphoma (EBV)
Non melanoma skin cancers (Human papilloma virus)
Melanoma (increased in cohort treated with anti-TNF alpha)

  • Risks appear lower with targeted forms of immunosuppression than with regimes used in transplantation
48
Q

What are the AI SEs of immunosuppressants?

A
SLE and lupus-like syndromes
- Anti-phospholipid syndromes
 Vasculitis
 Interstitial lung disease
 Sarcoidosis
- Uveitis
- Autoimmune hepatitis
- Demyelination
49
Q

What are mTOR inhibitors?

A

Rapamycin- mechanistic target of rapamycin

mTOR inhibitor inhibit T cell proliferation and function

Used in transplant

50
Q

What is Vedolizumab?

A

Used for IBD
IV every 8 weeks
a4b7 integrin- binds MadCAM1 to mediate leukocyte binding to endothelium and extravasation to tissue

Infusion reaction
hepatotoxic
infection
concern re malignancy

51
Q

What do Anti IL6 do (e.g. tocilizumab)?

A

Used in castlemans disease, RhA as subcut 1-2wks

reduces macrophage, T cell, B cell and neutrophil activation

Toxicity: infusion reactions, infection, hepatotoxic, elevated lipids and caution wrt malignancy

52
Q

What is guselkumab?

A

Ab against P19 subunit of IL13

53
Q

What IL are important in asthma and eczema?

A

IL4
IL5
IL13

  • Th2 and eosinophil responses
  • Il-4/13 block for IL4R may be useful
    IL13 ab useful for eczema
    IL 5 ab may be used for eosinophilic asthma
54
Q

Why is RANKL important?

A

In osteoclasts for differentiation and function

Anti RANKL ab for osteoporosis

55
Q

A young woman with SLE is experiencing weight gain, easy bruising, poor sleep, a raised HbA1C and falling bone density. Which drug is she taking?

Azathioprine

Anti-CD20 antibody (rituximab)

Mycophenolate

Prednisolone

A

Prednisolone

56
Q

Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody specific for CD20 on B cells. For which one of the following is it an effective treatment?

Ankylosing spondylitis

Malignant melanoma

Mutliple sclerosis

Osteoporosis

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

57
Q

Which of the following are true about psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis?

Responds to inhibition of Rank ligand (denosumab)

Responds to CAR-T cells

Treatment options include IL6 blockade or B cell depletion with Rituximab

Treatment options include inhibition of TNF alpha, inhibition of IL12/23 or IL17A, or use of a PD4 blocker or ciclosporin

Responds to use of checkpoint inhibitors such as nivolumab

A

Treatment options include inhibition of TNF alpha, inhibition of IL12/23 or IL17A, or use of a PD4 blocker or ciclosporin