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BIOL 107 > Lab Exam 2 > Flashcards

Lab Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

define evolution

A

process through which the characteristics of species change and through which new species arise

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2
Q

define the theory of evolution

A
  • unifying theory of biology
  • change in allelic frequencies within a population over time
  • provides direction for predictions about living things
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3
Q

what does the theory of evolution state

A
  • all living organisms evolved from different ancestor species
  • you can observe change over a long period a time
  • evolution an ongoing process in which characteristics of species change and new species arise
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4
Q

define population

A

group of interbreeding individuals living in the same space and time

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5
Q

define population genetics

A
  • study of how selective forces change a population through changes in allele and genotypic frequencies
  • how genes/alleles change in a population over time
  • define evolution as change in the allele’s frequency in a population
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6
Q

define allele frequency

A
  • rate at which a specific allele appears within a population
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7
Q

what constitutes evolution in a population (biological evolution)

A

change in the frequency of an allele over time

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8
Q

define gene pool

A
  • sum of all the alleles in a population and the relative proportions
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9
Q

define genetic drift

A
  • allele frequencies changing randomly in a population
  • change has no advantage
  • specific individuals just happen to reproduce more than others
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10
Q

what two things compound genetic drift

A
  • bottleneck effect
  • founder effect
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11
Q

define founder effect

A
  • event that initiates an allele frequency change in an isolated part of the population
  • portion of population leaving to new location
  • not typical of original population
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12
Q

what does the hardy-weinberg equilibrium model do

A
  • mathematical model for sexually reproducing populations to determine allele frequencies and how they change over time
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13
Q

what does the hardy-weinberg principle of equilibrium state

A
  • population’s allele and genotype frequencies are inherently stable unless some kind of evolutionary force is acting upon the population
  • assuming allele frequencies do not change from one generation to another
  • assumes conditions with no mutations, migration, emigration
  • no population can satisfy these conditions
  • theory just used as a model to compare real population changes
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14
Q

what are the 5 assumptions necessary for the hardy-weinberg model

A
  • large (infinite) population size = no genetic drift
  • no immigration/emigration = no gene flow
  • no mutations
  • random mating = no sexual selection
  • no natural selection
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15
Q

what is first equation in the hardy-weinberg principle

A
  • p + q = 1
  • p is frequency of dominant allele
  • q is frequency of recessive allele
  • says frequencies of both alleles add to 1
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16
Q

what is the second equation in the hardy-weinberg principle

A
  • p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
  • p^2 is frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
  • 2pq is frequency of heterozygous genotype
  • q^2 is frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
  • says frequencies of all genotypes add to 1
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17
Q

what 5 processes promote biological evolution (change in allelic frequencies)

A
  • natural selection
  • sexual selection
  • genetic drift
  • gene flow
  • mutation
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18
Q

define natural selection

A
  • best phenotypes for an environment or reproduction have higher chances of survival
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19
Q

define gene flow

A

change in allelic frequency due to migration

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20
Q

define genetic structure

A
  • frequencies of resulting genotypes from frequencies of different alleles
  • used to understand phenotype distribution
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21
Q

what would the gene pool and genetic structure of generations look like if a population is at equilibrium

A

the same

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22
Q

define selection pressure

A

driving selective force

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23
Q

what size populations are more susceptible to genetic drift and why

A
  • small populations
  • large populations are buffered against the effects of chance; less % of overall gene pool will be lost if one individual dies
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24
Q

define bottleneck effect

A
  • suddenly wiping out a large portion of the genome
  • natural events that randomly kill a large portion of the population
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25
Q

what is the main difference between the bottleneck and founder effect

A

no loss in alleles in founder effect; individuals just move to different places

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26
Q

define mutations

A
  • changes to organisms DNA
  • important driver in diversity in populations
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27
Q

define nonrandom mating

A
  • assortative mating: choosing partner who look similar
  • mating due to physical location in large populations
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28
Q

define adaptive evolution

A

natural selection that selects beneficial alleles and selects against damaging alleles

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29
Q

does natural selection act on individual alleles or entire organisms

A
  • entire organisms
  • organisms may carry one beneficial allele and one damaging allele
  • effects of each allele determine which will be passed on
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30
Q

how can biological fitness be measured

A
  • survivorship: those best fitted to environment have higher chance of survival
  • reproductive success: those best fitted have higher mate chances
  • fecundity: those best fitted have higher chances of having more offspring
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31
Q

define evolutionary fitness

A

natural selection selecting individuals with greater contributions to the gene pool of the next generation

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32
Q

define relative fitness

A
  • how individual fitness compares to other organisms in the population
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33
Q

define gel electrophoresis

A

technique used to separate macromolecules by size

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34
Q

in the loading chamber of gel electrophoresis, which side is the negative electrode and positive electrode side

A
  • black in negative
  • red is positive
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35
Q

which way should wells be oriented in the gel electrophoresis chamber

A
  • wells on negative electrode side (black)
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36
Q

what two things affect phenotypes

A
  • genotypes
  • environment
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37
Q

define deleterious alleles

A
  • gene variants that affect an organism negatively
  • usually recessive
  • often lethal
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38
Q

define heterozygous advantage

A
  • allows deleterious alleles to survive due to heterozygous genotype having a survival advantage over either of the homozygous genotypes
  • example: sickle-cell anemia and malaria
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39
Q

describe whether each genotype has sickle cell anemia or is resistant to malaria

A
  • HbA/HbA: normal hemoglobin, no malaria resistance
  • HbA/HbS: sickle cell trait but they don’t develop the disease, resistant to malaria
  • HbS/HbS: sickle cell anemia
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40
Q

general characteristics of animals

A
  • multicellular
  • eukaryotic
  • chemoheterotrophs/heterotrophs
  • sexual reproduction
  • diploid
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41
Q

where do the vast majority of animals live

A

aquatic environments

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42
Q

how are animals characterized and classified

A
  • genomes/DNA
  • anatomy: tissues/organs, presence/absence of body cavity, embryonic development
  • symmetry
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43
Q

what are the 3 classifications based on germ layers

A
  • no true tissues
  • diploblastic
  • triploblastic
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44
Q

define no true tissues germ layer

A
  • one germ layer
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45
Q

what organisms have no true tissues (1 germ layer)

A
  • sponges
  • placozoa
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46
Q

define diploblastic

A
  • 2 germ layers
  • endoderm and ectoderm
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47
Q

what organisms are diploblastic

A
  • cnidarians
  • ctenophores
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48
Q

define triploblastic

A
  • 3 germ layers
  • endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm
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49
Q

what are the 2 groups of triploblastic animals

A
  • deuterostomes
  • protostomes
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50
Q

define the endoderm germ layer

A
  • innermost layer
  • becomes gut, liver, lungs
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51
Q

define the mesoderm germ layer

A
  • middle layer
  • becomes skeleton, heart, kidney, muscle, blood
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52
Q

define the ectoderm germ layer

A
  • outermost layer
  • becomes skin and nervous system
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53
Q

define coelom

A
  • animals that develop coeloms as embryos
  • body cavity in an embryo that later develops into body cavities, body compartments, and connective tissue that holds organs in place
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54
Q

define acoelomates

A
  • animals that do not develop a coelom as an embryo
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55
Q

what are the two types of organisms that have a coelom

A
  • protostomes
  • deuterostomes
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56
Q

define blastopore

A
  • first opening into embryo that has a coelom
  • leads into primitive embryonic gut referred to as the archenteron
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57
Q

what happens to the blastopore in protostomes and deuterostomes

A
  • protostomes: becomes the mouth, second opening becomes anus
  • deuterostomes: becomes anus, second opening becomes mouth
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58
Q

describe coelom formation in protostomes

A
  • schizocoelous
  • body cavity forms when mesodermal tissue splits
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59
Q

describe coelom formation in deuterostomes

A
  • entercoelous
  • body cavity forms when pockets on the primitive gut (archenteron) bud off
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60
Q

describe the fate of cells in protostomes and deuterostomes

A
  • protostomes: determinate; cells are ore-programmed
  • deuterostomes: indeterminate: cells are stem cells
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61
Q

what are the two groups of protostomes

A
  • ecdysozoa: arthropoda, nematoda, etc
  • lophotrochozoa: mollusca, annelida, brachiopoda, playhelminthes, etc
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62
Q

what are the 3 phyla of deuterostomes

A
  • hemichordata
  • echinodermata
  • chordata
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63
Q

define asymmetrical organism

A
  • animals with no discernable symmetry
  • found in primitive animals
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64
Q

what phylum’s are asymmetrical

A
  • porifera
  • placozoa
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65
Q

define radially symmetrical organisms

A
  • animals that do not have distinct right and left sides
  • symmetrical parts radiate from the center
  • jellyfish
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66
Q

what phylum’s are radially symmetrical

A
  • cnidaria
  • ctenophora
  • echinoderms
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67
Q

define bilaterally symmetrical organisms

A
  • animals that have distinct right and left sides
  • humans
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68
Q

define invertebrates

A
  • animal that has no backbone
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69
Q

what animal is in the phylum porifera

A

sponges

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70
Q

describe the phylum porifera

A
  • sponges
  • asymmetrical
  • acoelomate: no coelom
  • no true tissues or organs
  • filter feeding
  • fibrous and/or mineralized skeleton
  • adults can’t move; larvae are free-swimming
  • hermaphroditic: male and female reproductive gonadal tissue
  • reproduce asexually: budding and fragmentation
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71
Q

what are the two types of cells in sponges for feeding

A
  • choanocytes: filter food from water
  • amoebocytes: engulf and digest filtered food
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72
Q

describe the phylum cnidaria

A
  • jellyfish, hydria, corals, anemones, sea fans
  • radially symmetrical
  • diploblastic
  • special cells called cnidocytes for stinging
  • stinging organelles within cnidocytes called nematocysts
  • gastrovascular cavity for eating and expelling waste
  • contains classes anthozoa and medusozoa
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73
Q

what are the two stages of cnidarians

A
  • polyp: attached to substrate
  • medusa: can move
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74
Q

describe the class anthozoa

A
  • phylum: cnidaria
  • sea anemones and corals
  • polyp form only
  • mostly sessile
  • reproduce sexually or asexually
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75
Q

describe the class medusozoa

A
  • phylum: cnidaria
  • includes hydrozoa (hydras), scyphozoa (true jellies), and cubozoa (box jellies
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76
Q

describe hydrozoans

A
  • hydras
  • phylum: cnidaria
  • class: medusozoa
  • has both polyp and medusa body forms
  • polyp stage is often dominant
  • asexual reproduction
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77
Q

describe scyphozoans

A
  • true jellies
  • phylum: cnidaria
  • class: medusozoa
  • medusa form is dominant; polyp form in reduced
  • segmented polyps asexually reproduce
  • medusas only reproduce sexually
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78
Q

describe cubozoans

A
  • box jellies/sea wasps
  • phylum: cnidaria
  • class: medusozoa
  • no polyps
  • four tentacles at each corner
  • sexual reproduction only
  • have visual sense
  • extremely venomous
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79
Q

describe the phylum ctenophora

A
  • comb jellies
  • similar to cnidarians
  • diploblastic
  • lack nematocysts
  • bioluminescence
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80
Q

define diploblastic vs triploblastic

A
  • diploblastic: embryonic endoderm and ectoderm layers
  • triploblastic: embryonic endoderm and ectoderm layers AND embryonic mesoderm layers which develop into muscle and bone
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81
Q

describe the phylum platyhelminthes

A
  • acoelomate: no coelom
  • free-living or parasitic
  • hermaphroditic
  • first example of cephalization in fossil record
  • flatworms: planarians, flukes, and tapeworms
  • contains subphylums catenulida and rhabditophora
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82
Q

describe the subphylum catenulida

A
  • phylum: platyhelminthes
  • 100 species
  • flatworms
  • free-living
  • freshwater
  • nonmotile sperm
  • single testis
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83
Q

describe the subphylum rhabditophora

A
  • phylum: platyhelminthes
  • 20,000 species
  • includes classes turbellaria, trematoda, cestoda
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84
Q

describe the class turbellaria

A
  • phylum: platyhelminthes
  • subphylum: rhabditophora
  • planarians
  • free-living
  • predators or scavengers
  • have protonephridia for osmoregulation
  • ocelli: eyespots, photoreceptive neurons
  • protrusible pharynx for eating and expelling feces
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85
Q

describe the class trematoda

A
  • phylum: platyhelminthes
  • subphylum: rhabditophora
  • flukes
  • internal parasites
  • complex life cycle with multiple hosts
  • two suckers to attach to host
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86
Q

what is an important differentiation between planarians and flukes

A
  • ocelli: eyes that detect light
  • planarians have ocelli
  • flukes don’t have ocelli
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87
Q

define the class cestoda

A
  • phylum: platyhelminthes
  • subphylum: rhabditophora
  • tapeworms
  • internal parasites
  • reside in vertebrates
  • has proglottids (reproductive segments) and scolex (anchor worm to host)
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88
Q

define ecdysozoa

A
  • 1 of 2 major groups of protostomes
  • ecdysis: molting
  • triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical
  • more ecdysozoan species than all other animals combined
  • includes nematoda, tardigrada, arthropoda
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89
Q

define the phylum nematoda

A
  • nematodes and roundworms
  • ecdysozoa
  • pseudocoelomate
  • complete digestive tract
  • move via thrashing motion; longitudinal muscles
  • not hermaphroditic
  • aquatic habitats
  • parasites of plant and animal tissues
  • includes vinegar eels, trichinella, ascaris
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90
Q

describe vinegar eels

A
  • phylum: nematoda
  • turbatrix aceti
  • free-living
  • feed on bacteria and yeast
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91
Q

describe trichinella

A
  • phylum: nematoda
  • parasitic
  • responsible for trichinosis from easting infested pork
  • creates cysts in pig muscle tissues and human brain
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92
Q

describe ascaris

A
  • phylum: nematoda
  • tropical parasites
  • can lay 200,000+ eggs per day
  • infection starts when eggs are ingested
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93
Q

describe the phylum tardigrada

A
  • water bears
  • ecdysozoa
  • closely related to arthropods
  • go into stasis in extreme conditions
  • only animal known to survive vacuum of space
94
Q

describe the phylum anthropoda

A
  • spiders, insects, centipedes, millipedes, crustaceans
  • ecdysozoa
  • most numerous and diverse group of animals
  • jointed appendages
  • segmented body
  • exoskeleton composed of chitin
  • open circulatory system
  • 3 group: myriapoda, chelicerata, pancrustacea
95
Q

describe the subphylum myriapoda

A
  • phylum: arthropoda
  • centipedes: carnivorous, 1 pair of legs per segment, poisonous
  • millipedes: herbivorous, 2 pairs of legs per segment
  • antennae and ocelli
96
Q

describe the subphylum chelicerata

A
  • phylum: arthropoda
  • have chelicerae: pincers or fangs
  • 2 body regions: cephalothorax and abdomen
  • 6 pairs of appendages
  • 4 pairs of legs
  • breathe using gills or book lungs
  • mites, horseshoe crabs, spiders, scorpions, sea spiders, ticks
97
Q

describe the subphylum pancrustacea

A
  • phylum: arthropoda
  • heavily segmented
  • compound eyes
  • mandibles
  • 3 body regions: head, thorax, abdomen
  • includes hexapoda and crustacea
98
Q

describe the subphylum hexapoda

A
  • phylum: arthropoda
  • subphylum: pancrustacea
  • insects
  • 3 pairs of walking legs
  • wings
  • feeding appendages
  • sensory organs
99
Q

describe the subphylum crustacea

A
  • phylum: arthropoda
  • subphylum: pancrustacea
  • crabs, lobsters, crayfish, barnacles, shrimp, isopods
  • mostly marine
  • 2 pairs of sensory antennae
  • > 3 pairs of walking legs
  • gills for respiration
100
Q

describe lophotrochozoans

A
  • 1 of 2 major branches of protostomes
  • triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical
  • spiral cell division
  • lophophore: ciliated tentacles surrounding mouth
  • trochophore: larval stage of annelids and mollusks
  • includes mollusca, annelida
101
Q

describe the phylum mollusca

A
  • chitons, snails, clams, cephalopods
  • protostomes
  • bilaterally symmetrical
  • lack segments
  • 3 body components: foot (locomotion), visceral mass (internal organs), mantle (secretes shell)
  • open circulatory system
  • includes classes polyplacophora, gastropoda, bivalvia, cephalopoda
102
Q

describe the class polyplacophora

A
  • phylum: mollusca
  • chitons
  • segmented shell with 8 plates
  • scrapes algae off rocks with radula
103
Q

describe the class gastropoda

A
  • phylum: mollusca
  • snails, slugs, nudibranchs
  • some exhibit torsion: 180-degree rotation of visceral mass
  • some have shells
104
Q

describe the class bivalvia

A
  • phylum: mollusca
  • clams, oysters, scallops, mussels
  • animal within two hinged halves
  • incurrent and excurrent siphons
  • 4 oversized gills for filter feeding
105
Q

describe the class cephalopoda

A
  • phylum: mollusca
  • nautilus, squid, octopi
  • predators
  • most advanced invertebrates
  • closed circulatory system with 3 hearts
  • well-developed eyes
  • chromatophores: pigmented cells help them change color
106
Q

describe the phylum annelida

A
  • roundworms with segments
  • hermaphroditic
  • protostomes
  • closed circulatory system: not continuous with external environment
  • includes classes errantia and sedentaria
107
Q

describe the class errantia

A
  • phylum: annelida
  • free-living
  • marine worms
  • possess parapodia with chaetae
  • well-developed sense organs
108
Q

describe the class sedentaria

A
  • phylum: annelida
  • sedentary marine tubeworms, earthworms, leeches
  • few to no setae (bristles)
  • clitellum: glues them together while mating
109
Q

describe earthworms

A
  • phylum: annelida
  • class: sedentaria
  • pharynx: pumps dirt into esophagus
  • seminal vesicles: male reproductive structures
  • aortic arches: blood pumping
  • crop and gizzard: store and grind food particles before passing to intestines
  • clitellum: mucus-secreting structure allowing gametes exchange
110
Q

describe leeches

A
  • phylum: annelida
  • class: sedentaria
  • parasitic or predators feeding on small invertebrates
  • can remove hematomas
111
Q

what are the four important external elements of anthropods

A
  • segmentation: separation of body cavities and regions
  • chitinous exoskeleton: prevents water loss, shed as animal grows
  • jointed appendages: quick and agile movements
  • advanced sensory systems: receive, process, and respond to information
112
Q

describe the phylum echinodermata

A
  • deuterostomes
  • spiny protective skin
  • penta-radial symmetry
  • water vascular system creating structure, support, and mechanism for movement
  • slow-moving
  • tube feet
  • internal skeleton made of calcite plates
  • includes classes crinoidea, echinoidea, holothuroidea, asteroidea, ophiuroidea
113
Q

describe the class crinoidea

A
  • phylum: echinodermata
  • sea lilies and feather stars
  • sea lilies: sessile
  • feather stars: mobile
  • attach to coral or sponges
  • filter feeders
114
Q

describe the class echinoidea

A
  • phylum: echinodermata
  • sea urchins and sand dollars
  • unevenly spherical
  • lack arms
  • move slowly
  • aristotles lantern: feeding apparatus with 5 teeth
115
Q

describe the class holothuroidea

A
  • phylum: echinodermata
  • sea cucumbers
  • elongated shape
  • 5 rows of tube feet
  • lack spines, reduced endoskeleton
  • eviscerate intestines to avoid predators; intestines secrete poison
116
Q

describe the class asteroidea

A
  • phylum: echinodermata
  • sea stars
  • usually 5 arms
  • regeneration
  • eviscerate stomachs to consume prey
  • most are carnivorous
117
Q

describe the class ophiuroidea

A
  • phylum: echinodermata
  • brittle stars and basket stars
  • central disc with long flexible arm
  • tube feet lack suckers; used for locomotion and sensory perception
118
Q

of germ layers in protostomes

A
  • 3
  • triploblastic
119
Q

of germ layers in deuterostomes

A
  • 3
  • triploblastic
120
Q

coelom type (schizocoelus or enterocoelus) in protostomes

A

schizocoelus

121
Q

coelom type (schizocoelus or enterocoelus) in deuterostomes

A

enterocoelus

122
Q

body cavity type in protostomes

A
  • coelomate
  • acoelomate
  • pseudocoelomate
123
Q

body cavity type in deuterostomes

A

coelomate

124
Q

cell fate (determinant or indeterminant) in protostomes

A

determinant

125
Q

cell fate (determinant or indeterminant) in deuterostomes

A

indeterminant

126
Q

blastopore fate in protostomes

A

mouth

127
Q

blastospore fate in deuterostomes

A

anus

128
Q

what are the 3 phyla of deuterostomes

A
  • hemichordata
  • echinodermata
  • chordata
129
Q

what 5 traits do all chordates exhibit at some point in their development

A
  • notochord
  • dorsal hollow nerve cord
  • pharyngeal gill slits
  • post-anal tail
  • endostyle/thyroid gland
130
Q

define notochord

A
  • longitudinal, flexible support rod running the length of the chordate
  • originates from mesoderm
  • typically runs between the gut and the nerve cord
  • evolved to be intervertebral disks in vertebrates
131
Q

define dorsal hollow nerve cord

A
  • rolled nervous tissue
  • formed by ectoderm
  • usually becomes brain and spinal cord
  • found dorsal to the notochord
132
Q

define pharyngeal gill slits

A
  • grooves on the side of the embryonic pharynx
  • develops into gills or structures of the inner ear and neck
  • originally used to filter food; now used for gas exchange
133
Q

define post-anal tail

A
  • present during embryonic development; may be lost in later stages
  • contains skeletal elements and muscles
134
Q

define endostyle/thyroid gland

A
  • longitudinal groove of ciliated cells in the pharynx
  • secretes mucus for filter feeding in invertebrates
  • develops into thyroid gland in vertebrates
  • plays role in metabolism
135
Q

are chordates and vertebrates the same thing

A
  • no
  • chordata is a phylum
  • vertebrata is subphylum
136
Q

what subphylums are in the phylum chordata

A
  • vertebrata
  • cephalochordata
  • urochordata
137
Q

describe the subphylum cephalochordata

A
  • phylum: chordata
  • sea lancelets
  • retain all 5 chordate characteristics unmodified throughout their life
  • NOT vertebrates
  • marine burrowing filter feeders
  • transcutaneous respiration
138
Q

describe the subphylum urochordata

A
  • phylum: chordata
  • sea squirts (tunicates)
  • NOT vertebrates
  • most primitive chordate group
  • larvae have all 5 chordate characteristics; notochord, nerve cord, and tail are lost as adult
  • filter feeders
  • outer skin made of tunicin
139
Q

describe the subphylum vertebrata

A
  • phylum: chordata
    -vertebrates
  • have skull, backbone, endoskeleton, closed circulatory system, and respiratory system
  • 2 superclasses: agnatha and gnathostomata
140
Q

describe the super classes agnathans

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • no jaw
  • includes class myxini, petromyzontida
141
Q

describe the class myxini

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: agnathans
  • hagfish
  • no backbone
  • ring of tentacles around their mouth
  • eat carcasses at the bottom of the sea
  • excrete lots of mucus as a defense mechanism
142
Q

describe the class petromyzontida

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: agnathans
  • lampreys
  • skull and backbone made of cartilage
  • parasitic to fish
  • teeth
143
Q

describe the super class gnathostomata

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • jaws
  • two sets of paired appendages
  • includes class chondricthyes, osteichthyes
144
Q

describe the class chondricthyes

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • sharks and rays
  • full skeleton made of cartilage
  • placoid scales made of mesoderm tissues
145
Q

describe the class osteichthyes

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • bony fish and tetrapods
  • all have complete skeletons made of bone
  • includes 6 classes: actinopterygii, actinistia, dipnoi, amphibia, reptilia, mammalia
146
Q

describe the subclass actinopterygii

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • class: osteichthyes
  • ray-finned fishes
  • rays in fins with tissue in between
  • swim bladder
  • carp, perch, bass, tuna, etc
147
Q

define the term sarcopterygii

A
  • meaning having bones in fins or limbs
  • classes actinistia, dipnoi, amphibia, reptilia, mammalia
148
Q

describe the subclass actinistia

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • class: osteichthyes
  • sarcopterygii
  • bones in fins
  • most members are extinct
149
Q

describe the subclass dipnoi

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • class: osteichthyes
  • sarcopterygii
  • lungfishes
  • use most gills and lungs for respiration
  • can walk on fins out of water for short periods of time
  • breathe air at surface into lungs
150
Q

describe the subclass amphibia

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • class: osteichthyes
  • sarcopterygii
  • tetrapods
  • land and water
  • gas exchange through moist skin
  • eggs laid in water and fertilized externally; not amniotic eggs
151
Q

define amniota

A
  • tetrapods adapted to dry environemnts
  • thicker skin
  • well-developed lungs
  • internal fertilization (generally)
  • amniotic egg
  • reptilia and mammalia
152
Q

describe the amniotic egg

A
  • adaptation for living exclusively on dry land
  • amnion: fluid filled membrane that protects embryo
  • allantois: membrane for gas exchange
  • yolk sac: nourishes embryo
  • chorion: encloses embryo
  • shell: prevents desiccation
  • laid externally in most reptiles
  • retained internally in most mammals
153
Q

describe the subclass reptilia

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • class: osteichthyes
  • sarcopterygii
  • tetrapods
  • snakes, lizards, turtles, birds
  • cold-blooded
  • have amniotic egg
  • touch skin with epidermal scales
154
Q

describe the subclass mammalia

A
  • subphylum: vertebrata
  • superclass: gnathostomata
  • class: osteichthyes
  • sarcopterygii
  • tetrapods
  • endothermic: regulate own internal temperature
  • most have live-born offspring
  • hair or fur
  • 4 chambered hearts
  • produce milk with mammary glands
155
Q

describe the types of glands on mammals

A
  • sebaceous: produce lipid sebum, provides water resistance and lubrication
  • eccrine: sweat glands
  • apocrine: scent glands
  • mammary: produce milk
156
Q

describe a pig trachea

A
  • airway
  • passage to lungs
  • exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
157
Q

describe a pig esophagus

A
  • transports food from mouth to stomach
  • behind trachea
158
Q

describe a pig larynx

A
  • voice box
  • pig snorting and vocalizations
159
Q

describe a pig thyroid gland

A
  • production of hormones associated with metabolism
160
Q

describe a pig thymus gland

A
  • immune system: T-cell production
161
Q

describe a pig diaphragm

A
  • thin flap of muscle
  • below the lungs
  • muscle that pulls lungs down so air will come in
162
Q

describe a pig lung

A
  • behind sternum
  • exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen
163
Q

describe a pig heart

A
  • behind sternum
  • pressure generator to move blood through arteries and veins
164
Q

describe a pig stomach

A
  • where food is emptied from the esophagus
  • where enzymatic digestion begins with pepsin
165
Q

describe a pig liver

A
  • bile production
  • production of blood proteins
  • detoxification of various chemicals
166
Q

describe a pig gallbladder

A
  • stores and releases bile which emulsifies fats
167
Q

describe a pig pancreas

A
  • makes hormones and digestive enzymes
168
Q

describe a pig small intestine

A
  • takes food from stomach
169
Q

describe a pig large intestine

A
  • takes food form small intestine
  • enzymatic digestion continues
  • absorption of monomers into the bloodstream
170
Q

functions of the cardiovascular system

A
  • circulation of blood
  • regulation of blood pressure
  • distribution of gases, nutrients, metabolic wastes, hormones, and blood proteins
171
Q

what types of organisms have 4-chambered hearts

A
  • warm-blooded
  • higher vertebrates
  • from birds to humans
172
Q

where does each side of the heart distribute blood to

A
  • right: to the lungs or pulmonary system
  • left: to the body
173
Q

how many chambers does a fish, amphibian, and reptile/mammal heart have

A
  • fish: 2
  • amphibian: 3
  • reptile/mammal: 4
174
Q

define arteries, veins, and capillaries

A
  • arteries: carry blood away from the heart
  • veins: carry blood back to the heart
  • capillaries: thin walled to allow for diffusion of gases, nutrients, wastes, and hormones
175
Q

define systole and diastole

A
  • systole: contraction
  • diastole: relaxation
176
Q

describe the flow of blood through the body

A
  • blood enters heart through inferior and superior vena cava
  • atria contract and blood moves from right atria to right ventricle
  • ventricles contract and blood moves into pulmonary artery
  • blood travels to the lungs for gas exchange
  • blood returns via pulmonary veins into the left atria
  • atria contract and blood moves from left atria to left ventricle
  • ventricles contract and blood moves into aorta
  • blood travels through the body oxygenating tissues
177
Q

define respiration

A
  • inhalation: flexes diaphragm and intercostal muscles so air comes in
  • exhalation: intercostal muscles relax and air is exhaled
178
Q

define blood pressure

A
  • amount of pressure within arteries and veins
  • generated by the heart and by contraction of skeletal muscles
179
Q

which part of the brain measures blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate

A
  • medulla oblongata
180
Q

how is cardiac muscle movement detected

A
  • pulse
  • blood pressure
181
Q

what is used to measure blood pressure

A
  • sphygmomanometer
182
Q

what does the electrical activity of the heart do

A
  • causes heart to contract or beat
183
Q

where does the red, black, and green electrode go on an EKG

A
  • red: positive; left wrist
  • black: negative; right wrist
  • green: ground; right ankle
184
Q

what should be removed before starting an EKG

A
  • jewelry
185
Q

define the p-wave, QRS complex, and t-wave on an EKG

A
  • p-wave: atrial contraction
  • QRS complex: ventricular contraction and atrial relaxation
  • t-wave: ventricular relaxation
186
Q

what is the equation for mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)

A
  • diastolic + (systolic + diastolic)/3
187
Q

define excretion

A
  • process of getting rid of unnecessary wastes
188
Q

what are the main excretory organs

A
  • skin
  • liver
  • colon
  • kidneys
189
Q

function of kidneys

A
  • filtering waste out of blood which ends up as urine
  • maintaining blood volume and pH
  • regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure
  • make hormone erythropoietin (EPO) which helps to make RBCs
190
Q

how much blood do kidneys receive per minute

A
  • almost as much as the brain does
191
Q

why are ventricles so much larger than atria

A
  • they have to pump the blood further
  • left ventricle is largest because it has to pump blood all around the body
192
Q

what is the purpose of heart valves

A
  • prevent backflow of blood
193
Q

define dialysis

A
  • person connected to machine that filters blood for them
194
Q

which cardiac event is not seen on the EKG and why

A
  • relaxation of atria is not seen
  • ventricles are bigger so ventricular contraction masks atrial relaxation
195
Q

what are the two divisions of the nervous system

A
  • central nervous system
  • peripheral nervous system
196
Q

nervous system function

A
  • take in, process, and respond to stimuli from the external environment
197
Q

what is in the central nervous system

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
198
Q

what is in the peripheral nervous system

A
  • cranial nerves
  • spinal nerves
199
Q

what are the three parts of the brain and what do they contain

A
  • forebrain: olfactory bulb and cerebrum
  • midbrain: optic lobe
  • hindbrain: cerebellum
200
Q

location and function of the cerebrum

A
  • in forebrain
  • responsible for thought, conscious activities, perception of external world, memory, and judgement
201
Q

location and function of the corpus callosum

A
  • in forebrain
  • connects lift and right hemispheres
  • larger in females allows for better multitasking
202
Q

location and function of the olfactory bulb

A
  • in forebrain
  • sense of smell
203
Q

location and function of ventricles in the brain

A
  • in forebrain
  • cavities in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid
204
Q

location and function of the pineal gland

A
  • in forebrain
  • part of epithalamus
  • produces melatonin
205
Q

location and function of the diencephalon

A
  • in forebrain
  • thalamus: integrating movements
  • hypothalamus: hunger, sex drive, primitive emotions
206
Q

location and function of the pituitary gland

A
  • in forebrain
  • connected to hypothalamus
  • makes hormones associated with metabolic activity, reproductive activity, and regulation of water volume balance
207
Q

function of the midbrain

A
  • wakefulness
  • four lobes called corpora quadrigeminy: visual and auditory reflexes
208
Q

location and function of the cerebellum

A
  • in hindbrain
  • movement, posture, equilibrium
209
Q

location and function of the medulla oblongata

A
  • in hindbrain
  • involuntary homeostatic functions: blood pressure, respiration, heart rate
210
Q

location and function of the pons

A
  • in hindbrain
  • allows signals to be transmitted from one side of the cerebellum to the other
211
Q

define the two types of matter in the spinal cord

A
  • gray matter: butterfly shaped area containing shot nerve fibers, interneurons, and motor neuron cell bodies
  • white matter: long fibers that carry impulses up and down the spinal cord
212
Q

define nerve

A
  • bundle of neurons
213
Q

define neuron

A
  • one cell
  • specialized cell conducts nerve impulses
  • basic unit fo the nervous system
214
Q

explain the structure of a neuron

A
  • dendrites: receive messages
  • soma: cell body, contains nucleus, site of cellular biosynthesis
  • axon: conducts nerve impulses
215
Q

define synapse

A
  • gap between two neurons
  • signals are passed between two cells via neurotransmitters
216
Q

how are neurotransmitters released from the pre-synaptic membrane

A
  • exocytosis
  • neurotransmitters inside vesicles that fuse with the membrane and send them out of the cell
217
Q

explain the three types of neurons

A
  • sensory neurons: pick up information from the environment and relay to CNS, in PNS
  • interneurons: process information in CNS, not in PNS
  • motor neurons: carry information from CNS to cause a response, in PNS
218
Q

describe the compound eye

A
  • made of independent visual units called ommatidia
  • each ommatidia has its own photoreceptors
219
Q

describe the structure of a camera eye

A
  • cornea: transparent portion of sclera, allows light into the eye
  • iris: controls amount of light entering eye, gives color
  • aqueous and vitreous chambers: fluid filled cavities that support the eye and refract light
  • sclera: outermost layer, muscle attachment
  • choroid: middle layer, provides blood supply
  • retina: innermost layer, sensory layer with rods and cones
220
Q

describe how camera eyes are used to see

A
  • light enters through pupil
  • lens focuses light on the retina
  • rods and cones transmit nerve impulses to the optic nerve
  • brain processes visual information
221
Q

describe rods and cones

A
  • rods: light sensitive, sense dim light, found more in periphery, night
  • cones: bright light, fine detail, color, concentrated in center
222
Q

explain what the blind spot is

A
  • center area of retina with no rods or cones
  • where optic nerve fibers converge into optic disk
223
Q

define tapetum lucidum

A
  • iridescent portion of retina
  • dense region of rods allowing animal to see well in lowlight conditions
224
Q

describe how we hear

A
  • sound waves contact tympanic membrane (eardrum)
  • sound waves passed to inner ear bones
  • small hairs in the cochlea send nerve impulses to the brain which interprets the impulses as sounds
225
Q

define the semicircular canals of the ear

A
  • fill with fluid
  • allow organism to perceive position, direction, and speed
226
Q

describe gustation

A
  • taste
  • taste buds in tongue used for chemoreception, needs saliva to work
227
Q

define chemoreception

A
  • detection of chemicals by receptors associated with the nervous system
  • sense of taste and smell
228
Q

describe olfaction

A
  • smell
  • chemoreception
  • chemicals enter through the nose and bind to the nasal epithelium
229
Q

describe the sense of touch

A
  • sensory receptors sense changes in environment and synapse with sensory neurons
  • meissner’s corpuscles: located near skin surface, sense light and touch
  • pacinian corpuscle: locate beneath skin, sense deep touch and pressure
230
Q

define electroencephalogram (EEG

A
  • measures electrical activities of the brain
231
Q

describe the four types of brain waves

A
  • beta: awake with mental activity
  • alpha: awake and resting
  • theta: sleeping
  • delta: deep sleep
232
Q

where are each electrodes placed for an EEG

A
  • red: above right eyebrow
  • green: above left eyebrow
  • black: back of the head

BIOL 107 (18 decks)

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