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BIOL 107 > Exam 2: Learning Objectives > Flashcards

Exam 2: Learning Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

describe the flow of energy through living systems

A
  • known as bioenergetics
  • sun to plants to consumers to decomposers to heat
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2
Q

define metabolism

A
  • all chemical reactions that take place in cells
  • transforms matter and energy
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3
Q

explain metabolic pathways and the two major types

A
  • metabolic pathways consist of many biochemical reactions
  • anabolic: build bonds, requires energy, photosynthesis
  • catabolic: breaks bonds, releases energy, glycolysis
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4
Q

compare and contrast the different forms of energy

A
  • potential: stored energy, energy of matter due to structure, includes chemical energy
  • kinetic: energy of objects in motion
  • chemical: bonds holding atoms together have potential energy, chemical reactions break bonds and release energy
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5
Q

explain how energy is transformed in living systems

A
  • potential energy in chemical bonds
  • bonds broken and energy is released
  • energy is required to build complex molecules
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6
Q

describe endergonic and exergonic reactions

A
  • endergonic: non-spontaneous, require energy, anabolic, build bonds, products have more free energy
  • exergonic: spontaneous, releases energy, catabolic, breaks bonds, reactants have more free energy
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7
Q

define the first two laws of thermodynamics in simple terms

A
  • 1st: energy not created or destroyed only transformed
  • 2nd: all energy transfers are never completely efficient; some energy is always lost (usually as heat) which increases entropy in the universe
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8
Q

describe activation energy

A
  • initial energy required for reaction to start
  • causes reactants to become more unstable and allows reaction to take place quickly
  • usually sourced from heat surrounding the cell
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9
Q

explain how energetically unfavorable reactions can occur in a cell

A
  • enzymes
  • lower activation energy so reactions can occur easier
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10
Q

describe enzymes and their function (what do they do/not do)

A
  • DO catalyze biochemical reactions
  • DO lower activation energy
  • DO bind to substrates
  • DON’T change whether reaction is endergonic or exergonic
  • DON’T change free energy of reactants or products
  • DON’T get used up/changed from process
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11
Q

compare the different types of enzyme regulation

A
  • competitive inhibition: molecule binds to active site, blocks substrate from binding
  • allosteric (non-competitive) inhibition: molecule binds to allosteric site, changes enzyme active site so substrate cannot bind
  • allosteric activation: molecule binds to allosteric site, changes enzyme active site so substrate can bind
  • feedback inhibition: end product of enzyme reaction inhibits the continuation of reactions
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12
Q

summarize energy transformations in the biosphere

A
  • light energy converted to usable energy through photosynthesis
  • cellular respiration converts glucose into energy for cells
  • energy leaves through heat
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13
Q

sketch the structure of ATP

A
  • one adenine
  • one ribose sugar
  • 3 phosphate groups
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14
Q

describe the role of ATP in the cell

A
  • energy supplying molecule of the cell
  • powers work by coupling exergonic and endergonic reactions
  • energy released from ATP when phosphate bonds are broken
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15
Q

understand the importance of cellular respiration

A

converts nutrients into ATP energy

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16
Q

write an equation summarizing cellular respiration

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

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17
Q

explain why glycolysis is considered “universal”

A
  • all cells undergo glycolysis
  • aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration
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18
Q

describe the location of glycolysis

A

cytosol

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19
Q

summarize the energy investment and output phases of glycolysis (including significant inputs and outputs)

A
  • energy investment: glucose phosphorylated then converted to glyceraldehyde-3-P, requires 2 ATP
  • energy payoff: glyceraldehyde-3-P becomes pyruvate, NAD+ picks up 2 electrons, 4 ATP produced
  • yields 2 net ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
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20
Q

explain the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration

A
  • electron transport molecule
  • NAD+ picks up electron and becomes NADH
  • NADH goes to electron transport chain and gives electron to power ATP formation
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21
Q

understand the importance of glycolysis

A
  • reduces glucose to pyruvate which goes in CAC
  • produces NADH for ETC
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22
Q

describe the location of the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

A
  • CAC: mitochondrial matrix
  • OP: mitochondrial inner membrane
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23
Q

describe how pyruvate is prepared for entry into the citric acid cycle

A
  • oxidation of pyruvate
  • converted to acetyl CoA: oxidized to acetate and attached to coenzyme A
  • CO2 released
  • electron passed to NAD+ producing NADH
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24
Q

describe the products of the citric acid cycle

A
  • 4 CO2
  • 6 NADH ***
  • 2 FADH2 ***
  • 2 ATP/GTP
  • H2O
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25
Q

understand the purpose of the citric acid cycle

A

produces NADH and FADH2 for the ETC

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26
Q

describe the flow through the electron transport chain

A
  • electrons from NADH go into C1 embedded protein
  • move through C2, C3, and C4
  • move back into mitochondrial matrix
  • accepted by oxygen
  • water created
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27
Q

explain the role of ATP synthase in the production of ATP

A
  • where H+ flows down from the electrochemical gradient
  • drives chemiosmosis
  • where energy from H+ bind ADP and P to create ATP
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28
Q

understand the relationship between glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation

A
  • 1st: glycolysis: glucose becomes pyruvate (becomes acetyl CoA in linker reaction)
  • 2nd: citric acid cycle: uses acetyl CoA to generate NADH
  • 3rd: oxidative phosphorylation: NADH gives electrons to electron transport chain which powers electrochemical gradient for ATP synthesis
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29
Q

know the net yield of ATP from each part of cellular respiration

A
  • glycolysis: 2 ATP
  • citric acid cycle: 2 ATP
  • oxidative phosphorylation: 36-38 ATP
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30
Q

explain why oxygen is a beneficial electron acceptor

A

highly electronegative

31
Q

explain how a circular pathway, like the citric acid cycle, fundamentally differs from a linear biochemical pathway, like glycolysis

A
  • citric acid cycle continues in a cycle; creates oxaloacetate which is used to start reaction again
  • glycolysis: starts with glucose and ends with pyruvate which isn’t used to start a cycle
32
Q

compare/contrast the fates of pyruvate under aerobic and anaerobic conditions

A
  • aerobic: becomes acetyl CoA
  • anaerobic: becomes lactate or ethanol
33
Q

describe the 2 major types of fermentation

A
  • lactic acid: pyruvate converted to lactate, directly regenerates NAD+, pyruvate is final electron acceptor
  • alcohol: pyruvate converted to acetaldehyde converted to ethanol, acetaldehyde is final electron acceptor
34
Q

understand the relationship between glycolysis and fermentation

A
  • glycolysis takes place in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration
  • fermentation takes place in anaerobic respiration
  • glycolysis provides pyruvate for fermentation
35
Q

explain the purpose of cell division in unicellular vs multicellular organisms

A
  • unicellular: reproduction
  • multicellular: reproduction, growth and development, tissue repair, and tissue maintenance
36
Q

compare the genomes of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

A
  • both: double helix, same nucleotides, same genetic code
  • prokaryotes: nucleoid region, 1 circular chromosome, have plasmids
  • eukaryotes: nucleus, several linear chromosomes, have histones
37
Q

understand the structure of a eukaryotic chromosome

A
  • DNA and histone proteins make chromatin which condenses to form chromosomes
  • number of chromosomes varies by species
38
Q

know the purpose of DNA replication and recognize a duplicated vs unduplicated chromosome

A
  • purpose: to ensure daughter cells are genetically identical to original
  • duplicated: x-shape
  • unduplicated: one linear shape
39
Q

sketch, label, and describe the eukaryotic spindle apparatus

A
  • astral microtubules: connect centrioles to cell membrane, keep centrosome in place
  • polar microtubules: extend from centrioles to middle of cell, help the help move apart and elongate
  • kinetochore microtubules: connect centrioles to kinetochores of sister chromatids, pull sister chromatids apart during anaphase
40
Q

compare somatic cells and gametes

A
  • somatic: body cells, diploid
  • gametes: sex cells, haploid
41
Q

interpret a simple karyotype

A
  • homologous chromosomes: paired, carry same genes, one from each parent
  • heterologous chromosomes: not matching, X and Y chromosomes
42
Q

explain the 3 stages of interphase

A
  • G1: cell growth, biochemically active
  • S: DNA replication
  • G2: energy replenished, organelles reproduce, cytoskeleton breaks down, visible growth
43
Q

describe the different stages of the mitotic phase and discuss the behavior of chromosomes and cellular components during each phase

A
  • prophase: chromosomes condense, spindle fibers emerge, nuclear envelope breaks
  • prometaphase: kinetochores appear, spindles attach to kinetochores, centrosomes move to opposite poles
  • metaphase: chromosomes lined up at metaphase plate
  • anaphase: sister chromatids pulled apart toward centrosomes
  • telophase: chromosomes at opposite poles decondense, nuclear envelope forms, mitotic spindle breaks down to form cytoskeleton
44
Q

explain the process of cytokinesis

A
  • animals: cleavage furrow separates daughter cells
  • plants: cell plate separates daughter cells
45
Q

define the quiescent G0 phase

A
  • reversible state
  • cell resides before entering cell cycle
46
Q

know where the checkpoints in the cell cycle occur and what happens at each checkpoint

A
  • G1: end of G1 phase; checks cell size, enough nutrients, growth factors, and no DNA damage
  • G2: before mitosis; checks that DNA replication is complete and there is no damage in replicated DNA
  • M: during metaphase; checks that chromosomes are lined up and connected to spindle fibers
47
Q

describe how cells become cancerous

A
  • problems with genes regulating checkpoints
  • causes uncontrolled cell division
  • gene mutations build up across many divisions
48
Q

explain how protooncogenes are normal but become oncogenes

A
  • protooncogenes code for positive cell regulators (tell cell when to go through division)
  • mutations make them oncogenes
49
Q

describe the affect of oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes on the cell cycle

A
  • oncogenes: accelerated cell division because positive cell regulator overrides other processes, accelerates cell growth
  • tumor suppressor genes: when mutated they stop negative cell regulators (tell cell to stop division) from working, cell divides even with problems
50
Q

explain the process of cell division in prokaryotic cells

A
  • binary fission
  • bacterial chromosome replicates
  • 2 daughter chromosomes move apart
  • septum forms and divides the cell
51
Q

compare and contrast sexual and asexual reproduction

A
  • sexual: creates genetically unique offspring, requires mate and energy, slower population growth
  • asexual: creates genetically identical offspring, doesn’t require a mate or energy, faster population growth
52
Q

compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis

A
  • mitosis: 1 division, genetically identical, 2 diploid cell produced, somatic cells
  • meiosis: 2 divisions, genetically unique, 4 haploid cells produced, sex cells
53
Q

describe the stages of meiosis and the important events that occur at each stage (movement of chromosomes)

A
  • interphase: similar to mitosis
  • prophase 1: chromosomes undergo crossing over (exchange genetic information) and associate with homologous pair
  • metaphase 1: tetrads line up in metaphase plate randomly (independent assortment)
  • anaphase 1: homologous chromosomes separate, sister chromatids remain attached
  • telophase 1: sometimes chromosomes recondense, ends with 2 haploid cells
  • meiosis 2: similar to mitosis, sister chromatids separate, ends with 4 haploid cells
54
Q

explain nondisjunction and how it leads to chromosome abnormalities

A
  • when homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate during meiosis
  • results in duplications or losses of entire chromosomes
55
Q

explain errors in chromosome structure through duplication, deletion, and structural rearrangements

A
  • duplications: extra copy of small piece of chromosome
  • deletions: deletion of a segment of a chromosome
  • inversions: detachment, 180-degree rotation, and reattachment of segment of chromosome
  • translocations: part of chromosome detaches and reattached to another non-homologous chromosome
56
Q

understand the relationship between genes, alleles, and loci

A
  • alleles are different versions of the same gene; what alleles you have make up genes
  • genes are basic unit of heredity passed from one generation to the next
  • loci are locations where a gene is found on a chromosome
57
Q

explain different types of crosses

A
  • monohybrid: for one trait
  • dihybrid: for two traits
  • test: to find genotype of dominant expressing parent by crossing with homozygous recessive individual
  • reciprocal: traits of male and female switch between crosses
58
Q

explain a model system

A
  • system of convenient characteristics to study a phenomena
  • mendel used pea plants
59
Q

describe mendel’s experiments

A
  • manually cross pollinated true-breeding parental generations (hybridization)
  • let F1 generation (hybrids) self-pollinate and observed characteristics
  • looked at multiple discrete characteristics
60
Q

explain how mendel’s results demonstrated continuous variation and contrast with the idea of discontinuous variation

A
  • i think this question is worded wrong; should be other way around
  • continuous: mendel didn’t observe, range of difference, offspring are blend of parents
  • discontinuous: medel did observe, one of two distinct characteristics shown in offspring
61
Q

distinguish between different types of crosses and the annotations used to represent each generation

A
  • P: parental generation, true-breeding parents, homozygous for different traits, manually pollinated
  • F1: first filial generation, hybrids, all heterozygous and express dominant trait, self-pollinate
  • F2: second filial generation, has all genotypes, 3:1 phenotypic ratio
62
Q

define trait and distinguish between dominant and recessive

A
  • trait: specific characteristic of an individual
  • dominant: fully expressed in phenotype, only one copy needed, PP or Pp
  • recessive: non-functional copy, expressed in absence of dominant allele, pp
63
Q

distinguish between genotype and phenotype

A
  • genotype: genetic makeup; PP, Pp, pp
  • phenotype: physical appearance: purple flower, white flower
64
Q

explain the relationship between genotype and phenotype and how they relate to dominant and recessive

A
  • genotype: genetic makeup, can have dominant or recessive alleles, results in phenotype
  • phenotype: physical appearance, caused by genotype and dominant or recessive alleles
65
Q

use a punnett square the calculate the expected proportion of genotypes and phenotypes in a monohybrid cross

A
  • possible alleles in gametes placed on top and side of square
  • combine alleles in each box to get potential offspring genotypes
66
Q

explain mendel’s law of segregation and how is relates to events of meiosis

A
  • alleles/chromosomes segregate during meiosis
  • gametes have equal chance of receiving either allele/chromosomes
  • only 1 allele/chromosome is carried in a particular gene: individuals have 2 alleles (1 from each parent)
  • occurs during meiosis 1 when homologous chromosomes are segregated into daughter cells
67
Q

explain mendel’s law of independent assortment and how it relates to events of meiosis

A
  • each pair of alleles/chromosomes segregates autonomously and without influence on other alleles/chromosomes
  • random combinations of alleles in gametes
  • occurs during meiosis 1 when homologous pairs line up in metaphase plate in random orientations
68
Q

explain the purpose of a test cross

A
  • determine genotype of dominant expressing parent
  • cross with homozygous recessive to see if offspring exhibit recessive trait or not
69
Q

use probability rules to predict the outcomes of monohybrid and dihybrid crosses

A
  • calculate probabilities of the separate allele combinations
  • multiply probabilities together
70
Q

identify this non-mendelian inheritance pattern: incomplete dominance

A
  • phenotype of F1 hybrids in between phenotypes of parents
  • 3 phenotypes usually seen
  • blended mix
71
Q

identify this non-mendelian inheritance pattern: codominance

A
  • 2 dominant alleles affect the phenotype is separate but distinguishable ways
  • both phenotypes are seen separately
  • human blood type
  • unblended mix
72
Q

identify this non-mendelian inheritance pattern: multiple alleles

A
  • genes with more than 2 alleles
  • very common
  • each organism can only have 2 alleles
  • large variance in phenotypes
  • human blood type has 3 alleles
73
Q

identify this non-mendelian inheritance pattern: sex linkage

A
  • genes on sex chromosomes
  • fruit fly eye color
74
Q

describe the phenotypic outcomes of epistasis

A
  • 9:3:4 ratio
  • 9 have black pigment and can deposit
  • 3 have brown pigment and can deposit
  • 4 can’t deposit pigment (doesn’t matter what the pigment color is)

BIOL 107 (18 decks)

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