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Know These Things Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximally tolerated dose of vinorelbine in cats?

A

11.5 mg/m2 weekly

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2
Q

What is the recommended dosing and treatment schedule for combining palladia and vinblastine?

A

Palladia 3.25 mg/kg EOD (q 48h)

Vinblastine 1.6 mg/m2 every OTHER week (q 14d)

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3
Q

What is the metastatic rate for digital SCC in dogs? (at diagnosis and later)

A

9% at diagnosis, additional 23% develop them later

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4
Q

What is the metastatic rate for digital melanoma in dogs? (at diagnosis and later)

A

28% at diagnosis,additional 39% develop them later

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5
Q

What breed has the highest level of BRCA1 overexpression?

A

Shih Tzu

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6
Q

What is the only factor shown to affect MST in cats undergoing adrenalectomy?

A

Anesthesia time > 4 hours

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7
Q

Regarding pre-tx bx of STS - what is the % concordance in grade compared to definitive surgery bx?

A

59%

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8
Q

What % of pre-tx bx of STS UNDERestimate grade?

A

29%

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9
Q

What % of pre-tx bx of STS OVERestimate grade?

A

12%

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10
Q

What is the MST for a grade I appendicular chondrosarcoma?

A

6 yrs

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11
Q

What is the MST for a grade II appendicular chondrosarcoma?

A

2.7 yrs

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12
Q

What is the MST for a grade III appendicular chondrosarcoma?

A

0.9 yrs (328d)

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13
Q

Name 2 enabling characteristics of cancer (new Hanahan and Weinberg paper)

A

genomic instability and mutation

tumor-promoting inflammation

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14
Q

What percentage of K9 GISTs have activating mutations in exon 11?

A

73.9%

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15
Q

What percentage of K9 primary AGASACA have mutations in PDGFR-beta?

A

17%

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16
Q

What percentage of K9 AGASACA mets have mutations in PDGFR-beta?

A

10%

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17
Q

What percentage of K9 thyroid tumors have mutations in PDGFR-beta?

A

27%

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18
Q

What is suramin?

A

polysulfonated napthylurea

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19
Q

What is the median survival time for dogs with telangiectatic OSA?

A

208 days (6.8 months)

Sivacolundhu JAVMA 2013

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20
Q

Which dog breeds are predisposed to thyroid carcinoma? (Name 4)

A

Golden retrievers
Beagles
Siberian huskies
Boxers

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21
Q

Which dog breed has autosomal dominant parathyroid tumors?

A

Keeshonds

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22
Q

Which dog breeds are predisposed to testicular tumors? (Name 7)

A 
Boxer
German Shepherds
Afghan
Wiemeraner
Sheltie
Collie
Maltese
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23
Q

What percentage of dogs undergoing pylorectomy and gastroduodenostomy survive at least 14 days post-op?

A

75%

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24
Q

What percentage of dogs undergoing pylorectomy and gastroduodenostomy are dead within 3 months?

A

41%

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25
Q

What two factors were associated with decreased survival in dogs undergoing pylorectomy and gastroduodenostomy?

A

preoperative weight loss

malignant neoplasia

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26
Q

What is the overall response rate for K9 MCT treated with hypofractionated RT, palladia, and prednisone?

A

76.4% ORR

59% CR

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27
Q

What is the duration of response for K9 MCT treated with hypofractionated RT, palladia, and prednisone?

A

316 days (10.3 months)

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28
Q

Match the human syndrome has a with the DNA repair deficiency.

Xeroderma pigmentosum
Bloom syndrome
Ataxia telangiectasia
Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer

MMR
HR
DNA DSB response
NER

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer - MMR
XP - NER
Bloom - homologous recombination
ATM - DNA DSB response

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29
Q

What IHC staining pattern would be expected for Reed-Sternberg cells in feline Hodgkins-like LSA?

A

CD79a +
some HLA-DR and CD18 +
PAX5 +
BLA-36 +

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30
Q

Describe the HN0-3 classification system for nodal metastasis of K9 mast cell tumors.

A

H0 - non-metastatic: 0-3 scattered mast cells/400x field (sinuses or parenchyma)
H1 - pre-metastatic: >3 scattered cells/field in at least 4 fields (sinuses or parenchyma)
H2 - early metastasis: aggregates (at least 3 cells together) in sinuses or parenchyma, or sheets of cells in sinuses
H3 - overt metastasis: disruption or effacement of architecture by foci, nodules, sheets, or masses of cells

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31
Q

What is the primary prognostic factor for survival for thymomas?

A

degree of lymphocyte invasion (more lymphocytic infiltrate - improved survival)

No effect from: age, invasiveness, mitotic index

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32
Q

What percentage of dogs receiving CCNU will develop elevated ALT?

A

84-86%

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33
Q

What is the intra-operative mortality rate for dogs undergoing surgical resection of a massive HCC? What is the overall complication rate?

A

4.8%

complication rate 28.6%

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34
Q

What are the components of MEN type II in veterinary medicine?

A

bilateral/multicentric medullary thyroid carcinoma
pheochromocytoma (unilat or bilat)
+/- parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma

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35
Q

What metabolic complication may follow ureterocolonic anastamosis?

A

hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

also: hydronephrosis, hydroureter, pyelonephritis

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36
Q

What is the most common side effect (and frequency) reported after placement of urethral stent? What risk factor predisposes to it?

A

incontinence
64% overall
26% severe

pre-stent stranguria increases risk of incontinence

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37
Q

What are the 3 most common bloodwork abnormalities seen with hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

anemia
neutrophilia
increased Alk Phos

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38
Q

What are the 4 most common clinical signs seen with hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

leg swelling
ocular discharge/episcleral injection
lameness
lethargy

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39
Q

What 2 negative prognostic factors are associated with exocrine pancreatic tumors in cats? What were the MSTs for patients with these factors?

A

abdominal effusion
NSAID use
MST 26 d with either one

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40
Q

What is the overall MST for cats with exocrine pancreatic tumors?

A

97.5 d

41
Q

What is the impact of gemcitabine treatment on cats with exocrine pancreatic tumors?

A

82% showed improvement in clinical signs

42
Q

What 2 positive prognostic factors are associated with exocrine pancreatic tumors in cats? What were the MSTs for patients with these factors?

A

surgery
chemotherapy treatment

either one improved MST to 165 d (relative to overall MST of 97.5d)

43
Q

Regarding 2nd opinions on histopathology - what percentage of cases had diagnostic agreement?

A

52%

44
Q

Regarding 2nd opinions on histopathology - what percentage of cases had partial disagreement?

A

29%

partial disagreement = change in grade, subtype, or margins

45
Q

Regarding 2nd opinions on histopathology - what percentage of cases had complete disagreement?

A

19%

complete disagreement = change in histopath type or presence of malignancy

46
Q

Regarding 2nd opinions on histopathology - what percentage of cases had minor disagreements?

A

21%

minor disagreement = no change in treatment or prognosis

47
Q

Regarding 2nd opinions on histopathology - what percentage of cases had major disagreements?

A

37%

major disagreement = affected treatment or prognosis

48
Q

How did site of ISS change after establishment of vaccine task force recommendations?

A

decrease in interscapular and R or L thorax sites

increase in R thoracic limb and hind limb/abdominal wall combo sites

decrease in sites cranial to diaphragm
increase in sites caudal to diaphragm

49
Q

What is the recurrence rate of ISS removed with 5 cm lateral margins and 2 fascial planes deep?

A

14% recurrence rate

50
Q

What is the overall MST for cats with ISS removed with 5 cm lateral margins and 2 fascial planes deep?

A

901 days (2.47 years, or 29.6 months)

51
Q

Give 2 negative prognostic factors for cats with ISS removed with 5 cm lateral margins and 2 fascial planes deep?

A

recurrence

metastasis

52
Q

What % of cats had complications for ISS removed with 5 cm lateral margins and 2 fascial planes deep?

A

10.9% (mostly dehisc., none fatal)

53
Q

What is the most common type and location of equine gastric tumor? What is the metastatic rate?

A

SCC in non-glandular region of stomach (fundus)

mets in 68%

54
Q

What is the most common hematologic abnormality associated with equine gastric tumors?

A

anemia

55
Q

What is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with equine gastric tumors? What % are affected?

A

hypercalcemia of malignancy in 25%

56
Q

What is the metastatic rate for tasmanian devil facial disease?

A

65%

57
Q

What is the cell type of origin for tasmanian devil facial disease?

A

Schwann cells (sarcoma)

58
Q

What were the 2 most common AEs in dogs with hemangisarcoma treated with doxorubicin and a vaccine of pooled HSA cell lysate?

A

mild/moderate diarrhea

anorexia

59
Q

What was the effect on MST in dogs with hemangisarcoma treated with doxorubicin and a vaccine of pooled HSA cell lysate?

A

improved (182 d versus 133 for doxo alone in historical controls)

60
Q

Myelodysplasia is NOT characterized by:

a. Normo to hypocellular bone marrow
b. Cytopenia in all cell lines
c. Blast cells less than 30% in bone marrow
d. Blast cells in circulation
e. Macrocytic erythrocytosis

A

d. Blast cells in circulation

61
Q

What receptor does Herceptin target

a. C219
b. EGF receptor
c. VEGF receptor
d. IGF-1 receptor
e. BFGF receptor

A

b. EGF receptor

62
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a. Early ovariohysterectomy at an early age has a strong protective effect on mammary tumor development in K9
b. 50-80% of epithelial mammary tumors express estrogen receptors (ER)
c. There is an inverse relationship between estrogen receptors and histological differentiation.
d. Older spayed female dogs are more likely to have ER positive tumors
e. Late in life OHE has no signif. protective effect on the development of mammary tumors.

A

d. Older spayed female dogs are more likely to have ER positive tumors

63
Q

A 0.5-cm raised, pink, hairless nodule on the pinna of a gray cat is most likely:

a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Mast cell tumor
d. Fibrosarcoma
e. Sebaceous adenoma

A

c. Mast cell tumor

64
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding K9 gr 3 cutaneous MCT treated with sx and RT?

a. Tumors of pinnae, perineum and prepuce had shorter remission duration compared to tumors in other locations.
b. Dogs with tumors <3 cm survived longer than dogs with tumors >3 cm.
c. Systemic metastasis is the most common cause of death
d. One-year survival rate is less than 50%
e. Male dogs had shorter remission durations than females.

A

b. Dogs with tumors <3 cm survived longer than dogs with tumors >3 cm.

65
Q

Which of the following breeds of dogs is NOT reported to be at increased risk for the development of osteosarcoma?

a. Rottweilers
b. German Shepherd dogs
c. West Highland White Terriers
d. Miniature Poodles
e. Beagles

A

c. West Highland White Terriers

66
Q

Dogs with mast cell tumors have been reported to have what types of mutations in c-kit and in which portion of the protein?

a. Duplication/Intra-cellular
b. Deletion/Intra-cellular
c. Deletion/Extra-cellular
d. Deletion/Juxta-membrane
e. Duplication/Extra-cellular

A

d. Deletion/Juxta-membrane

67
Q

Exposure of cells to a Vinca Alkaloid during which phase of the cell cycle results in the maximum lethal toxicity to cells?

a. G0
b. G1
c. G2
d. S
e. M

A

d. S

68
Q

Which of these statements is most correct?

a. MRI is less likely than plain films to underestimate tumor margins in K9 appendic OSA when compared to the “gold standard” histopath
b. Bone scintigraphy typically underestimates tumor extent/margins compared to plain films in dogs with appendicular OSA
c. Bone scintigraphy has low sens but high spec when used to evaluate for synchronous skeletal OSA metastasis
d. Bone scans are more likely to underestimate appendicular OSA margins than MRI
e. Synchronous mets are detected and confirmed in up to 40% of K9 OSA patients when evaluated by scintigraphy.

A

a. MRI is less likely to underestimate the tumor margins than plain radiography in canine appendicular osteosarcoma when compared to the “gold standard” histopathological evaluation

69
Q

Which of the following assertions about ultrasonography is true?

a. Hypoechoic nodules in the spleen, liver and other abdominal organs is diagnostic for malignant histiocytosis.
b. Target lesions in the liver and spleen are generally associated with malignancy.
c. Splenic HSA can be diagnosed on US by its pattern of mixed echogenicity.
d. The size of a splenic lesion is inversely related to its degree of malignancy.
e. HSA metastatic from the spleen to the liver will be detected by ultrasound.

A

b. Target lesions in the liver and spleen are generally associated with malignancy.

70
Q

Which of the following statements about hypercalcemia in dogs with AGASACA is FALSE?

a. hypercalcemia is a neg px indicator for survival
b. hypercalcemia usually normalizes with excision of tumor and increases with tumor recurrence or mets
c. PTHrP is commonly the cause of hypercalcemia
d. hypercalcemia will not develop in dogs with recurrent AGASACA that were previously normocalcemic
e. a certain tumor volume is thought to be necessary before enough PTH-rp is produced to affect calcium concentrations

A

d. hypercalcemia will not develop in dogs with recurrent AGASACA that were previously normocalcemic

71
Q

Which of the following histopathologic features is NOT generally noted in classic feline vaccine-associated fibrosarcomas?

a. inflammatory peritumoral infiltration
b. multinucleated giant cells
c. myofibroblastic cells
d. central necrosis
e. light blue matrix production

A

e. light blue matrix production

72
Q

Which of the following tumors have not been shown to stain positive for chromograninA?

a. Parathytoid adenoma
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Adrenocortical tumors
d. Islet cell carcinoma
e. Chemodectoma

A

c. Adrenocortical tumors

73
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding transducing retroviruses?

a. They exhibit very low efficiency of tumor formation
b. They are replication competent
c. They have a short (days) tumor latency period
d. They are unable to transform cultures cells
e. Their oncogenic factor is a virus coded regulatory protein that controls transcription

A

c. They have a short (days) tumor latency period

74
Q

Peri-oprative complications are common in dogs undergoing adrenalectomy for tumors. Which of the following is one of the most common peri-operative complications?

a. ventricular tacchycardia
b. anuric renal failure
c. dyspnea
d. hemoabdomen
e. disseminated intravacular coagulopathy

A

c. dyspnea

75
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA tumor viruses?

a. The infected cell dies as part of the RNA tumor virus life cycle.
b. The viral product directly interferes with pRb and p53 function.
c. The viral product directly complexes with growth factor receptors.
d. Viral growth is directly dependent on the presence of reverse transcriptase
e. Tumors induced by RNA tumor viruses are always monoclonal

A

d. Viral growth is directly dependent on the presence of reverse transcriptase

76
Q

Viral/biological carcinogenesis: What is the main diff between acute transforming viruses and chronic tumor viruses?

a. Chronic tumor viruses are almost always replication-defective
b. Acute transforming viruses contain a viral oncogene
c. Chronic tumor viruses do not have 5’ and 3’ LTRs
d. Acute transforming viruses act via insertional mutagenesis
e. Acute transforming viruses create monoclonal tumors

A

b. Acute transforming viruses contain a viral oncogene

77
Q

Which one of these proto-oncogene/function combinations is accurate?

a. erbB – nuclear protein
b. bcr-abl – nuclear protein
c. sis – growth factor
d. lck – cytoplasmic phosphatase
e. kit – growth factor

A

c. sis – growth factor

78
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the metastatic cascade?

a. Oncogenesis
b. Evasion of host immune system
c. Extravasation and growth at distant site
d. Alteration of cell cycle kinetics
e. Expression of invasive phenotype

A

d. Alteration of cell cycle kinetics

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of apoptosis?

a. Activation of one or more endonucleases.
b. Chromosomal condensation
c. Swelling of the cell.
d. Blebbing of cell membrane.
e. Movement of calcium from endoplasmic recticulum to the cytoplasm.

A

c. Swelling of the cell.

80
Q

Which of the following is NOT a significant prognostic factor for survival in synovial cell sarcoma?

a. Metastasis at diagnosis
b. Histologic grade
c. Positive cytokeratin staining
d. Location
e. Clinical stage

A

d. Location

81
Q

Concerning VEGF concentration in body cavity effusions in dogs as reported in a recent study, which of the following is FALSE?

a. VEGF levels were higher in the effusions than previously reported in the plasma of dogs with HSA
b. Peritoneal effusions had lower VEGF than pleural or pericardial effusions
c. VEGF levels were higher in patients with malignancies than with non-neoplastic conditions
d. There was no marked difference between effusion of malignant or nonmalignant diseases
e. Most neoplastic conditions had high VEGF concentrations

A

c. VEGF levels were higher in patients with malignancies than with non-neoplastic conditions

82
Q

When administered via the intra-cavitary route, cisplatin penetration into the tissues is approximately

a. 1 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 5 mm
d. 8 mm
e. 1 cm

A

b. 3 mm

83
Q

All of the following paraneoplastic syndromes have been associated with thymoma in dogs and cats except?

a. Pemphigus Vulgaris
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Pure red cell aplasia
e. Atrioventricular block

A

a. Pemphigus Vulgaris

84
Q

Which of the following pairs of “markers: bone marrow cells marked” is most accurate?

a. anti-CD18: all stages of granulocytes and monocyte/macrophages only
b. anti-Thy-1: monocyte/macrophages and granulocytes
c. anti-MHC class-II: erythroid cells and monocyte/macrophages
d. anti-CD14: monocyte/macrophages
e. anti-CD34: plasma cells and mature lymphocytes

A

d. anti-CD14: monocyte/macrophages

85
Q

Ondansetron (Zofran, Glaxo) is remarkably effective in controlling chemotherapy-associated nausea and vomiting in people. This drug’s mechanism of action is:

a. Dopaminergic (D2) receptor agonist
b. Anticholinergic
c. Serotonin (5HT3) receptor agonist
d. Serotonin (5HT3) receptor antagonist
e. Dopaminergic (D2) receptor agonist

A

d. Serotonin (5HT3) receptor antagonist

86
Q

For dogs with nasal tumors treated with RT, using OPLA-Pt implants is associated with:

a. Severe acute side effects to normal tissue.
b. Severe systemic drug toxicity including myelosuppression.
c. No significant difference in overall survival time.
d. Significantly longer overall survival time.
e. Better survival time at median doses of radiation greater than 54 Gy.

A

d. Significantly longer overall survival time.

87
Q

Describe the appearance of fat and CSF on a T1 weighted image. Is the overall appearance of the image white, or dark?

A

Overall - white
CSF - dark
fat - bright

88
Q

Describe the appearance of fat, CSF, and pathologic lesions on a T2 weighted image. Is the overall appearance of the image white, or dark?

A

Overall - dark
CSF - bright
fat - intermediate
lesions - bright

89
Q

For cats with nasal planum SCC treated with ALA photodynamic tx, what was the

  • ORR
  • CR
  • Recurrence rate
A

ORR 96%
CR 85%
RR 51%

90
Q

For thyroid tumors treated with RT, what is the earliest and latest time to maximum response?

A

8 to 22 months

91
Q

Discuss KIT expression in high grade gliomas?

A

Expressed in the vasculature, but not the tumor itself.

92
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in dogs? Most common secondary/metastatic tumor?

A

Primary - meningioma

Secondary - hemangiosarcoma

93
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in cats? Most common secondary/metastatic tumor?

A

Primary - meningioma

Secondary - lymphoma?

94
Q

What is the I-131 dose range for cats with adenomas versus carcinomas of the thyroid?

A

Adenomas 2-6 mCi

Carcinomas 20-30 mCi

95
Q

What factors affect the dosing of I-131 for cats, besides benign vs malignant disease?

A

clinical signs
T4 levels
size of nodule

96
Q

What are the components of MEN type I in veterinary medicine?

A

parathyroid
pancreatic islet
anterior pituitary

97
Q

What are the components of MEN type III in veterinary medicine?

A

medullary thyroid carcinoma
pheochromocytoma
also marfanoid habitus, mucosal neuromas, medullated corneal fibers and intestinal autonomic ganglion dysfunction leading to megacolon

98
Q

What are the components of MEN type IV in veterinary medicine?

A

also referred to as MENX
parathyroid and anterior pituitary tumors
possible association with tumors of the adrenals, kidneys, and reproductive organs

99
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of IGF-1 measurement in screening for feline acromegaly?

A

sensitivity 84%

specificity 92%

Oncology Boards (26 decks)

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