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2017 HS Questions > (K) HORSE JUDGING, CONFORMATION & GAITS > Flashcards

(K) HORSE JUDGING, CONFORMATION & GAITS Flashcards

1
Q

The distance between successive imprints of the same hoof

A

Stride

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2
Q

Gaits have 2 phases. Name them.

A

Weight bearing phase and a suspension or swing phase

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3
Q

The weight bearing phase has 4 divisions, they are?

A

Landing, loading, stance, breakover

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4
Q

Together the length of stride, rapidity, and time the hoof is on the ground results in what?

A

Speed

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5
Q

Confirmation is the physical appearance of an animal due to what?

A

Arrangement of muscle bone, and other body tissue

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6
Q

What is the definition of breed standard?

A

Each breed organization has identified ideal horse characteristics

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7
Q

Name 5 factors in judging conformation.

A

Balance, muscling, breed, and sex characteristics, structural correctness the way of going.

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8
Q

What is the sequence of judging horses from the profile?

A

Start with the head, throatlatch, neck, shoulder, front column of bone (leg), topline and end with hindquarters and rear column of bone

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9
Q

When judging, the purpose of watching ‘the way of going’ (tracking) is to evaluate what?

A

to view significant structural defects, as well as lameness

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10
Q

What is the most important characteristic when judging?

A

Balance

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11
Q

balance is best evaluated from what view?

A

Profile

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12
Q

Specifically, how is the horse divided in 3 equal parts for judging?

A

Point of shoulder to girth, girth to point of hip, point of hip to buttocks

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13
Q

When evaluating a horse’s confirmation, the legs are to be as long as what other part?

A

The body

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14
Q

The same length from point of shoulder to buttocks is?

A

Height of the withers

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15
Q

together, the angle of the shoulder, angle of the hip, length of the back, and length from the point of shoulder to buttocks should form what shape?

A

equilateral traingle

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16
Q

When judging a horse’s confirmation, what is the preferred relationship between the horse’s topline and underline?

A

short topline, and long underline

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17
Q

The straighter the shoulder, the farther forward the ____, with a corresponding ____ back, from the withers to the coupling

A

Withers, longer

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18
Q

A horse that is considered heavily muscled will have more muscling in what three areas than a horse that is lightly muscled?

A

Forearm, gaskin, width of hindquarters

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19
Q

The horse’s skeletal structure will determine the length and slope of what?

A

Shoulder, overall height, length of back

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20
Q

Name 5 characteristics of an attractive well conformed head

A

Short, well set ears, large bold eyes, short distance from eye to muzzle, large nostrils, shallow mouth

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21
Q

The measurement from the poll to a horizontal line drawn between the eyes is about 1/2 the distance from the…

A

horizontal line to the midpoint of the nostril

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22
Q

When the width of the horse’s head across the forehead is measured, that distance should be the same as…

A

From the poll to the horizontal line drawn between the eyes

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23
Q

During evolution, the eye has moved from the___to the ___

A

Head to the side

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24
Q

The eyes on the side of the head allow for more rounded vision of…. degrees.

A

300

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25
Q

A horse with excessive white around the eye often exhibits what Behavior?

A

Nervous and flighty

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26
Q

There appears to be no scientific data to support… For adequate air intake

A

Large flaring nostrils

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27
Q

The jaw of a stallion is… Compared to a Mare’s jaw

A

Slightly larger, deeper jaw

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28
Q

The jaw of a gelding is what size

A

Intermediate in size compared to the stallion’s

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29
Q

Typically the more shallow the mouth…

A

the softer and more responsive a horse is to a bit.

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30
Q

The depth of the throatlatch is usually equal to what?

A

one half the length of the head

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31
Q

The ideal ratio of top to bottom line up the horse’s neck is what?

A

2 to 1

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32
Q

The ideal slope of the shoulder is approximately how many degrees?

A

45 to 50 degrees

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33
Q

In general the angle of the pastern and will correspond to the angle of what?

A

Shoulder

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34
Q

A coon footed horse has too much…

A

slope to the pastern

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35
Q

A coon footed horse has too much…

A

slope to the pastern

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36
Q

A horse with a… Will endure more concussion and is predisposed to navicular disease

A

Short steep pastern

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37
Q

A horse that is short strided with Gates that are trappy will have a straight what?

A

Shoulder

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38
Q

The horses for lambs bear about how much of its weight?

A

60 to 65%

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39
Q

The width of the toes in the ground should be the same width as what?

A

Their origin in the chest

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40
Q

Pigeon toed horses have toes that… and have gate that is called…

A

Point inward, winging out or paddling

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41
Q

Splay-footed horses have toes that… And have a gate that is called…

A

Point outward, winging in or dishing

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42
Q

Horses that are narrow chested are usually… and will distribute more weight on the… of front hooves

A

Toed out, inside of front hooves

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43
Q

Typically a horse with large muscles mass stands…

A

Base narrow

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44
Q

A base narrow horse is predisposed to landing on the… of the hoof walls

A

outside

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45
Q

Bench knees or… is a characteristic of a horse with the cannon bones set too far…

A

Offset knees, outside of the knees

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46
Q

Offset knees usually develop what problem?

A

Splints

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47
Q

Capable of long performance life, the most frequent structural deviation of the horse’s legs when viewed from the sides are called what?

A

Over at the knees or buck knees

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48
Q

… does not remain sound, the knees bend backwards (hyperextends)

A

Back at the knees calf knees

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49
Q

The ideal pastern is … degrees is the front and … degrees in the back

A

45 front 50 back

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50
Q

Short steep pasterns tend to give the horse a… stride and predispose it to lameness due to… bones

A

Choppy rough stride, Additional concussion on the entire front column of bones

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51
Q

Pasterns that are too long relative to the length of the limb are weak and may predispose the horse to…

A

Tendon and ligament injuries

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52
Q

The topline of the horse is made up of 4 parts, they are…

A

Withers, back, loin, and croup

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53
Q

Factors that influence soundness and athletic ability are… and …

A

Strength of the topline and muscling over the loin

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54
Q

The ideal withers should be … , because this will …

A

Sharp, prominent, and well defined, hold the saddle on the horse without a need to excessively tighten the cinch

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55
Q

A horse that is weak or shallow in the loin is described a___,____, and____

A

Houd gutted, wasp-waisted, and light over the kidneys

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56
Q

A croup that is long and gently sloping has what benefit?

A

Adds length to the side, and well as dimension and muscling to the hindquarters

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57
Q

A goose rumped horse has an

A

Excessively steep croup

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58
Q

The spring a rib and depth of the heart girth are indicative of capacity of___and___.

A

Reproductive and athletic performance

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59
Q

A steep croup horse will exhibit what kind of action?

A

Great horizontal action with legs under its body

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60
Q

A structurally sound horse from behind will have an imaginary line from the point of the buttocks to the ground should bisect the ___, ___, and ___

A

Gaskin, hock, hoof

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61
Q

Bow legged horses have hocks that are too___and are generally predisposed to being___.

A

Far apart, base narrow

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62
Q

Bow legged horses have added strain on their bones, ligaments, and joints, and many types of interference in movement, they are called…

A

Bandy legged

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63
Q

A sickle hocked horse is predisposed to ___, due to the hock having excessive ____.

A

Curbs, angulation

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64
Q

A post legged horse does not have enough ___, making its leg look ___.

A

Angle in the hock, as straight as a fence post.

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65
Q

A post legged horse will likely have ___ as it ages, and strain on the ___ joints.

A

Osteoarthritis, stifle and hock joints.

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66
Q

Excess wear on the hoof, and additional strain on the ligaments/tendons and Bog spavins and Bone spavins develop from ___.

A

Post legged

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67
Q

Camped out hind leg is positioned ___ which will cause the horse to have problems with ___.

A

Behind the plumb line, collection and jumping.

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68
Q

The horse’s skeletal structure will determine the length and ___ and overall height and ___ of the back.

A

Slope of the shoulder, length of the back

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69
Q

Although rare, the toes and knees should ___.

A

Point straight forward

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70
Q

Pigeon toed is defined as ___.

A

Toes pointed inward

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71
Q

Splayfooted means what___?

A

Toes that point outward.

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72
Q

Base narrow horse is predisposed to landing on the ___ of hoof walls.

A

Outside

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73
Q

Base wide horse is predisposed to landing on the ___ of hoof walls.

A

Inside

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74
Q

Bow legged horse present the entire carpus ___.

A

Outward as viewed from the front.

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75
Q

Knock kneed is ___.

A

Carpus with inward deviation

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76
Q

Bench knees or offset knees are the cannon bone ___, and this increases the chance of ___.

A

Set too far to the outside of the carpi, and develop splints.

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77
Q

A correct conformational line on the side of the front legs should ___.

A

Run from the center of the scapula to the front edge of the knee and bisect the hoof.

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78
Q

The most common deviation of the carpi when viewed from the side is ___, which is a forward deviation of the carpi.

A

Over at the knees also called Buck kneed

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79
Q

Many Buck kneed horses are still able to ___.

A

Perform for a long life

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80
Q

A very serious conformation fault that predisposes the horse to unsoundness is ___.

A

Calf kneed, carpi bend backwards

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81
Q

The ideal pastern angle is ___ front and ___ rear

A

45 degrees, 50 degrees

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82
Q

The bones in the horse’s hind legs starting proximally are?

A

Femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsus, small metatarsals, second and fourth metatarsals, 2 proximal sesamoid bones, proximal or first phalanx, middle or second phalanx, distal or third phalanx or pedal bone, distal sesamoid or shuttle bone, and 6-7 bones in tarsus.

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83
Q

When viewing a horse from the rear for structural correctness, the imaginary line from the point of the buttocks to the ground should bisect what parts of the hind leg?

A

Gaskin, hock, hoof

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84
Q

How are the hocks positioned on a bandy legged horse and to what other conformational fault are these horses predisposed?

A

Hocks too far apart, predisposed to being base narrow.

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85
Q

Define, EWE neck

A

Depression of neck just in front of the withers

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86
Q

Define mutton withers

A

Withers that are too low

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87
Q

Define Roach back

A

Convex back

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88
Q

Splints are common in the ___ and result in ___.

A

Front legs, tear in the interosseous ligament that connects the splint bones to the cannon bone.

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89
Q

Bowed tendons are an ___

A

inflammation and enlargement of the superficial digital flexor tendon at the back of the cannon bone in the front legs.

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90
Q

An enlargement at the front of the cannon bone due to trauma of the periosteum is called what?

A

Bucked shins

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91
Q

A shoe boil is also known as ___ and occurs how?

A

Capped elbow, due to irritation from a hoof of the front hoof when a horse is lying down

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92
Q

The elbow is also known as the ___

A

olecranon

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93
Q

There are 4 types of spavins. Name them.

A

Blood Spavin, bog spavin, bone spavin, occult spavin

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94
Q

Define Bog spavin

A

Soft distention of the inner aspect of the front of the hock

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95
Q

Define Blood spavin

A

Swelling of the saphenous vein as it crosses a bog spavin

96
Q

A jack or true spavin is also known as ___.

A

Bone spavin-hard bony enlargement

97
Q

What is a thoroughpin?

A

Soft fluid filled enlargement in the hollow area of the lateral aspect of the hock, which can be pushed from outside to inside the leg.

98
Q

A curb is located where ___, and is inflammation of what___?

A

Rear of cannon below hock, and inflammation of plantar ligament.

99
Q

What are windpuffs?

A

Can be found on the front and back legs and are associated with hard work. They are soft fluid areas of swelling on the fetlock or pastern.

100
Q

What is area of exostosis (bony growth)?

A

Ringbone

101
Q

What are areas of bony growth in the area of the fetlock joint?

A

Osselets

102
Q

What is “hard as heels” associated with draft breeds?

A

Sidebones - ossification of lateral cartilage of the coffin bone

103
Q

What are the gaits exhibited by the Tennessee Walking Horse?

A

Flat walk, running walk, canter/lope

104
Q

What are the two characteristic traits of the running walk?

A

Overstride and nodding head

105
Q

What gait, performed by the Tennessee Walker, is a long framed walk with complete relaxation on a loose rein?

A

Trail walk

106
Q

What are the three distinct gaits of the Rocky Mountain Horse?

A

Trail walk, show gait, and pleasure gait.

107
Q

What are the three distinct gaits of the Kentucky Mountain Horse?

A

Trail walk, show gait, and pleasure gait

108
Q

What gait is similar to a rack, but with more precision and medium speed?

A

Show gait

109
Q

What gait is similar to the show gait, but shows more speed and action?

A

Pleasure gait

110
Q

When the Racking Horse performs in a style racking class, what gait replaces the fast rack?

A

Style rack

111
Q

Which gaited horse should not nod its head during any of its gaits?

A

Racking horse

112
Q

What are the three gaits of the racking horse?

A

Show or trail walk, slow rack, fast rack

113
Q

Which walk performed by the racking horse is the least collected?

A

Trail walk

114
Q

What are the three gaits performed by the Paso Fino?

A

Corto, classic fino, and largo

115
Q

What are the two gaits performed by the Peruvian Paso?

A

Llano and sobreandando

116
Q

What is the most common type of unsoundness in the front legs?

A

Splints.

117
Q

What is the most common cause of splints?

A

Tear of the interosseous ligament that connects the splint to the cannon.

118
Q

In a bowed tendon, which specific tendon is inflamed?

A

Superficial digital flexor tendon

119
Q

What is an enlargement of the front of the cannon bone between the knee and the fetlock joint?

A

Bucked shin

120
Q

What is the most common cause of bucked shins?

A

Trauma to the periosteum

121
Q

What is another name for carpitis?

A

Popped knee

122
Q

Name 3 blemishes or unsoundnesses specific only to the hind legs of the horse.

A

Bog spavin, bone spavin (true or jack spavin), blood spavin, occult spavin (blind spavin), capped hock, thoroughpin, curb.

123
Q

What are the 4 different types of spavins?

A

Bog, blood, occult, bone.

124
Q

What are 2 other names for a bone spavin?

A

True or jack spavin

125
Q

Define an occult spavin.

A

Hock lameness without visible evidence.

126
Q

What hock bone is affected by a capped hock

A

Calcaneus

127
Q

What is the main differences between ringbone and osselets?

A

Ringbone affects both pastern and fetlock.

128
Q

What is the common term for sidebones?

A

“Hard at the heels”

129
Q

What is the term that describes the distinct depression of the neck just in front of the withers?

A

Ewe neck.

130
Q

What is the term for withers that are set too low on the horse?

A

Mutton withers.

131
Q

What are two other names for swayback?

A

Easy on the back or lordosis

132
Q

What is the term for steep angulation of the croup?

A

Goose rump

133
Q

What is another name for the hunter’s bump?

A

Jumper’s bump

134
Q

What is the term for an enlargement at the top of the croup?

A

Hunter’s bump (Jumper’s bump)

135
Q

Which malocclusion refers to when the mandible is shortened?

A

Parrot mouth

136
Q

What are two other names for parrot mouth?

A

Prognathism, overbite

137
Q

Name two other names for monkey mouth.

A

Sow mouth, underbite, prognathia

138
Q

When viewing a horse from the rear, an imaginary line from the point of buttocks to the ground should bisect which parts?

A

Gaskin, hock, hoof

139
Q

A horse with which conformational defect will be weaker in work off its haunches?

A

Cow hocks

140
Q

What is another name for bandy legged?

A

“out at the hock”

141
Q

What is the term for hoses whose hocks are too far apart?

A

Bandy legged

142
Q

Bandy legged horses are predisposed to have which other condition?

A

Base narrow

143
Q

Coon footed horses are also predisposed to what condition?

A

Navicular disease

144
Q

What is the most common deviation of the carpus?

A

Buck kneed

145
Q

Describe the stride of a horse that is camped under.

A

Long, fluid, predisposed to unsoundness.

146
Q

A camped out horse is predisposed to what three other injuries?

A

Navicular, laminitis, and stress on lower forelimbs.

147
Q

What are the five main factors in judging conformation?

A

Balance, muscling, breed and sex characteristics, structural correctness & way of going.

148
Q

What are the four systematic steps of evaluating conformation in a judging contest?

A

Viewing from the profile, front and rear, tracking, place the class.

149
Q

What view is best for evaluating balance in the horse?

A

Side profile.

150
Q

What is the shape formed from the angle of shoulder, angle of hip, length of back and the length from point of shoulder to buttock?

A

Trapezoid.

151
Q

In horse judging, where should three imaginary lines be drawn to evaluate a horse’s balance?

A

Pint of shoulder to girth, girth to point of hip, point of hip to buttock.

152
Q

The distance across the horse’s forehead should be almost identical to what other measurement?

A

From poll to the horizontal line drawn between the eyes.

153
Q

Name two aspects of conformation that a horse’s skeletal structure will determine.

A

Length and slope of shoulder, height, length of back.

154
Q

What is the ideal depth of a horse’s throatlatch?

A

1/2 the length of the head

155
Q

Horses that are bow-legged typically possess what other condition?

A

Toed in with outward rotation to cannon and fetlock.

156
Q

A line that runs from the center of the scapula should bisect which two parts?

A

Front edge of knee and bisect the hoof

157
Q

What is the function or need for sharp, prominent withers?

A

Enabled to hold a saddle without needing to excessively tighten the cinch.

158
Q

What is another name for a wasp-waisted horse?

A

Hound gutted or “light over the kidneys”

159
Q

What are two factors evaluated in the horse’s barrel that are indicative or reproductive capacity?

A

Spring or rib and depth to heartgirth.

160
Q

A horse with a level croup will possess what kind of hindlimb action?

A

Vertical

161
Q

When viewing a horse from the rear, an imaginary line from the point of buttocks should bisect which parts?

A

Gaskin, hock, hoof

162
Q

A horse with a steep croup will possess what kind of hindlimb action?

A

Horizontal, with a higher degree of collection.

163
Q

A post legged horse is predisposed to which three other conditions?

A

Osteoarthritis, stifle and hock strain, spavins.

164
Q

A camped out horse is often associated with having what other fault?

A

Upright pasterns.

165
Q

Which conformation fault causes a horse to have difficulty jumping due to an inability to push off?`

A

Camped out

166
Q

What are the three set scoring systems that are used to evaluate pattern classes?

A

0-10, perfect standard of 100, 70-point as functionally correct.

167
Q

Which class utilizes the zero to ten scoring system?

A

Dressage

168
Q

Which scoring system for pattern classes is commonly used with the Danish Merit System?

A

The scoring range of zero to one-hundred

169
Q

How many classes comprise the typical horse judging contest?

A

Four to eight.

170
Q

What are the two roles of the official judge in a horse judging contest?

A

Determine placing and cuts.

171
Q

What is the range of cuts in a horse judging contest?

A

One to seven

172
Q

The sum total of all three cuts on a horse judging class cannot exceed how much?

A

15 points

173
Q

What are the two ways by which the final score for a horse judging contest can be calculated?

A

Hormel system or computer program and by hand.

174
Q

What are the three pairs that comprise a class of horses?

A

Top, middle, and bottom

175
Q

Name two of the purposes for giving oral reasons in a horse judging contest.

A

Reinforcing a deeper knowledge, introduce public speaking, reward placings that may be different from the official.

176
Q

What is the term for when one or two hooves trike the ground simultaneously?

A

Beat

177
Q

What is the term for the distance between imprints of two front hooves or two hind hooves?

A

Step

178
Q

What is the term for the stride phase in which the foot does not have contact with the ground?

A

Suspension or swing phase

179
Q

What is the first step of the weight bearing phase of the horse’s stride?

A

Landing

180
Q

In which portion of the weight bearing phase of a horse’s stride does the fetlock extend to its lowest point?

A

Loading

181
Q

In which portion of the weight bearing phase of a horse’s stride does the limb prepare to push off the ground?

A

Stance.

182
Q

What is the term for when the heel starts to lift off the ground, tipping the foot forward to lift off at the toe?

A

Breakover.

183
Q

What is the term for the time the hoof is on the ground versus the time it is off the ground?

A

Overlap time

184
Q

How fast is the horse’s natural walk?

A

3-4 miles per hour

185
Q

What is the term for a gait where both hooves on one side strike the ground before the hooves on the opposite side?

A

Lateral gait.

186
Q

What is the speed of the horse’s natural trot?

A

8-10 miles per hour

187
Q

What is the speed of the horse’s natural canter?

A

10-17 miles per hour

188
Q

What is the speed of the gallop?

A

30-50 miles per hour

189
Q

What is the term for a gait defect in which a moving leg contacts another moving leg?

A

Striding leg interference

190
Q

What is the term for a gait defect in which a moving leg contacts a supporting leg?

A

Supporting leg interference.

191
Q

Where does the horse usually interfere in the case of a supporting leg interference?

A

Fetlock

192
Q

Which gait interference typically occurs in horses that are base narrow or narrow chested?

A

Striking

193
Q

What are the two types of supporting leg interferences?

A

Brushing and striking

194
Q

Name two types of striding leg interference.

A

Forging, dross-firing, scalping.

195
Q

Which type of interference is found in horses working in a fast tempo at any gait?

A

Forging

196
Q

What is the term for when a horse forges at the walk or when the toe grabs the heel of the hoof in front of it?

A

Overreaching

197
Q

Where does the gait defect, speedy cutting occur?

A

Fetlock

198
Q

What is another name for the gait defect called winging in?

A

Dishing

199
Q

What is another name for rope walking?

A

Plaiting

200
Q

What is the term for when a horse places its feet directly in front of each other?

A

Rope walking

201
Q

Horses that exhibit the gait defect called rope walking will often have which other issue?

A

Base narrow and stumbling

202
Q

Describe a horse that is considered a “zero” on the AAEP’s Lameness Grading System.

A

Lameness is not perceptible under any circumstances

203
Q

How would a horse be categorized on the AAEP’s Lameness Grading System with a lameness that is difficult to observe, and is not consistently apparent under any circumstances?

A

2

204
Q

Describe a horse that is considered “three” on the AAEP’s Lameness Grading System.

A

Lameness is consistently apparent at the trot

205
Q

How would a horse be categorized on the AAEP’s Lameness Grading System with a lameness that is obvious at the walk?

A

4

206
Q

Describe a horse that is considered a “five” on the AAEP’s Lameness Grading System.

A

Lameness with minimal weight bearing in motion and/or at rest or a horse that is unable to move.

207
Q

What is the numerical range of lameness severity on the AAEP’s Lameness Grading System?

A

Zero to five

208
Q

What are the two gaits of the Mangalarga Marchador?

A

Marcha picada and marcha batida

209
Q

What is the difference between the marcha picada and the marcha batida?

A

Marcha picada is lateral and marcha batida is diagonal

210
Q

What is the natural pacing gait of the Maware called?

A

Revaal or rhewal

211
Q

What is another name for the Mwari’s rhewal gait?

A

Revaal

212
Q

Approximately how many harness racing horses exhibit at the pace?

A

80%

213
Q

What are the three gaits performed by a Roadster pony?

A

Jog, road gait, and “at speed”

214
Q

Describe the desired action of the Section D Welsh Cob.

A

Straightforward and forceful with the foreleg moving straight out from the shoulder before returning to the ground.

215
Q

Describe the ideal gait of the New Forest Pony.

A

Free moving and straight without exaggerated leg action

216
Q

What are the natural gaits of the Galiceno?

A

Walk, trot, canter, running walk

217
Q

Name four gaits that qualify a pony for registry in the American Gaited Pony Registry.

A

Running walk, rack, foxtrot, stepping pace, tolt, paso.

218
Q

What are the gaits performed by the Basuto breed?

A

Walk, trot, canter, tripple, pace

219
Q

What fast, four-beat gait is similar to the tolt in the Icelandic horse?

A

Tripple

220
Q

What are the general criteria for judging the conformation of all horses?

A

Balance, muscling, structural correctness, breed & sex type, way of going.

221
Q

What conformational characteristic in the draft horse is thought to be an adaptation to colder climates for warming inhaled air?

A

Roman nose

222
Q

What is the ideal conformation of the draft horse when viewed from the rear?

A

Hocks closer together than considered normal for other breeds, cannons parallel, toes slightly turned out.

223
Q

What is considered the conformational foundation for the pulling strength of a draft horse?

A

Broad chest

224
Q

In terms of judging draft horses, describe what a horse that has “poor curbs” looks like.

A

Protruding behind the hock or with little definition.

225
Q

What are the two different conformation types of the Friesian?

A

Baroque and sport horse

226
Q

What are the two different conformation types of the Friesian and how are they different?

A

Baroque, which is robust and classical, and the finer-boned sport horse

227
Q

Which breed should exhibit a curving motion NOT nod its head, pitch or point its front legs?

A

Racking horse

228
Q

What are the three gaits of the Missouri Fox Trotter breed?

A

Fox trot, flat walk, canter

229
Q

What gait combines the walk in front and the trot behind, resulting in a sliding motion from the hind end?

A

Fox trot

230
Q

Name the natural and acquired gaits that the Standardbred can perform

A

Walk, canter, trot, pace, stepping pace (ambling slow), fast rack

231
Q

What is another name for the stepping pace?

A

Ambling slow

232
Q

What are the two unique gaits performed by the Icelandic Pony?

A

Tolt and flying pace

233
Q

What gait, unique to the Icelandic, is a four-beat ambling gait that can be performed at different speeds?

A

Tolt

234
Q

What gait, unique to the Icelandic, is a two-beat lateral gait used for racing?

A

Flying pace

235
Q

What Paso Fino gait is more collected than the speed of the corto and faster than the speed of the largo?

A

Classic fino

236
Q

Which Paso Fino gait has a characteristic outward swinging action of the forelegs from the shoulder?

A

Termino

2017 HS Questions (12 decks)

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