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2017 HS Questions > (I) DISEASES & UNSOUNDNESS > Flashcards

(I) DISEASES & UNSOUNDNESS Flashcards

1
Q

The distal portion of the small intestine and a bone in the pelvis are both called what?

A

Ilium or Ileum

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2
Q

The acronym COPD stands for which respiratory disease?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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3
Q

The root word blepharo refers what part of the body?

A

Eyelid

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4
Q

If the veterinarian gives a diagnosis with the root word of carcino, what is the common name for the disease the horse has?

A

Cancer

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5
Q

When a horse is receiving an IM injection, where is it being administered?

A

Into a muscle

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6
Q

Terms with the prefix of ‘macro’ and ‘mega’ are required in what sized amounts?

A

Large

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7
Q

If your horse is diagnosed with Equine Scoliosis, what is wrong?

A

Your horse’s spine is twisted/swayed

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8
Q

Hyperthermia indicates what is wrong with the horse?

A

Elevated temperature, opposite of hypothermia

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9
Q

If someone describes a horse’s muscle twitches as tachy, what is wrong?

A

Fast twitches

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10
Q

At what age is a horse said to have a full mouth?

A

5 years of age

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11
Q

Mares have how many teeth?

A

36 permanent teeth (38 with wolf teeth)

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12
Q

Stallions or geldings have how many teeth?

A

40 permanent teeth (42 with wolf teeth)

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13
Q

If all of the cups have disappeared, this horse is said to have a smooth mouth. This occurs at what age?

A

11-12 years

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14
Q

A dovetail notch’s first reappearance occurs at what age?

A

11 years

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15
Q

Deciduous teeth occur when in a horse’s life?

A

1st year of life

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16
Q

The Galvayne’s groove appears at the upper corner incisor around 10, and is completely gone by when?

A

30 years

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17
Q

The tempromandibular joint is commonly called what?

A

The TMJ

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18
Q

Unscrupulous way of restoring cups to make a horse seem younger is called what?

A

bishoping

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19
Q

The stable fly, deer fly, horse fly, horn fly, black fly, and biting midge are all what type of flies?

A

Biting

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20
Q

Stomaxys Calcitrans is the technical name for what common fly?

A

Stable

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21
Q

Habronema is a species of stomach worm, whose intermediate host is called the what?

A

House or stable fly

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22
Q

These common flies fly in the day, transfer the blood-borne disease, EIA, and are large dark brown or black with dark eyes?

A

Horse flies

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23
Q

Both deer and horse flies are biting, they both use a bayonet-like mouthpart to bite and then seep up the blood from the wound. Which gender exhibits this behavior?

A

Female

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24
Q

“Punkies” or “No-see-ums” bite horses and cause them to be nervous. What is the common name for this biting fly who causes the allergic reaction called sweet itch or summer eczema?

A

Biting Midge

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25
Q

A successful fly control program aims to minimize fly breeding. Name three methods of doing this.

A

Elimination of breeding material, control of moisture, mechanical control, and insecticides

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26
Q

Where do female common bot flies lay their eggs?

A

On the horse’s forelegs, chest, neck, belly, hindlegs and flanks.

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27
Q

This external parasite transmits diseases like EEE, WEE, VEE, and WNV. Which insects are most active at dawn and dusk, and breed in standing water?

A

Mosquitoes

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28
Q

Name the two types of bugs that are most commonly found on the head, neck, mane, and tail, and common name is lice?

A

Biting (chewing) and Sucking lice

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29
Q

Strongylus Vulgaris, Strongylus Edentatus, and Strongylus Equinus are the three major types of what common internal parasite?

A

Large Strongyles

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30
Q

This parasite can be called a large roundworm, can be a foot long, and are so large they can block the intestinal tract. Called the Ascarid, where does it live in the digestive system?

A

Small Intestine

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31
Q

Flat worms live at the junction between the Ileum and Cecum. They can grow to be 1 inch long and live in clusters. What is the common name for the internal parasite that shares its name with a device to measure length with?

A

Tapeworms

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32
Q

Which internal parasite develop in the small intestine, and lays eggs in the anus, and when they dry, it causes the horse to itch the tail head?

A

Pinworms

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33
Q

Threadworms are a major threat to foals. How do they access the foals?

A

Through Dam’s milk, and penetration of larvae through skin

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34
Q

This type of internal parasite includes Habronema Muscae, H. microstoma, and Draschia magastoma. The intermediate host is the house fly, and cause summer sores. What is this type of parasite who shares its name with a part of the digestive system commonly called?

A

Stomach worms

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35
Q

Successful wormers for this parasite include Ivermectin, Moxidectin, and fenbendazole. This parasite can cause Parasitical Pneumonia and Bronchitis, and shares symptoms with heaves and COPD< although most horses are asymptomatic. What is this type of worm whose reservoir host is the donkey?

A

Lungworms

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36
Q

In what stage(s) is the bot fly inside the horse?

A

1st, 2nd, and 3rd stage of larvae

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37
Q

As what temperature do strongyle eggs hatch the quickest?

A

85-100 degrees Fahrenheit

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38
Q

EPG (pre-treatment) minus EPG (post-treatment) divided by EPG (pre-treatment) times 100 is the formula for what?

A

Fecal Egg Count Reduction Formula

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39
Q

Horses have what 2 types of vision?

A

Binocular and Monocular

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40
Q

Where are the horse’s blind spots?

A

Directly behind hindquarters, directly below head

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41
Q

Is the horse’s sense of sight of hearing better?

A

Hearing

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42
Q

Name 3 types of horse behavior.

A

Flight or Fight, Social, Investigative, Eliminative, Investigated, Epimeletic, Agnostic

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43
Q

Name a primary reinforcer that is used in horse training.

A

Clicker training, feed

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44
Q

What type of reinforcement is being used by loosing the rein, or patting the neck?

A

Positive reinforcement

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45
Q

What type of negative reinforcement is spurring your horse to get him to move over?

A

Escape

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46
Q

What type of schedule is a horse on if they are being reinforced at irregular intervals?

A

Intermittent

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47
Q

Behavior is changed by reinforcing each successive approximation of the desired response. What is the term for this?

A

Shaping

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48
Q

This neurotoxin is called Clostridium Tetani, with symptoms of “flashing” of the eye and a sawhorse stance. What is this disease that enters the horse via puncture wound?

A

Tetanus or lockjaw

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49
Q

How can newborn foals be infected with tetanus?

A

Through the navel cord

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50
Q

A hyper-responsiveness to light, touch, sound, “flashing” of the eye, sweating, muscle spasms, sawhorse stance, and flared nostrils are all symptoms of?

A

Tetanus

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51
Q

Penicillin can be injected what two ways to treat tetanus?

A

Intramuscular and Intravenous

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52
Q

Horses with what disease may require a darkened, quiet room, nutritional support, intravenous fluids, and cotton ear plugs?

A

Tetanus

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53
Q

The American Association of Equine Practitioners considers tetanus toxoid to be what type of vaccine?

A

Core vaccine

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54
Q

If a horse’s vaccination status is unknown when it sustains a wound or undergoes surgery which tetanus vaccine should be administered?

A

Both toxoid and antitoxin simultaneously (at separate injection sites”

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55
Q

Pregnant mares should be vaccinated how many weeks before giving birth for tetanus?

A

4-6 weeks

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56
Q

If a foals’ dam has been properly vaccinated for tetanus, should the foal be vaccinated for tetanus at birth?

A

No

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57
Q

What are some clinical signs of colic?

A

Looking anxious, looking at belly, stretching, rolling, lying down, grinding teeth, being restless

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58
Q

Name the 5 types of wounds.

A

Lacerations, incisions, avulsions, puncture, abrasions

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59
Q

What is the term for a medication that counteracts a poison?

A

Antidote

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60
Q

Name 3 of the 5 core vaccines.

A

Rabies, Tetanus, West Nile, Western Encephalitis, and Eastern Encephalitis

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61
Q

This disease is caused by the RNA virus and is from the Retroviridae family. What disease uses the coggins test and the acronym is EIA?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

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62
Q

This certificate proves that his horse shows no clinical signs of contagious disease, and a negative coggins test is also required. What certificate is only good for 30 days and required for interstate travel?

A

Health Certificate

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63
Q

How many stages of EIA are there?

A

3

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64
Q

Which stage of EIA shows no clinical signs, but are still carriers of the virus?

A

Inapparent

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65
Q

How is Equine Infectious Anemia spread?

A

Insects and possibly needles

66
Q

Name the two ways antibiotics treat bacteria.

A

By killing it and preventing it to reproduce.

67
Q

Nitrofurazone is used as a topical treatment against superficial wound infections, and you should wear gloves when applying it. What is this commonly called?

A

Furazone

68
Q

What is the most common type of Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs, also called NSAIDs, are used for fever, stiffness, swelling or pain?

A

Bute or Banamine

69
Q

Dexamethazone, and Dexamethazone Sodium Phosphate are used as an anti-inflammatory or treatment of heaves, and have side effects of laminitis, GI ulcers, and delayed wound healing. What is one of the two ways this solution can be administered to the horse?

A

IV and IM

70
Q

What are medicines that alleviate pain called?

A

Analgesics

71
Q

What is the common name for th tranquilization that has sedative side effects that is labeled for “aid in controlling fractious animals”?

A

Ace

72
Q

When do you use an Antihistamine?

A

To treat an allergy or allergic reaction

73
Q

Medicines that are made to treat only one disease are called what?

A

Condition Specific Medication

74
Q

Permax and Prascend are oral tablets to help treat Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction and what other disease that occurs in older horses with long curly coat?

A

Cushing’s

75
Q

This stomach ulcer treatment called GastroGard or UlcerGard decreases stomach acid production. How is this product administered?

A

Oral paste

76
Q

Blood leaves the heart and passes through what to return to the heart?

A

Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava

77
Q

The right side of the heart pumps blood where, and the left side pumps where?

A

Right to the lungs-Pulmonary Circulation, Left through the aorta and to the body

78
Q

The ____ returns blood to the right atrium

A

Superior/cranial vena cava and Inferior/caudal vena cava

79
Q

What is the function of the semilunar valves?

A

Prevent blood from backing up into the ventricles in the heart

80
Q

The AV valves are also known as what?

A

Atrioventricular valves, Tricuspid, and Bicuspid

81
Q

Bicuspid valve is located where and has a name of what?

A

Left side of the heart between the Left atrium and Left ventricle, and is called the Mitral Valve

82
Q

The primary function of the cardiovascular system is to what?

A

Deliver oxygen from the lungs to the tissues of the body.

83
Q

The normal resting heart rate/pulse of a horse is?

A

30-45 beats/minute

84
Q

Define Stroke Volume?

A

The amount of blood that the heart pumps with each heart beat. 0.8-1.2 Liters/beat

85
Q

How is Cardiac Output calculated?

A

Stroke volume X heart rate

86
Q

An adult horse with a body weight of 1100 lbs or 500kg has _____ L or ____gallongs of blood.

A

50L or 13 gallons of blood

87
Q

There are 2 sources available to supply extra quantity of blood needed by exercising muscles.

A

Increased cardiac output, and redistribute blood away from less active tissues.

88
Q

Oxygen carrying capacity of the blood can be increased during strenuous exercise by what?

A

Mobilizing Red Blood Cells (RBC) stored in the spleen.

89
Q

What is the maximum horse heart rate?

A

About 230 beats/minute

90
Q

As a horse becomes more conditioned, what happens to the heart rate during exercise?

A

Will be slower and recovery time to a resting heart rate will be shorter

91
Q

The largest organ of the body is what?

A

Skin or integumentary system

92
Q

The skin acts as a physical barrier for what?

A

To prevent the horse from losing water and electrolytes

93
Q

The skin protects the body from what?

A

Heat, cold, ultraviolet light, toxins, and physical trauma

94
Q

Normal skin should be what?

A

Free of injury, supple to the touch, covered by a glossy coat

95
Q

List the 3 layers of skin from top to bottom, indicating which one is the thickest.

A

Epidermis (thickest), dermis, and subcutis (subcutaneous)

96
Q

The cells that are responsible for skin color and melanin production that provides UV protection from the sun are what?

A

Melanocytes

97
Q

TWO PART QUESTION: What are keratinocytes and where are they located?

A

In the Epidermis, and are continuously shed and replaced by lower levels

98
Q

How does the dermis regulate body temperature?

A

When hot, the blood vessels in the middle dermal layer will dilate and release heat, and when cold, the blood vessels constrict to conserve heat loss.

99
Q

The subcutis or _____ is located where ___ and it contains ___.

A

Subcutaneous, which means “under the skin” and is the most inner layer, and contains fat and muscle

100
Q

Which layer of the skin contains nerve endings ___ that allow the horse to feel ___?

A

Dermis, feel pain, heat, cold and touch

101
Q

When a fly lands on the horse’s skin and it twitches, this is called ___ and caused by ___.

A

Panniculus response caused by the cutaneous trunci muscle in the subcutaneous

102
Q

Name all the skin appendages that are derived from the same skin cells in the dermis.

A

Hair, hooves, ergot, chestnut, oil glands and sweat glands

103
Q

The term signalment descriptions are used to describe your horse. This includes ____.

A

Physical description that includes breed, sex, age, weight, and height, use of horse, and reproductive status.

104
Q

Define Alopecia.

A

Hair loss in a small area or more widespread

105
Q

Define Hirsutism.

A

Excessive hair, usually a result of not loosing winter coat.

106
Q

Define Vesicles.

A

Blisters. Lesions filled with fluid.

107
Q

Define Vitiligo.

A

An autoimmune condition that affects melanin and is characterized by depigmentation (loss of color) of the epidermal layer of skin (Leukoderma) and/or hair (leukotrichia).

108
Q

In young Arabians, the condition of vitiligo is known as what?

A

Fading Syndrome

109
Q

Photosensitization can occur for what two general reasons?

A

1) Ingestion to toxic plants such as St. John’s wort 2) Due to liver failur

110
Q

What is the diagnostic test used to diagnose lice?

A

Coat Brushings

111
Q

What is the diagnostic test used to diagnose fungal spores/ringworm?

A

Hair pluck. Hair shaft plucked from skin.

112
Q

What is the diagnostic test used to diagnose mites?

A

Skin scrapings. A scalpel blade is used to scrape off the outer layer of the epidermis.

113
Q

What are culicoides? and what is the symptom?

A

Biting Midge, called “no-see-ums” are tiny black flies. They bite and suck blood, and the fly saliva causes an allergic reaction. Wheals and papules show up in the area the fly has bitten. Pruritus leads to scratching and hair loss.

114
Q

What is sweet itch or summer itch?

A

Culicoides biting midge

115
Q

What is summer sores, and what is the common location?

A

Habronema is a gastrointestinal parasite that are in the fecal balls, and the flies ingest the larvae. The flies bite areas of moisture-corners of the lips and prepuce, and eye (called Ocular Habronemiasis)

116
Q

Oxyuris equi is commonly called ___ and leads to what skin problems?

A

Pinworms. The sticky substance that sticks the eggs to the anus is irritating and causes pruritus. The horse will rub its rear end because of intense itching. The horse may also have alopecia and broken tail hairs.

117
Q

The bacteria Dermatophilus Congolensis cause what skin problem?

A

Rain Rot or Rain Scale. Hair on the topline of the horse will be crusted. Skin underneath is pink and irritated.

118
Q

Name the 3 types of Dermatophytosis (Ringworm) and symptom.

A

Trichophyton Equinum, Microsporum Equinum are the most common, the third is also transferable to humans, Trichophyton Verrucosum. A circular hairless area that are crusty on the surface.

119
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma affects what color of horse, and location most likely?

A

Light colored horses exposed to the UV sunlight, tips of ears, around the eye, lesions on the penis

120
Q

Melanoma is an abnormal growth of ___ and found where?

A

Melanocytes. Most tumors are benign, but some may turn malignant. Black, raised masses found at the tail.

121
Q

TWO PART QUESTIONS: Over 50% of all skin tumors are classified as what, and originate which layer or layers of the skin?

A

Sarcoids, originate from the dermis and subcutis.

122
Q

What is the benefit of the Golden period when suturing a wound?

A

Golden Period is less than 6 hours from a laceration that has cut full thickness of the skin. If longer than 6 hours Vet may choose not to suture due to trapping bacteria in the wound.

123
Q

List the 4 stages of healing.

A

Hemostasis, Inflammation, Proliferation, Maturation

124
Q

Damage to the inside of the surface of the blood vessel activates platelets (thrombocytes). They stick together and form a cellular plug that catches the RBCs. The damaged blood vessel also activates ___ and forms a solid blood clot. This process is called ___.

A

Clotting factors in the blood, Hemostasis

125
Q

Signs of inflammation include what 4 things which indicated that an injury has occurred.

A

Redness (rubor), Heat (calor), Pain (dolor), Swelling (tumor)

126
Q

Macrophages arrive at the site of injury a day or two later to remove dead cells. This process is known as what?

A

Phagocytosis

127
Q

Collagen is deposited by the fibroblast cells and granulation tissue is filled into the wound, then epithelium cells at the edge of the skin migrate across the granulation tissue bed. This process of healing is call ___?

A

Proliferation

128
Q

Exuberant bumpy pink mass of granulation tissue that extends past the level of the skin is called ___?

A

Proud flesh

129
Q

Every horse owner should have a medical bag ready for emergencies. The items you will need in this bag include?

A

Bag, thermometer, scissors, disinfectant scrub, tri9ple antibiotic ointment, water resistant ointment (vaseline), fly repellent (never apply to wound), bandage material.

130
Q

How many muscles does the horse have in its body & name three different types of muscles horses have?

A

Over 700 muscles, smooth, cardiac & skeletal muscles

131
Q

The primary function of a muscle is ___.

A

To generate movement

132
Q

Muscles taper into a ___ that crosses a joint and attaches to a bone to cause skeletal movement.

A

Tendon

133
Q

Muscles often work in pairs to prevent injury with each muscle preventing the other from moving the joint too far. What is the term for this?

A

Antagonists.

134
Q

A function of muscles is Thermoregulation by using shivering. This means what?

A

Muscles maintain body temperature in the cold by shivering, small muscle contractions that generate heat..

135
Q

The hair follicle helps conserve heat how?

A

The hair follicle stands straight away from the body, trapping warm air close to the body and providing insulation.

136
Q

Muscles have a hierarchical structure. Start with the muscle cell and work up.

A

Muscle cell, muscle fibers, fascicle, muscle

137
Q

The repeating patterns of proteins of actin and myosin work together with troponin and tropomyosin to generate movement that causes a muscle to shorten and form what structure?

A

Sarcomere

138
Q

This stores calcium ions and release them as needed for the contraction of the muscle fiber.

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

139
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers can be divided into two basic categories. Name them and explain what type of work each muscle fiber category does.

A

Slow - maintain posture and for activities that require low intensity output over a long period of time.(e.g..Endurance events), and Fast used for activities that require high levels of strength or force production over a short period of time. (e.g. powerfully jump and quickly move between fences)

140
Q

Muscles are named according to eight criteria. Name them.

A

Size (minimus), length (brevis), shape (deltoid), fiber orientation (transverse), mechanical action (flexor), number of origins (Bi), location or origin or insertion, function (Masseter, Temporalis)

141
Q

This increases the blood flow to the muscle, increases the temperature, which improves the transfer of nutrients and oxygen to the muscles, This is called ___.

A

Warm up.

142
Q

This means keeping your horse moving to provide the muscle with oxygen and nutrients and to prevent lactic acid buildup while he cools down.

A

Active recovery.

143
Q

This therapy is an application to increase health, improve performance, fitness, endurance, and well being.

A

Massage Therapy

144
Q

The masseuse will run their hands over the major muscle groups using ___ pressure, up to ___ pounds, looking for areas of tension as well as visible flinching of the horse.

A

Light pressure, up to 5 lbs of pressure

145
Q

There are 7 classical massage techniques to perform an equine massage. They are ___.

A

Stroking, effleurage, compression, kneading and muscle squeezing (petrissage), vibration, and tapotement.

146
Q

Anaerobic bacteria Fusarium necrophorum which infects the deep fissures of the frog is known as ____.

A

Thrush

147
Q

The symptoms of a Pseudoallsheria and Scopulariopsis infection that has the symptoms of a white powdery area of the horn wall is what?

A

White line disease

148
Q

Treatment for advanced White Line Disease is focused on ___.

A

Reducing the tension of the deep digital flexor tendon on caudal palmar surface of the coffin bone. Therapeutic shoes can be used to enhance the healing.

149
Q

This term is for the result of a nail that hasn’t actually penetrated the hoof sensitive tissue but is lying close enough to be a pressure point.

A

Nail Bound

150
Q

These are sole bruises found in the angle of the hoof where the wall turns into the frog.

A

Corns

151
Q

US calls this gravel, in Europe they call it drop, it is a pus pocket that involves the sensitive tissue of usually a barefeet in wet weather horse.

A

Hoof abscess

152
Q

A type of crack that forms from heel to toe and are superficial.

A

Sand crack

153
Q

Toe cracks are the result of?

A

Abscess that has migrated and drained at the coronary band.

154
Q

This is called “caudal heel pain syndrome”. It involves inflammation of the navicular bursa, supporting ligaments, tears and calcification of suspensory ligaments and Impar ligaments, cartilage and bone damage that results in tendon abrasions and ahesions.

A

Navicular disease.

155
Q

A treatment of Navicular is severing what nerve?

A

Posterior digital nerves

156
Q

Where are the laminae located?

A

Securely attached to the bone on one side and the cornified epidermal laminae on the wall side.

157
Q

This begins as a vascular disturbance and the severity of the subsequent damage is directly related to the severity of the disturbance.

A

Laminitis.

158
Q

The obel grade pain scale for laminitis is 1-4. What is Grade 2?

A

Willingly walks, trots with stabbing action. If unilateral, the affected foot will cause a head nod.

159
Q

Laminitis is diagnosed with ___.

A

Comparative radiographs that demonstrate rotation of the coffin bone (xrays of before and after)

160
Q

Emergency Mechanical treatment for laminitis is to establish a 20 degree or more PA (Palmer Angle). This is achieved how?

A

Farrier has mechanical aids (shoes), deep dry sand, or 810” deep sawdust or fine shavings.

161
Q

Laminitis demonstrates how in hoof growth?

A

Abnormal growth includes excessive heel growth, minimum toe and sole growth and the typical dished toe produced by the wedge shaped lamellar scar.

2017 HS Questions (12 decks)

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