(D) BODY SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

Cyanosis is indicated by what?

A

Bluish tint of the mucous membranes

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2
Q

Describe healthy mucous membranes.

A

Bright and moist and have a clear, pink color.

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3
Q

Mucous membranes that are blue indicate a deficiency of what?

A

Oxygen

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4
Q

Mucous membranes that are dark red or purple indicate what?

A

Severe shock or toxemia

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5
Q

Mucous membranes that are pale indicate what?

A

Anemia or shock

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6
Q

Mucous membranes that are yellow or jaundiced indicate what?

A

Liver disease

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7
Q

Name 3 factors that can cause temperature variations in a horse.

A

Time of day, age, sex, ambient temperature, humidity, wind, precipitation, level and intensity of activity, and disease state.

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8
Q

The mucous membranes typically examined are where?

A

Inner eyelids, inside of the nostrils, inner lips and gums, and vulva of the mare

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9
Q

What does TPR mean?

A

Temperature, pulse, and respiration

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10
Q

What is the body temperature of the average horse?

A

100 to 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit

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11
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for a resting horse?

A

30-45 beats per minute

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12
Q

What is the normal respiration rate for a resting horse?

A

8-15 breaths per minute

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13
Q

Which should be lower, pulse rate, or respiration rate?

A

Respiration rate

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14
Q

Horses will produce how much urine per day?

A

4-7 quarts

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15
Q

Horses will usually void urine how often?

A

5-7 times per day

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16
Q

How is capillary refill time determined?

A

By pressing the thumb against the upper gum of the horse for a couple of seconds. Upon release of the thumb pressure, they should appear white but immediately return to its normal color within approximately 2 seconds

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17
Q

If capillary refill time takes longer than 3 seconds to return to normal, what does it indicate?

A

Poor blood perfusion that can be a result of dehydration or shock

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18
Q

The adult horse should ordinarily produce how many pounds of fecal matter in one day?

A

28-50 pounds

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19
Q

The color of a horse’s feces is generally an indication of what?

A

Diet

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20
Q

The color of horse’s urine is usually what color?

A

Pale

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21
Q

What is CRT an indication of?

A

Blood circulation

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22
Q

A horse cannot see closer than what with its binocular vision?

A

4 feet

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23
Q

The horse’s wide eye position allows what?

A

The horse to see areas on each side of its body

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24
Q

What are the 2 types of vision possessed by the horse?

A

Monocular and binocular

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25
Q

What is easier for a horse to do, focus on an object or detect movement?

A

Detect movement

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26
Q

What must a horse do to see close objects?

A

Raise its head

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27
Q

What must a horse do to see faraway objects?

A

Lower its head

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28
Q

Which of the horse’s 2 types of vision is weaker?

A

Binocular

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29
Q

Where are the most sensitive areas to touch on a horse?

A

Around the eyes, ears, and nose

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30
Q

Which is stronger, a horse’s sense of hearing or sight?

A

Hearing

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31
Q

How many bones are in the pelvic limbs?

A

40

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32
Q

How many bones are in the thoracic limbs?

A

40

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33
Q

Joints that are lined with a membrane that secretes a lubrication fluid are called what?

A

Synovial joints

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34
Q

Name the 2 types of bone marrow.

A

Yellow and red

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35
Q

Name the 4 classifications of bones.

A

Long, short, irregular, flat

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36
Q

Ribs, sternum, skull, pelvis, and scapular are examples of what type of bone?

A

Flat bones

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37
Q

The horse’s skull contains how many bones?

A

34

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38
Q

The junction where 2 or more bones meet is called what?

A

A joint

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39
Q

The skeletal system can be divided into 2 groups. Name them.

A

Axial skeleton, and appendicular skeleton

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40
Q

The skeletal system of the horse contains how many ribs?

A

36

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41
Q

The skeletal system of the horse is made up of how many bones?

A

205

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42
Q

The vertebral column contains how many bones?

A

54

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43
Q

What are sesamoid bones?

A

Small bones embedded within a tendon when it traverses over an angular structure

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44
Q

What connects 2 muscles together?

A

Tendons

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45
Q

What is the main function of long bones?

A

To act as levers, aid in locomotion, and provide support for the body

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46
Q

What is the purpose of the flat bones?

A

To enclose and protect vital organs

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47
Q

What is the purpose of the irregular bones?

A

To protect the central nervous system

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the short bones?

A

To absorb concussion

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49
Q

Where are the long bones found?

A

In the limbs

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50
Q

Where are the short bones located?,

A

In the joints

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51
Q

Which bones store minerals and contain marrow cavities?

A

Long bones

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52
Q

Which of the 2 types of skeletal systems contains the bones in the limbs?

A

Appendicular skeleton

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53
Q

Which of the 2 types of skeletal systems contains the bones of the skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum, and pelvis?

A

Axial skeleton

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54
Q

Name the 6 joints in the thoracic limbs.

A

Shoulder, elbow, carpus, fetlock, pattern, coffin

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55
Q

Name the 7 joints in the pelvic limbs.

A

Sacro-iliac, hip, stifle, hock, fetlock, coffin

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56
Q

Blood flows through a series of blood vessels known as what system?

A

Vascular system

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57
Q

Blood flowing away from the heart passes through what 2 things to reach the capillaries?

A

Arteries and arterioles

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58
Q

Blood is carried back to the heart through what?

A

Veins

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59
Q

Blood returning to the heart exits the capillaries through what before it is carried back to the heart?

A

Venules

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60
Q

The cardiovascular system consists of what 3 things?

A

Blood, vessels, and heart

61
Q

The horse’s heart can be divided into 4 chambers. Name them.

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle

62
Q

The right atrium and ventricle pump blood to the lungs via what?

A

Pulmonary artery

63
Q

What side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs?

A

Right

64
Q

Where in the horse is the heart located?

A

Girth area

65
Q

How is cardiac output calculated?

A

Multiply the stroke volume by the heart rate

66
Q

How much blood pumps with each heart beat?

A

0.8 to 1.2 liters per beat

67
Q

The amount of blood pumped in one minute is called what?

A

Cardiac output

68
Q

The average adult horse contains approximately how much blood?

A

50 liters or 13 gallons

69
Q

The bicuspid valve is commonly referred to as what?

A

Mitral valve

70
Q

The maximum heart rate of a horse is what?

A

Approximately 230 beats/min

71
Q

What is located between the left ventricle and the aorta?

A

Aortic valve

72
Q

What is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery?

A

Pulmonary valve

73
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood that the heart pumps with each heart beat

74
Q

What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system?

A

To deliver oxygen from the lungs to individual tissues in the body

75
Q

What prevents blood from backing up into the ventricles?

A

Semilunar valves

76
Q

What side of the heart pumps blood back throughout the body?

A

Left

77
Q

Where are the atrioventricular valves located?

A

Between the atria and the ventricles

78
Q

Where is the bicuspid valve located?

A

Let side of the heart

79
Q

Where is the tricuspid valve located?

A

Right side of the heart

80
Q

Skin is composed of what three layers?

A

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutis

81
Q

What are melanocytes?

A

Pigmented cells responsible for skin color and melanin production

82
Q

What gives skin its elastic property?

A

Collagen

83
Q

What is the function of the dermis?

A

Provide nutritional support to the epidermis

84
Q

What is the largest organ of the body?

A

Skin

85
Q

What is the main function of the skin?

A

Protection/physical barrier

86
Q

What is the thickest layer of skin?

A

Epidermis

87
Q

What skin later are nerves located?

A

Dermis

88
Q

Where is collagen produced?

A

Dermis

89
Q

What does signalment mean?

A

Detailed physical description of your horse

90
Q

What does subcutis mean?

A

Under the skin

91
Q

Where is the cutaneous trunci muscle located?

A

Subcutaneous later of the skin

92
Q

Muscle fibers are grouped into brunches called what?

A

Fascicles

93
Q

The repeating pattern of filaments forms a structure called what?

A

Sarcomere

94
Q

What is a sarcolemma?

A

The cell membrane of the muscle fiber

95
Q

What is the primary function of muscles?

A

To generate movement

96
Q

Skeletal muscles fibers can be divided into 2 categories. Name them.

A

Slow and fast

97
Q

What is the largest muscle in the hindquarters?

A

Gluteus Maximus

98
Q

What is the smallest muscle in the hindquarters?

A

Gluteus minimus

99
Q

What type of muscles are used for activities that require high levels of strength or force?

A

Fast muscles

100
Q

What type of muscles are used to maintain posture?

A

Slow muscles

101
Q

What are the 8 criteria fo renaming muscles?

A

Size, length, shape, fiber orientation, mechanical action, number of origins, location of origin or insertion, function

102
Q

What are the types of muscle fibers?

A

Type I, IIA, IIB

103
Q

When a muscle contracts the contractile filaments shorten requiring what for energy?

A

ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

104
Q

How long does food remain in the stomach before passing into the small intestine?

A

15 to 45 minutes

105
Q

How long is the cecum?

A

4 feet

106
Q

How long is the horse’s esophagus?

A

50 to 60 inches long

107
Q

How long is the horse’s small intestine?

A

70 feet

108
Q

How long is the large colon?

A

10-12 feet long

109
Q

How long is the small colon?

A

10 to 12 feet long

110
Q

How much does the cecum hold?

A

32 quarts

111
Q

How much does the horse’s small intestine hold?

A

48 quarts

112
Q

How much does the horse’s stomach hold?

A

8 to 19 quarts

113
Q

How much does the large colon hold?

A

80 quarts

114
Q

How much does the small colon hold?

A

16 quarts

115
Q

Passage of feeds from the small intestine takes how long?

A

Approximately 30 to 90 minutes

116
Q

The section of the horse’s digestive system from the cecum to the rectum is called what?

A

Hindgut

117
Q

The section of the horse’s digestive system from the mouth to the ileum is called what?

A

Foregut

118
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

A

A, D, E, and K

119
Q

What are villi?

A

Small finger-like projections from the lining of the small intestine

120
Q

What si the final organ of the digestive tract?

A

Rectum

121
Q

What is the function of the esophagus?

A

Moving feedstuffs from the pharynx to the stomach

122
Q

What is the primary site for fat digestion and absorption?

A

Small intestine

123
Q

What is the rate of passage through the hind-gut?

A

36 to 72 hours

124
Q

What is the site of the majority of nutrient absorption?

A

Small intestine

125
Q

What organ of the digestive tract is responsible for limited enzyme digestion?

A

Stomach

126
Q

What organ of the digestive tract is responsible for the absorption of fats?

A

Small intestine

127
Q

What organ of the digestive tract is responsible for the absorption of phosphorus?

A

Small intestine

128
Q

What percentage of digestive capacity is the cecum?

A

15%

129
Q

What percentage of digestive capacity is the stomach?

A

8%

130
Q

What percentage of digestive capacity is the large colon?

A

38%

131
Q

What percentage of digestive capacity is the small intestine?

A

30%

132
Q

What percentage of digestive capacity is the small colon?

A

9%

133
Q

Where are B-vitamins, calcium and phosphorus absorbed?

A

Small intestine

134
Q

List the parts of the digestive system in order.

A

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, cecum, large colon, small colon, rectum

135
Q

The synthesis of B-vitamins occurs where?

A

Large intestine

136
Q

The synthesis of vitamin K occurs where?

A

Large intestine

137
Q

What are the accessory organs that aid in digestion?

A

Teeth, salivary glands, liver and pancreas

138
Q

What is the primary function of the small colon?

A

Water absorption

139
Q

What is the exterior opening of the reproductive canal in mares?

A

Vulva

140
Q

The end of the oviduct closes to the ovary is called what?

A

Infundibulum

141
Q

The uterus is suspended within the body cavity by what?

A

Broad ligament

142
Q

The vagina in a mare is how long?

A

6 - 8 inches

143
Q

The Y or T shaped organ in the mare that is responsible for contractions is called what?

A

Uterus

144
Q

What is the inner layer of the ovary called?

A

Cortex

145
Q

What is the isthmus?

A

The final portion of the oviduct which is connected to the uterine horn

146
Q

What is the medulla?

A

Highly vascularized outer portion of the ovary

147
Q

From what portion of the ovary is the ovum shed?

A

Ovulation fossa

148
Q

What is the physical barrier between the vagina and the uterus?

A

Cervix

149
Q

Where does fertilization of the ovum occur?

A

Ampulla