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Jim's National Exam Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Clay tile roof should have how much overlap?
    a. 6”
    b. 3”
    c. 10”
    d. 12
A

3”

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2
Q
  1. What is the heaviest roof material per sq. ft.?
    a. Slate/concrete tile
    b. Asphalt
    c. Fiberglass
    d. Tar & gravel with ballast
A

Slate/concrete tile

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3
Q
  1. Wood shingle/shakes should be spaced how far apart?
    a. 3/8”
    b. 5/8”
    c. 1/2”
    d. 3/4”
A

3/8”

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4
Q
  1. Flat roofs - what is the most common cause of leaking?
    a. Seams
    b. Ponding
    c. Parapet walls
    d. Gutters
A

parapet walls

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5
Q

What does water ponding cause?
a. Shorten life expectancy
b. Promotes fungi & moss growth
c. Allows seepage
d. All of the above

A

Shorten life expectancy

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6
Q
  1. Flat roofs- what is the cause of blisters?
    a. Rotted underlayment
    b. Poor grade of shingles
    c. Air & water trapped between layers
    d. Loss of UV protection
A

Air & water trapped between layers

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7
Q
  1. Asphalt shingle valley overlap requires?
    a. 12” closed cut or woven
    b. 6” open
    c. 6” open or closed
    d. 18” closed
A

12” closed cut or woven

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8
Q
  1. Type(s) of insulation used with a flat roof
    a. Urethane
    b. Fiberglass
    c. Polystyrene
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above

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9
Q
  1. Cap flashing required over a parapet wall
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

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10
Q
  1. A 3-tab asphalt shingle can be installed on pitches as low as 2/12, if the roof?
    a. Never
    b. If the roof has a hot tar roof coating
    c. If there are two layers of roofing felt under the shingles
    d. Only if you use a 30-year shingle
A

If there are two layers of roofing felt under the shingles

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11
Q
  1. What is the most durable roof covering?
    a. Slate
    b. Wood
    c. Asphalt
    d. Metal
A

Slate

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12
Q
  1. When does a built-up roofing need flood coating?
    a. Delamination
    b. Stain on ceiling
    c. Tar paper is showing
    d. Gravel is embedded in tar
A

Tar paper is showing

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13
Q
  1. Where is roof most likely to leak when re-roofing?
    a. Edge
    b. Penetrations
    c. Valleys
    d. Gable ends
A

Penetrations

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14
Q
  1. A built-up roof having a lap joint ever 12” is a:
    a. 3-ply
    b. 6-ply
    c. 2-ply
    d. 4-ply roof
A

3-ply

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15
Q
  1. Wood shakes/shingles are best maintained by:
    a. Applying a quality oil-base paint annually
    b. Applying a quality waterproof sealer periodically
    c. Allowing them to age naturally
    d. Washing annually with a chlorine solution to remove mildew and soil
A

Applying a quality waterproof sealer periodically

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16
Q
  1. Metal roofs are best protected by:
    a. Properly maintaining with paint
    b. Finished with brush-on bitumen coating
    c. Allowing them to age naturally
    d. Electrolytically applied terns
A

Properly maintaining with paint

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is not suited to a roof with a 2/12 pitch?
    a. Asbestos Cement shingles
    b. Roll Asphalt
    c. Asphalt shingles
    d. Urethane foam
A

Asbestos Cement shingles

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18
Q
  1. What does a drip edge do?
    a. Stops ice damming
    b. Protects the parts below it like the fascia, siding, etc.
    c. Protects the ridge vents
    d. Prevents cupping of shingles
A

Protects the parts below it like the fascia, siding, etc.

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19
Q
  1. Skylight curbing must extend above the roof a minimum of?
    a. 4-inches
    b. 6-inches
    c. 2-inches
    d. 8-inches
A

4-inches

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20
Q
  1. What should you do if you come across a snow-covered roof?
    a. Remove the snow and inspect as usual
    b. Note the snow and inspect as usual
    c. Note the snow and lack of visibility and access
    d. Say nothing and inspect as usual
A

Note the snow and lack of visibility and access

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21
Q
  1. A copper-to-steel connection undergoes a/an?
    a. Chemical reaction
    b. Electrolytic reaction
    c. Nuclear reaction
    d. Thermal reaction
A

Electrolytic reaction

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22
Q
  1. What causes water hammer?
    a. Loose pipes
    b. Instantaneously closing valves
    c. Hydrostatic shock
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above

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23
Q
  1. Name three common locations of cross connections in a plumbing system.
    a. Bidet, garden hose, and boiler connection
    b. Toilet, sink, and bidet
    c. Garden hose, laundry tubs, toilet
    d. Boiler connection, toilet, and lawn sprinklers
A

Bidet, garden hose, and boiler connection

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24
Q
  1. Name two locations to install a check valve in a house with combination sewers to reduce the risk of backup into the basement.
    a. Floor drains and main drain line
    b. Basement sink and toilets
    c. Hose bibs and pool self-fill mechanisms
    d. None of the above
A

Floor drains and main drain line

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25
Q
  1. The recommended slope for waste plumbing is typically?
    a. ¼ inch per foot
    b. ½ inch per foot
    c. ¾ inch per foot
    d. 1 inch per foot
A

¼ inch per foot

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26
Q
  1. What type of trap is no longer used in residential construction?
    a. S-trap
    b. P-trap
    c. Q-trap
    d. V-trap
A

S-trap

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27
Q
  1. Describe the function of a trap primer.
    a. To remove water to prevent overflowing of floor drain
    b. To add water to the trap to replace water lost through evaporation
    c. To increase the amount of water consumed in the trap
    d. To allow siphoning of the trap
A

To add water to the trap to replace water lost through evaporation

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28
Q
  1. The most common clue to a venting problem is?
    a. Sewer odor
    b. Gurgling drains
    c. Slow drains
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above

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29
Q
  1. A vent pipe does not need to extend past the attic.
    a. True
    b. False
A
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30
Q
  1. What is the minimum diameter and extension above the roof line of a vent pipe to prevent frost/snow closure?
    a. 4-inch diameter and 12-inch extension
    b. 3-inch diameter and 10-inch extension
    c. 3-inch diameter and 6-inch above snow line
    d. 2 ½-inch diameter and 8-inch extension
A

3-inch diameter and 6-inch above snow line

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31
Q
  1. What is a wet vent?
    a. A vent that protects the roof in the rain
    b. A vent that is never dry
    c. A vent that also serves as drain
    d. A vent that is larger than a dry vent
A

A vent that also serves as drain

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32
Q
  1. Describe a French drain or dry well.
    a. A gravel pit that accepts waste from the plumbing system
    b. A drain installed by a Frenchman
    c. Can be used instead of a septic system
    d. A buried gravel pit designed to allow water to accumulate quickly and dissipate slowly by soaking into the soil
A

A buried gravel pit designed to allow water

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33
Q
  1. A temperature pressure relief valve on a water heater that is installed above the tank in the pipe is wrong why?
    a. Must be installed within the top 8-inches of the tank
    b. Must be installed within the top 6-inches of the tank
    c. Not required to be installed in the tank at all
    d. Not required in older systems
A

Must be installed within the top 6-inches of the tank

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34
Q
  1. Temperature/pressure relief valves are typically rated at?
    a. 100 psi and 212 °F
    b. 150 psi and 210 °F
    c. 210 psi and 150 °F
    d. 110 psi and 210 °F
A

150 psi and 210 °F

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35
Q
  1. What is the maximum length of a flexible gas appliance connector to a dryer or range?
    a. 6-feet
    b. 3-feet
    c. 18-inches
    d. 48-inches
A

6-feet

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36
Q
  1. How do you check if shower door has safety glazing?
    a. Marked in corner
    b. Glass will be foggy
    c. Wire mesh
    d. Hit it with a hammer
A

Marked in corner

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37
Q
  1. If a natural gas appliance is changed to LP gas, you need?
    a. A smaller orifice
    b. A larger orifice
    c. Change gas valve assembly
    d. You can’t change from gas to propane
A

A smaller orifice

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38
Q
  1. How much water does a modern residential toilet discharge into the waste system?
    a. 1.6 lpf
    b. 1.6 gpf
    c. 2.5 gpf
    d. 3.5 gpf
A

1.6 gpf

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39
Q
  1. Copper & galvanized steel can be joined by what method?
    a. Brass converter fitting
    b. Di-electric union
    c. Dimorphic union
    d. Both a and b
A

Both a and b
Brass converter fitting
Di-electric union

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40
Q
  1. A flexible appliance connector can be cut?
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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41
Q
  1. Two 3-foot appliance connectors can be connected to make a 6-foot connection.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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42
Q
  1. What kind of connector is needed to attach plastic DWV to cast iron DWV?
    a. Hubless
    b. Hopeless
    c. PVC to ABS
    d. CPVC
A

Hubless

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43
Q
  1. Gas water heaters are allowed in all of the following locations except?
    a. Basements accessible only from interior stairs
    b. Attics accessible only from a permanent ladder
    c. Storage closets
    d. Laundry rooms open to the living area
A

Storage closets

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44
Q
  1. Plumbing vent must terminate at least?
    a. 10-feet from window and 6” above roof
    b. 6-feet from window and 10” above roof
    c. 7-feet from window and 12” above roof
    d. 4-feet from window and 6” above roof
A

10-feet from window and 6” above roof

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45
Q
  1. What determines the amount of electricity (amperage) a wire can carry?
    a. Size (diameter)
    b. Length
    c. Color
    d. Type (stranded or solid)
A

Size (diameter)

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46
Q
  1. How many wires are there from the street into a house in a 240-volt system?
    a. 3
    b. 2
    c. 4
    d. 1
A
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47
Q
  1. The size of the fuses or breakers at the main disconnect will always tell you how much electricity is available to the house?
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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48
Q
  1. What size service wire (minimum) would be required to provide a house with 60-amp service?
    a. #6 Cu
    b. #6 Al
    c. #4 Cu
    d. #2 Al
A

6 Cu

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49
Q
  1. How is the electrical system in most older homes grounded?
    a. Water supply piping
    b. UFER ground
    c. Ground rods
    d. Power company
A

Water supply piping

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50
Q
  1. The ground wire should always be clamped upstream of the water meter?
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

51
Q
  1. How are electrical systems grounded on rural properties where the well supply piping into the house is plastic?
    a. Ground rods
    b. UFER grounds
    c. Metal well casing
    d. Both a and c
A

Both a and c
Ground rods
Metal well casing

52
Q
  1. Breakers are safer than fuses. Any house with fuses should be upgraded to breakers.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

53
Q
  1. Fuses are more prone to be improperly sized and overloaded.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

54
Q
  1. What is/are the most common reason for replacement of knob-and-tube wiring?
    a. Breakdown of cloth covering (insulation)
    b. Buried in thermal insulation
    c. Homeowner splices and repairs
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above
Breakdown of cloth covering (insulation)
Buried in thermal insulation
Homeowner splices and repairs

55
Q
  1. Name an important improvement between knob-and-tube wiring and modern cable.
    c. Use of grounding
    d. Use of aluminum wiring
    e. Fusing the neutral
    f. None of the above
A

Fusing the neutral

56
Q
  1. Where are GFCI’s required in newer houses?
    a. Kitchen counters
    b. Bathrooms
    c. Unfinished basements
    d. Outdoors
    e. All of the above
A

All of the Above
Kitchen counters
Bathrooms
Unfinished basements
Outdoors

57
Q
  1. In most cases, three distribution wires connected to one fuse or breaker is acceptable.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

58
Q
  1. What is the most common electrical flaw found residentially?
    a. Over-fusing
    b. Use of Al wiring
    c. Lack of GFCI’s
    d. Use of grounded receptacles
A

Over-fusing

59
Q
  1. A non-grounded receptacle within 6” of water should be replaced with?
    a. GFCI
    b. GFCI upstream from receptacle
    c. Single pole GFCI Breaker
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above
GFCI
GFCI upstream from receptacle
Single pole GFCI Breaker

60
Q
  1. Maximum number of disconnects to shut off the main panel is/are?
    a. 1
    b. 6
    c. 4
    d. 8
A

6

61
Q
  1. What is the correct Cu wire size for a 20-amp breaker?
    a. 12
    b. 14
    c. 10
    d. 16
A

12

62
Q
  1. Non-metallic sheathed cable in an attic on top of joist must be?
    a. Protected within 6-feet of scuttle
    b. Must be fastened every 4 ½ feet
    c. Not allowed
    d. Both a and b
A

Both a and b
Protected within 6-feet of scuttle
Must be fastened every 4 ½ feet

63
Q
  1. Clothes closet - bulb ok or not ok - new construction?
    a. Surface-mounted or recessed incandescent fixtures with completely enclosed lamps
    b. Surface-mounted or recessed fluorescent fixtures.
    c. Surface-mounted incandescent fixtures can be mounted on ceiling with 12” clearance.
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above
Surface-mounted or recessed incandescent fixtures with completely enclosed lamps
Surface-mounted or recessed fluorescent fixtures.
Surface-mounted incandescent fixtures can be mounted on ceiling with 12” clearance.

64
Q
  1. Sub panel requirements.
    a. Neutral and ground must be separated
    b. Can be grounded together
    c. Must be bonded
    d. Must be isolated
    e. a, c, and d
A

a, c, and d
Neutral and ground must be separated
Must be bonded
Must be isolated

65
Q
  1. Grounding rod must be driven?
    a. 6 feet
    b. 10 feet
    c. 8 feet
    d. 12 feet
A

8 feet

66
Q
  1. A fused neutral (neutral wire runs to a fuse) is?
    a. Ok
    b. Unsafe
    c. Grand-fathered
    d. None of the above
A

Unsafe

67
Q
  1. Two-conductor wiring can be used with a GFCI?
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

68
Q
  1. Does a sump pump require a GFCI?
    a. Yes, if it is a dedicated receptacle
    b. No, if it is a dedicated receptacle
A

No, if it is a dedicated receptacle

69
Q
  1. What is the minimum required clearance in front of the main electrical panel box?
    a. 12” wide x 24” front
    b. 24” wide x 30” front
    c. 26” wide x 36” front
    d. 30” wide x 36” front
A

30” wide x 36” front

70
Q
  1. AC cable, commonly known as BX, often contains a bare aluminum wire. Which of the following statements is true regarding the wire?
    a. The wire is a grounding wire and should be connected to grounding terminals inside boxes and panels.
    b. The wire is a bonding wire and should not be connected or brought into the interior of boxes.
    c. The wire is required to be treated with anti-oxidant paste at its terminations
    d. The wire must be reported as an aluminum branch circuit wire even if the other conductors in the cable are copper
A

The wire is a bonding wire and should not be connected or brought into the interior of boxes.

71
Q
  1. When a GFCI is installed on a two-wire non-grounded system, it provides?
    a. Full grounding protection
    b. No protection as there is no ground wire
    c. Fault protection, but not grounding protection
    d. A false reading when testing the GFCI using the built-in test button on the unit
A

Fault protection, but not grounding protection

72
Q
  1. What causes structures to move?
    a. Gravity
    b. Wind
    c. Water
    d. Sun
A

gravity

73
Q
  1. What are the three ways a structure may give in to gravity?
    a. If it is sitting on something that is not strong enough, the ground below will fail
    b. If the skeleton of the structure is weak, it will not support itself, the weight of the structure itself is the ‘dead load’
    c. If the live load on the structure is greater than expected, it will collapse.
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above
If it is sitting on something that is not strong enough, the ground below will fail
If the skeleton of the structure is weak, it will not support itself, the weight of the structure itself is the ‘dead load’
If the live load on the structure is greater than expected, it will collapse.

74
Q
  1. The two basic forces that individual structural components are subjected to are?
    a. Compression - pushed from both ends
    b. Tension - pulled upon
    c. Torque – twisted upon
    d. Both a and b
A

Both a and b
Compression - pushed from both ends
Tension - pulled upon

75
Q
  1. What conditions may result in inadequate lateral support?
    a. Footings will fail
    b. Soil will erode away from foundation
    c. The walls will deflect inward
    d. Roof trusses will lift upwards
A

The walls will deflect inward

76
Q
  1. Foundations should extend at least how far above grade?
    a. 4 – 6 inches
    b. 6 – 8 inches
    c. 8 – 10 inches
    d. 2 – 4 inches
A

4-6 inches

77
Q
  1. What are the two common footing problems with piers?
    a. Inadequate footing and pier base not below the frost line
    b. Oversized footing and pier bases
    c. Oversized pier bases and undersized footings
    d. Piers and footings made of wood
A

Inadequate footing and pier base not below the frost line

78
Q
  1. What limits the inspection of crawl spaces?
    a. Entry size
    b. Lack of lighting
    c. Cramped work space
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above
Entry size
Lack of lighting
Cramped work space

79
Q
  1. What is the function of beams?
    a. To carry floor and wall loads horizontally to the foundations, walls, or posts
    b. To carry the ceiling load vertically to the footing
    c. To carry the wall loads horizontally to the sill plates
    d. To carry the roof loads vertically to the floors
A

To carry floor and wall loads horizontally to the foundations, walls, or posts

80
Q
  1. Where are joist hangers required?
    a. Where joists cannot rest on a support
    b. Decks
    c. Balconies
    d. Beams
A

Where joists cannot rest on a support

81
Q
  1. What two functions does bridging and bracing perform?
    a. Prevent racking of the house during windstorms
    b. Provides additional support for trusses and rafters
    c. Restrain the joists from twisting and to transmit loads from one joist to the next
    d. Acts as a shim for beams and girders
A

Restrain the joists from twisting and to transmit loads from one joist to the next

82
Q
  1. What materials were/are commonly used in sub flooring?
    a. One-inch wood boards
    b. Plywood
    c. Oriented Strand Board (OSB)
    d. a, b, and c
A

a, b, and c
One-inch wood boards
Plywood
Oriented Strand Board (OSB)

83
Q
  1. What is the difference between balloon framing and platform construction?
    a. In balloon framing, the wall systems are erected before the floor systems
    b. In platform framing the floor system is erected before the wall system
    c. In balloon framing the wall framing extends from the foundation to the roof
    d. In platform framing the wall framing is built on floor at a time
    e. All of the above
A

All of the above
In balloon framing, the wall systems are erected before the floor systems
In platform framing the floor system is erected before the wall system
In balloon framing the wall framing extends from the foundation to the roof
In platform framing the wall framing is built on floor at a time

84
Q
  1. What purpose do weep holes serve?
    a. To allow the rain water to drain out of the 1” air space
    b. Balance the pressure on both sides of the brick
    c. To hold the veneer to the framing
    d. Both a and b
A

Both a and b
To allow the rain water to drain out of the 1” air space
Balance the pressure on both sides of the brick

85
Q
  1. What is the difference between post-and-beam construction and conventional wood-frame construction?
    a. Conventional construction only uses only 2x4’s
    b. Post and beam construction uses a few large members for support where conventional construction uses many smaller members
    c. Conventional construction is only used in the northern part of the country
    d. Post and beam construction is limited to barns and commercial buildings
A

Post and beam construction uses a few large members for support where conventional construction uses many smaller members

86
Q
  1. What function do lintels perform?
    a. Used in wood-framed structures
    b. Ingredient for bean soup
    c. To transfer the load above an opening in a masonry structure
    d. To support the sill plate on top of foundation wall
A

To transfer the load above an opening in a masonry structure

87
Q
  1. Steel lintels on masonry walls should be at least how many inches wider than the opening on either side.
    a. 6-inches
    b. 8-inches
    c. 10-inches
    d. 4-inches
A

6-inches

88
Q
  1. Where should collar ties be attached to the rafters:
    a. Nearer the top
    b. Nearer the middle
    c. Nearer the bottom
    d. Nearer the end
A

Nearer the middle

89
Q
  1. What function do knee walls perform?
    a. Support the roof rafters and prevent sagging
    b. Support the footings beneath the foundation walls
    c. Support the trusses between the top & bottom chords
    d. Support the purlins at the rafter ends
A

Support the roof rafters and prevent sagging

90
Q
  1. What concern, other than structural, arises with a misaligned-aligned chimney?
    a. Heat get near combustible materials
    b. Smoke and CO can re-enter the house
    c. Creosote can collect in the attic
    d. All of the above
A

All of the above
Heat get near combustible materials
Smoke and CO can re-enter the house
Creosote can collect in the attic

91
Q
  1. What can one do to minimize the risk of termite infestation?
    a. Breaking earth-to-wood contact
    b. Use standard household pesticides
    c. Use masonry structural components
    d. Increase moisture content at foundation
A

Breaking earth-to-wood contact

92
Q
  1. What causes wood rot?
    a. Improper ventilation
    b. Too much moisture
    c. a and b
    d. a and d
A

a and b
Improper ventilation
Too much moisture

93
Q
  1. A 2” x 6” @16” on center can safely span?
    a. 6’
    b. 10’
    c. 12’
    d. Depends on species of wood
A

Depends on species of wood

94
Q
  1. What is the best way for steel girders (I-beams) in basement concrete wall pockets to be installed?
    a. Lay on tar paper
    b. 1/2” gap on three sides
    c. Lay on poly sheeting
    d. Lay on wood shims
A

1/2” gap on three sides

95
Q
  1. How are hurricane ties attached at the roof structure?
    a. Joist to rafter
    b. Inside edge of top plate to rafter
    c. Outside edge of top plate
    d. Stud to top plate
A

Inside edge of top plate to rafter

96
Q
  1. CDX is what type material?
    a. Exterior grade plywood
    b. Interior grade plywood
    c. Paint grade plywood
    d. Oriented strand board
A

Exterior grade plywood

97
Q
  1. Step cracks in a masonry wall at the top corner of a window angled up and away are caused by?
    a. Rusted lintel
    b. Settled header
    c. Rusted hurricane ties
    d. Poor window installation
A

Rusted lintel

98
Q
  1. A standard air conditioning system can easily be converted to a heat pump by the addition of a few key components.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

99
Q
  1. An accumulator prevents what from entering the compressor?
    a. Water
    b. Liquid refrigerant
    c. Oil
    d. Gaseous refrigerant
A

Liquid refrigerant

100
Q
  1. In a heat pump during the cooling cycle, which coil acts as the evaporator? In the heating cycle, which coil acts as the evaporator?
    a. Indoor/Outdoor
    b. Outdoor/Indoor
    c. Indoor/Indoor
    d. Outdoor/Outdoor
A

Indoor/Outdoor

101
Q
  1. The directs hot refrigerant to the indoor coil in the cycle in a heat pump.
    a. Multi-cycle valve - heating
    b. Reversing valve - cooling
    c. Reversing valve - heating
    d. 4-way valve – cooling
A

Reversing valve - heating

102
Q
  1. Under certain operating conditions, will form on the outdoor coil. This can cause a/an
    in efficiency.
    a. Moss - increase
    b. Frost - decrease
    c. Frost - increase
    d. Mold – decrease
A

Frost - decrease

103
Q
  1. The defrost cycle is initiated by and .
    a. Homeowner and temperature
    b. Time and temperature
    c. Time and humidity
    d. Temperature and humidity
A

Time and temperature

104
Q
  1. The most common cause of insufficient airflow in an A/C system is?
    a. Dirty coil
    b. Dirty filter
    c. Oversized ducts
    d. Both a and b
A

Both a and b
Dirty coil
Dirty filter

105
Q
  1. Ductwork should be enough to handle the volume of air needed for correct A/C operation.
    a. Large
    b. Small
    c. Square
    d. Round
A

Large

106
Q
  1. In heavy snowfall areas, it is good practice to mount the heat pump’s outdoor unit on a/an
    to prevent snow from blocking the coil.
    a. Wood platform
    b. Concrete platform
    c. Elevated platform
    d. Plastic platform
A

Elevated platform

107
Q
  1. Why are heat pumps labeled not to be operated unless power is on for a minimum of 12-hours?
    a. Oil in compressor needs to be heated to remove liquid refrigerant
    b. Oil in compressor needs to be heated to remove water
    c. Oil in compressor needs to be heated for proper lubrication
    d. Oil is only added for cold weather operation
A

Oil in compressor needs to be heated to remove liquid refrigerant

108
Q
  1. A non-technically exhaustive way to evaluate the heat exchanger?
    a. Remove plenum and inspect visually
    b. Water pressure test
    c. Check flame pattern when blower comes on
    d. Inspect register covers for soot
A

Check flame pattern when blower comes on

109
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE for a cooling unit located in an attic where damage may result from condensate overflow?
    a. Attic ventilation must be increased to avoid condensation
    b. Steel ducting is not allowed because of potential damage from condensation
    c. A pan with a drain or float switch is required beneath the evaporator unit
    d. A supplemental condensate pump is required
A

A pan with a drain or float switch is required beneath the evaporator unit

110
Q
  1. A furnace can be located in a laundry room?
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

111
Q
  1. Converting a heating system fan to cooling type fan requires?
    a. Changing duct wire
    b. A 2-speed or variable speed fan
    c. Decreasing speed of fan
    d. None of the above
A

A 2-speed or variable speed fan

112
Q
  1. If a furnace has a pilot with a thermocouple. What device will most likely prevent the furnace from firing if it fails?
    a. Thermocouple
    b. Pilot
    c. Gas valve
    d. Burner
A

Thermocouple

113
Q
  1. An induced draft fan pulls air in what direction?
    a. Up
    b. Down
    c. Pulls through the furnace
    d. Pushes through the furnace
A

Pulls through the furnace

114
Q
  1. Plastic (polyethylene) piping can be used for gas?
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

115
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a drip leg on a gas line?
    a. Traps sediment and metal chips.
    b. Traps sulfur
    c. Traps water
    d. Both a and c
A

Both a and c
Traps sediment and metal chips.
Traps water

116
Q
  1. What does an A/C compressor do?
    a. Pressurizes the refrigerant gas in order to raise its temperature
    b. Removes moisture from the system
    c. Depressurizes the refrigerant gas in order to reduce its temperature
    d. Compresses refrigerant gas for evaporation
A

Pressurizes the refrigerant gas in order to raise its temperature

117
Q
  1. Which part of the A/C cycle removes heat from the refrigerant?
    a. When it goes through the evaporator
    b. When it goes through the condenser
    c. When it evaporates
    d. When it is compressed in the coil
A

When it goes through the condenser

118
Q
  1. A heat pump system is primarily sized for the?
    a. Cooling load
    b. Heating load
    c. Need to dehumidify
    d. Ambient conditions during operation
A

Cooling load

119
Q
  1. Oil tank - Pipes from tank to burners
    a. Must have one copper pipe
    b. Must have two copper pipes
    c. Must be protected from damage
    d. Must be galvanized
A

Must be protected from damage

119
Q
  1. The variation in temperature between the supply air and the return air in an A/C system should be approximately?
    a. 10-14°
    b. 14-22°
    c. 21-24°
    d. 25-35°
A

14-22°

120
Q
  1. Small horizontal cracks approximately every 3-feet in a stucco wall are?
    a. Normal
    b. Due to poor overlap of lath ends
    c. Due to stress
    d. Due to shrinkage
A

Due to poor overlap of lath ends

121
Q
  1. Garage door fire rating?
    a. 1 hour
    b. 20-minutes
    c. 30-minutes
    d. 45-minutes
A

20-minutes

122
Q
  1. Downspout can go into foundation drain?
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

123
Q
  1. Downspout extensions should extend how far from house?
    a. 3-feet
    b. 6-feet
    c. 2-feet
    d. 4-feet
A

6-feet

ICA (51 decks)

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