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JAALAS > JAALAS 2011 No. 6 > Flashcards

JAALAS 2011 No. 6 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Who enforces the guidelines and regulations made by the USDA?
A
  1. Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)
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2
Q
  1. What document spells out the guidelines and regulations of the UDSA relative to animals used in research?
A
  1. The Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Title 9
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3
Q
  1. What are three general criteria for considering a pair to be compatible on the day of pairing?
A
  1. If there are no aggressive interactions resulting in severe injury, no signs of depression in either animal, and both are able to obtain their share of food.
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4
Q

What is fibrinogen?

A

Fibrinogen is a glycoprotein synthesized in the liver, is a soluble precursor of insoluble fibrin, and a major component of blood clots.

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5
Q

What is an important role of fibrinogen?

A

Fibrinogen plays an important role in platelet aggregation by linking activated platelets. Activated platelets express the integrin αIIb β3, which binds plasma fibrinogen as well as that secreted from activated platelet granules.

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6
Q

What disorders can affect fibrogen?

A

The function and quality of plasma fibrinogen can be altered by both inherited and acquired disorders. Some common causes of decreased fibrinogen concentration are increased consumption during localized or disseminated intravascular coagulation, severe hepatic dysfunction, and hemodilution. Low plasma fibrinogen concentration is associated with an increased risk of bleeding, due to impaired primary or secondary hemostasis. Fibrinogen is a positive acute-phase protein that increases in response to inflammatory processes.

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7
Q

What does Pearson correlation coefficient test?

A

In statistics, the Pearson correlation coefficient is a measure of the correlation between two variables (linear dependence).

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8
Q
  1. The newest edition of the Guide gives very specific cage change frequencies for rodents.
A
  1. F. The frequency is to be determined on a performance-based approach.
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9
Q
  1. Female mice were found to cause higher ammonia levels than cages of male mice.
A
  1. F. Cages with 5 male mice were found to have the highest ammonia concentrations.
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10
Q
  1. Long term housing of mice should aim at having ammonia levels ≤ 25 ppm.
A

True

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11
Q
  1. Experienced animal care workers are very skilled at visually identifying cages which have dangerous ammonia levels.
A
  1. F. Visual inspection was unreliable in determining air quality.
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12
Q
  1. There are very minimal pathologic changes seen in animals housed in even very high levels of ammonia.
A
  1. F. This team found quite a bit of pathology. Also, they found that experienced animal workers could not identify animal with pathologic rhinitis ante-mortem.
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13
Q
  1. In OTC, the intercage temperature, humidity, CO2 and ammonia (microenvironment) is influenced directly by _______.
A
  1. Room environment (macroenvironment)
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14
Q

What does HEPA stand for?

A
  1. High-efficiency particulate air
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15
Q

What are some advantages of IVC?

A
  1. reduction of pathogen transmission, reduction of cage changing frequency, increased housing capacity, and reduction of allergen exposure for personnel
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16
Q

True or False: ATP detection devices offer multiple advantages over traditional bacterial culture because they are cost effective and time efficient and show a superior reproducibility and sensitivity

A

True

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17
Q

ATP detection devices have limitations:

a. Gram negative bacteria are poorly detected
b. Protein-only soiling are poorly detected
c. Bleach, temperature and pH can affect the accuracy of the results
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

D

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18
Q

When choosing wood as environmental enrichment one must take into consideration

a. The species of wood
b. The way the wood wears
c. The color of the wood
d. a, c
e. a, b

A

E

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19
Q
  1. Which is an example of a stereotypical behavior?
    a. Head twist
    b. Partner clasp
    c. Self-hit
    d. Threat bite
A

a. The rest are self abusive or abnormal social behaviors

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20
Q
  1. A reason for the variability with stereotypical behavior reduction was that the methods of distribution of the enrichment devices may have led to stress and fear. According to this assumption which device was the least stressful and why?
    a. Puzzle Balls were easy to manipulate
    b. Shakers were not very novel
    c. Supertubes were given without opening the cage door.
A

c. This explained why supertubes were the only device in which no significant increase in stereotypy was observed.

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21
Q
  1. To measure ATP, a swab is taken of the surface, the swab placed in the lumenometer, and the level of ATP present is recorded as Relative Light Units (RLU). T/F
A

True

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22
Q
  1. The use of the ATP detection systems have been validated as a surrogate to assess cleanliness/disinfection as compared to what traditional method for doing so?
A

RODAC plating

23
Q
  1. What are some advantages of an ATP detection system as compared to RODAC plating?
A
  1. ATP detection systems produce much faster results (minutes compared to days) and ATP detection systems assess microbial burden but also organic contamination beyond microbial burden whereas RODAC only does the former.
24
Q
  1. T/F: This study indicates that biomedical journals are more likely to have an ethical policy for animal experiments than broader biologic journals.
A

True

25
Q
  1. What are the 3Rs?
    a. Reduce, reuse, recycle
    b. Replacement, Refinement, Reduction
    c. Research, Refinement, Reduction
    d. Research, Replacement and Reduction
A

B

26
Q
  1. What is a goal of the ARRIVE guidelines?
    a. To improve reporting of research using animals without being prescriptive
    b. To specifically prescribe ethical policy for published animal experiments
    c. To improve research animal transport
    d. To guide study design in animal experiments
A

A

27
Q

What are the details of the life cycle (how many days in each stage) for A. tetraptera?

A

Aspiculuris tetraptera prepatent period is 21-25 days; larvae hatch in colon, where they remain for 3-5 days, before adult worms migrate to distal colon. The eggs are excreted in the feces, and are not infective for 5-8 days. Female worms have a lifespan of 45-50 days.

28
Q

What are two common drug therapies used for eliminating pinworm infestation?

A

Ivermectin and fenbendazole

29
Q

Yes or No - Would an anal tape test be an appropriate method for A. tetraptera detection?

A

No - only Syphacia obvelata eggs stick to the perianal hair.

30
Q

True or False: Roosters are generally more susceptible to Northern Fowl Mite infestation than hens.

A

True

31
Q

In chickens, which areas of the body do Northern Fowl Mites tend to congregate?

a. Base of feathers in the vent and occipital regions
b. Shaft of feathers in vent and occipital regions
c. Base of feathers in the vent and axillary regions
d. Base of feathers in the axillary and occipital regions

A

A

32
Q

Which best describes the mechanism of action for the pesticide, tetrachlorvinphos-dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) used for control of the Northern Fowl mite infestation in this study?

a. Tetrachlorvinphos-dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) is a pyrethroid that blocks depolarization of axonal sodium channels
b. Tetrachlorvinphos–dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) is an organophosphate that inhibits the activity of cholinesterase at the synapse
c. Tetrachlorvinphos–dichlorvos (RAVAP-EC) is a carbamate that inhibits cholinesterase
d. None of the above

A

B

33
Q

True or False: Medetomidine is an alpha2-adrenoceptor agonist that acts at central receptors to cause sedative and analgesic effects.

A

True

34
Q

Which of the following is not usually a side effect of medetomidine administration in mice?

a. Hypothermia
b. Hyperthermia
c. Hypotension
d. Bradycardia.

A

B

35
Q

Why is atropine used in conjunction with medetomidine/ketamine anesthesia in mice?

a. Atropine causes bronchospasm and increased bronchial secretions
b. Atropine causes bradycardia
c. Atropine prevents bradycardia
d. None of the above

A

C

36
Q
  1. T/F. endometriosis is caused by endometrial stroma and glands dissemination to areas of the body other than the uterus.
A

True

37
Q
  1. The symptoms of the endometriosis include:
    a. Pain during menstruation
    b. Menstrual cycle is abnormally long or irregular
    c. Abnormal abdominal palpation
    d. All of the above
A

D

38
Q
  1. The treatment of endometriosis may include all EXCEPT:
    a. Premarin (estrogen)
    b. Ovariectomy or ovariohysterectomy
    c. Progesterone (MPA)
A

A

39
Q
  1. T/F. MPA treatment did not affect insulin sensitivity or glycosylated hemoglobin levels.
A

False

40
Q
  1. The diagnosis of the endometriosis include:
    a. Ultrasound-guided aspiration of endometrial cysts
    b. Visualization at surgery and confirmation by histopathology
    c. Incidental finding during an unrelated procedure
    d. All of the above
A

D

41
Q

Describe how the study illustrated that alopecia of nonhuman primates cannot be attributed solely to hair plucking.

A

Only 53.9% of animals in the alopecic group were seen to hair pluck. The assumption that a behavioral etiology is responsible for all cases of alopecia would have overestimated the actual number of animals that hair plucked and let to inappropriate diagnosis for almost half of alopecic animals. In addition, hair plucking may not be the primary underlying cause of hair loss in these animals, because both hair plucking and alopecia are multifactorial diseases. Also, 13% of control animals were observed to hair pluck, suggesting that hair plucking that does not lead to clinical alopecia may be more prevalent than previously thought.

42
Q

T/F – The positive dermatophyte cultures in the present study represented an underlying fungal etiology for two alopecic animals.

A

False – Four animals cultured positive for dermatophytes. The medium of one alopecic animal grew Aspergillus spp and another Penicillium spp, while the medium of one control animal grew Cladosporium spp and another Penicillium spp. All isolates were the 3 most common fungal isolates in a survey of dermatophyte cultures performed on domestic and laboratory animals. In addition, other than alopecia, few dermatologic lesions consistent with dermatophyte infections (such as scaling, crusts, and erythema) were noted.

43
Q

What was the only serum biochemistry value that was significantly different in the alopecic group compared to the control group?

a. Increased serum creatinine
b. Decreased serum creatinine
c. Increased creatine kinase
d. Decreased creatine kinase

A

b. Decreased serum creatinine (practical utility unknown)

44
Q

Which of the following situations will result in a significant loss in amniotic fluid in a sheep fetus?

a. Fetal surgical catheterization with all membranes closed tightly around the catheters.
b. Fetal surgical catheterization with an incomplete closure of the amnion.
c. Fetal surgical catheterization with an incomplete closure of both the amnion and chorion.
d. b or c

A

D

45
Q

T or F. In regards to the amniotic fluid, the amnion appears to function in limiting the AF movement through the intramembranous pathway while the chorion functions in absorbing AF thru the chorionic blood vessels.

A

True

46
Q
  1. Octopus bimaculoides is in the phylum
    a. Mollusca
    b. Octopoda
    c. Cephalopoda
    d. Octopus
A
  1. a (Phylum Mollusca, Order is Cephalopoda)
47
Q
  1. The primary function of ctenidia is
    a. Apprehension of prey
    b. Ingestion of prey
    c. Reproduction
    d. Respiration
A

D

48
Q
  1. Narcotization for surgery was accomplished by use of MS-222 (tricaine methanesulfonate). T or F
A

F, 2% ethanol was used

49
Q
  1. The authors hypothesize that the intramantle inking caused death due to
    a. Toxicity of the ink
    b. Suffocation
A

B

50
Q

Which of the following are known stress behaviors in captive cephalopods?

a. Autophagy
b. Agitated swimming behaviors
c. Extramantle inking
d. Intramantle inking
e. All of the above

A

E

51
Q

T or F - The current evidence suggests that ink presents a risk of toxicity to the octopus producing it.

A

F. The evidence suggests that the toxicity risk is very low but that high concentrations around the ctenidia may cause asphyxiation and potentially death.

52
Q

True or False: Operant behavior studies are used routinely in the field of behavioral pharmacology to evaluate the effects of drugs.

A

True

53
Q

True or False: Tapering the dose and prolonging the treatment intervals of corticosteroids can avoid potential problems with the adrenal glands following termination of the treatment regimen.

A

True

54
Q

True or False: Combination therapy of NSAIDS and opioids is an example of multi-modal pain therapy.

A

True

JAALAS (17 decks)

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